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  • Processing forms that generate many rows in DB

    - by Zack
    I'm wondering what the best approach to take here is. I've got a form that people use to register for a class and a lot of times the manager of a company will register multiple people for the class at the same time. Presently, they'd have to go through the registration process multiple times and resubmit the form once for every person they want to register. What I want to do is give the user a form that has a single <input/> for one person to register with, along with all the other fields they'll need to fill out (Email, phone number, etc); if they want to add more people, they'll be able to press a button and a new <input/> will be generated. This part I know how to do, but I'm including it to best describe what I'm aiming to do. The part I don't know how to approach is processing that data the form submits, I need some way of making a new row in the Registrant table for every <input/> that's added and include the same contact information (phone, email, etc) as the first row with that row. For the record, I'm using the Django framework for my back-end code. What's the best approach here? Should it just POST the form x times for x people, or is there a less "brute force" way of handling this?

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  • hibernate empty collection in component

    - by Jurgen H
    I have a component mapped using Hibernate. If all fields in the component in the database are null, the component itself is set to null by hibernate. This is the expected behavior and also what I need. The problem I have, is that when I add a bag to that component, the bag is initialized to an empty list. This means the component has a non null value... resulting in the component being created. Any idea how to fix this? <class name="foo.bar.Entity" table="Entity"> <id name="id" column="id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="departure" column="departure_time" /> <property name="arrival" column="arrival_time" /> <component name="statistics"> <bag name="linkStatistics" lazy="false" cascade="all" > <key column="entity_id" not-null="true" /> <one-to-many class="foo.bar.LinkStatistics" /> </bag> <property name="loggedTime" column="logged_time" /> ... </component> A criteria with Restirctions.isNull("statistics") does return the expected values.

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  • I need help solving a rather weird error in a WCF service.

    - by Moulde
    Hi.. I have a solution that contains three projects. A main project with my MVC app, a silverlight application and a (silverlight enabled) WCF service project. In my silverlight project i have made a Service Reference to my WCF service. And i pretty much got that working. In my WCF service i have a method that returns an Book object, which got some random fields like title, date etc. In the book class, i have a ICollection field that contains a list of events. The book class is generated using entity framework 4.0, and Lazy Loading is enabled. If i in my getBook(int id) method return a book with the events field not initialized, it works as a charm. But if i initialize the field, i'm getting this error. The server did not provide a meaningful reply; this might be caused by a contract mismatch, a premature session shutdown or an internal server error. I have a few ideas why that is happening, and while writing this i just got another one. The wcf service somehow threw away the reference to the event class. That would be very weird since i have a reference between my main mvc app (with the models) and my WCF service. Since i have enabled lazy loading in EF 4.0, i suspect that it may be the thing generating the error. But i'm not sure why that would be, because i'm not in any way accessing that field. I could understand that i may not be able to access the events field after i recive the object in my silverlight application since the connection between the book object and the entity framework is like broken. Did i mention that Lazy Loading is enabled on my EF instance? And there is no inner exception in the thrown exception. Thanks in advance. Malte Baden Hansen

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  • java: assigning object reference IDs for custom serialization

    - by Jason S
    For various reasons I have a custom serialization where I am dumping some fairly simple objects to a data file. There are maybe 5-10 classes, and the object graphs that result are acyclic and pretty simple (each serialized object has 1 or 2 references to another that are serialized). For example: class Foo { final private long id; public Foo(long id, /* other stuff */) { ... } } class Bar { final private long id; final private Foo foo; public Bar(long id, Foo foo, /* other stuff */) { ... } } class Baz { final private long id; final private List<Bar> barList; public Baz(long id, List<Bar> barList, /* other stuff */) { ... } } The id field is just for the serialization, so that when I am serializing to a file, I can write objects by keeping a record of which IDs have been serialized so far, then for each object checking whether its child objects have been serialized and writing the ones that haven't, finally writing the object itself by writing its data fields and the IDs corresponding to its child objects. What's puzzling me is how to assign id's. I thought about it, and it seems like there are three cases for assigning an ID: dynamically-created objects -- id is assigned from a counter that increments reading objects from disk -- id is assigned from the number stored in the disk file singleton objects -- object is created prior to any dynamically-created object, to represent a singleton object that is always present. How can I handle these properly? I feel like I'm reinventing the wheel and there must be a well-established technique for handling all the cases.

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  • Setting initial state of a JSF component to invalid

    - by user359391
    Hi there I have a small JSF application where the user is required to enter some data about themselves. For each component on the page that has required="true" I want to show an icon depending if there is data in the field or not. My problem is that when the page is initially shown all fields are valid, even if they do not have any data in them. So my question is how I can set a component to be invalid based on if there is data in the field or not? After a submit of the page (or after the component loses focus) the icon is shown properly, it is only on the initial page load I have a problem. (i.e there is no post data) Here is my xhtml for a component that needs to be validated: <s:decorate id="employeeIdDecoration" template="/general/util/errorStyle.xhtml"> <ui:define name="label">#{messages['userdetails.employeeId']}</ui:define> <h:inputText value="#{authenticator.user.employeeId}" required="true"> <a4j:support event="onblur" reRender="employeeIdDecoration" bypassUpdates="true"/> </h:inputText> the template: <s:label styleClass="#{invalid?'error':''}"> <ui:insert name="label"/> <s:span styleClass="required" rendered="#{required}">*</s:span> </s:label> <span class="#{invalid?'error':''}"> <s:validateAll> <ui:insert/> </s:validateAll> <h:graphicImage value="/resources/redx.png" rendered="#{invalid}" height="16" width="16" style="vertical-align:middle;"/> <h:graphicImage value="/resources/Checkmark.png" rendered="#{!invalid}" height="16" width="16" style="vertical-align:middle;"/> </span> Any help will be appreciated.

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  • Display a summary of form element values before submit

    - by Dirty Bird Design
    Using jquery formtowizard.js with an ajax submit. I want the last step of the form to display a summary of all form fields that were filled out. I can get it to work in isolated test cases, but not in full use. Form <form id="Commission" method="post" action="PHP/CommissionsSubmit.php"> <fieldset id="Initial"> <legend>Enter Your Information</legend> <ul> <li> <label for="FName">First Name*</label><input type="text" name="FName" id="FName"> </li> //repeat many li's </ul> </fieldset> <fieldset> <legend>Second Step</legend> //more li's </fieldset> <fieldset> <legend>Confirmation</legend> <span id="CFName"></span> </fieldset> </form> the jquery to get "#CFName" value $('#FName').keyup(function() { $('#CFName').val($(this).val()); }); I can't get the value to appear in the span "#CFName"... Could this have to do with the "serialize" function or anything going on with my $ajax submit function? its happening before submit... Please help! I apologize, but I've gone back and forth with "#CFName" being a span and an input, using .val and .html respectively

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  • How does Access 2007's moveNext/moveFirst/, etc., feature work?

    - by Chris M
    I'm not an Access expert, but am an SQL expert. I inherited an Access front-end referencing a SQL 2005 database that worked OK for about 5000 records, but is failing miserably for 800k records... Behind the scenes in the SQL profiler & activity manager I see some kind of Access query like: SELECT "MS1"."id" FROM "dbo"."customer" "MS1" ORDER BY "MS1"."id" The MS prefix doesn't appear in any Access code I can see. I'm suspicious of the built-in Access navigation code: DoCmd.GoToRecord , , acNext The GoToRecord has AcRecord constant, which includes things like acFirst, acLast, acNext, acPrevious and acGoTo. What does it mean in a database context to move to the "next" record? This particular table uses an identity column as the PK, so is it internally grabbing all the IDs and then moving to the one that is the next highest??? If so, how would it work if a table was comprised of three different fields for the PK? Or am I on the wrong track, and something else in Access is calling that statement? Unfortunately I see a ton of prepared statements in the profiler. THanks!

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  • What prevents a user from adding controls to an ASP.NET page client side?

    - by Curtis White
    This goes back to my other question which I thought was sufficiently answers but upon reflect am not sure that it was (sorry). Backgrounder: I am generating a form dynamically. I am pulling from the database the controls. I must associate each control with a database ID which is not the user's session id. I do this currently by storing my ID in the ID for the web control with some other stuff to make it unique/clear what I am doing. On the post back, I iterate through all the controls on my web page checking for my special identifier, ie, MyGeneratedTextBox_ID_Unique. This process enables for 2 important steps, identifying the control was one I generated and also getting the ID for this input field. And, all of this works but I'm still concerned about the security of it. I do not see a security issue with showing the actual database ID's in this case, although agree it is not desirable. However, I am concerned of the following possibilities: If a user could add a nefarious control to my collection and use that for a SQL injection attack. More academic, but if a user could somehow store data for fields they do not have access too by changing the id's. I agree this is a "hack" of a way to do it. But my question is, is it a security risk and is there an 'easy' way to do it in a less hack way? I assume that only the controls that are created/instantiated on the page are added to the controls list.. thus all controls must be created server side and thus the security issue is address but just wanted to validate. Thanks again. PS: I could see adding a property for each control and encrypting the viewstate would be a little more secure.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Inserting object and related object into 2 tables

    - by ile
    I have two tables: Users and UserOwners. Table UserOwners contains list of users that certain user created (list of child-users) - or to be more precise, it contains UserOwnerID and UserID fields. So, now I want to create a new user... in Controller I have something like this: var userOwner = accountRepository.GetUser(User.Identity.Name); var userOwnerID = userOwner.UserID; UserReference userReference = new UserReference(); userReference.UserOwnerID = userOwnerID; if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { //accountRepository.Add(user); //accountRepository.Save(); return View(); } catch { return View(); } } What is the easiest way to add new user to a table Users and matching UserOwner to UserOwners table. Is it suppose to be something like this? public void Add(User user) { db.Users.InsertOnSubmit(user); db.UserReferences.InsertOnSubmit(user.UserReference); } ...or I will have to pass two objects and after adding user I must read it's ID and than assign it to userReference object and add that object to DB? If so, how to read ID of the last object added? Thanks, Ile

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  • Play! 1.2.5 with mongodb | Model Validation not happening

    - by TGV
    I have a simple User model whose fields are annotated with play validation annotations and morphia annotations like below. import play.data.validation.*; import play.modules.morphia.Model; import com.google.code.morphia.annotations.*; @Entity public class User extends Model{ @Id @Indexed(name="USERID", unique=true) public ObjectId userId; @Required public String userName; @Email @Indexed(name="USEREMAIL", unique=true) @Required public String userEmail; } Now I have a service which has a CreateNewUser method responsible for persisting the data. I have used Morphia plugin for the dao support. But the problem is that User Document gets persisted in mongo-db even if userName or userEmail is NULL. Also @Email validation does not happen // Below code is in app/controllers/Application.java User a = new User(); a.userName = "user1"; // calling bean to create user, userService is in app/service/UserService userService.createNewUser(a); It does not work even after adding @valid and validation.hasErrors() check.Below code is in app/service/UserService public void createNewUser(@Valid User user) { if (Validation.hasErrors()) { System.out.println("has errors"); } else { // TODO Auto-generated method stub userDao.save(user); } }

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  • In Java, is there a performance gain in using interfaces for complex models?

    - by Gnoupi
    The title is hardly understandable, but I'm not sure how to summarize that another way. Any edit to clarify is welcome. I have been told, and recommended to use interfaces to improve performances, even in a case which doesn't especially call for the regular "interface" role. In this case, the objects are big models (in a MVC meaning), with many methods and fields. The "good use" that has been recommended to me is to create an interface, with its unique implementation. There won't be any other class implementing this interface, for sure. I have been told that this is better to do so, because it "exposes less" (or something close) to the other classes which will use methods from this class, as these objects are referring to the object from its interface (all public methods from the implementation being reproduced in the interface). This seems quite strange to me, as it seems like a C++ use to me (with header files). There I see the point, but in Java? Is there really a point in making an interface for such unique implementation? I would really appreciate some clarifications on the topic, so I could justify not following such kind of behavior, and the hassle it creates from duplicating all declarations. Edit: Plenty of valid points in most answers, I'm wondering if I won't switch this question for a community wiki, so we can regroup these points in more structured answers.

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  • Fasted way to develop data entry screens for a .NET backend ?

    - by jay23
    I am a .NET / C# back end guy. I am working on a app that will have about 200 different data entry screens. For me exposing DTO as a collection for CRUD (IUpdatable and IQueryable) is the easy part, can do it in sleep :-). What I am trying to decide is what type of front end technology will allow me to develop these data entry screens fast. They don't have to be fancy but they are not just plain grid either and on average they have about 15 form fields and some client side data validation (no db look up) Options I am looking at are Use ExtJS on the front and REST / JSON on the back. ASP.NET RIA but I do not know SL (Well XAML) Plain ASP.NET / MVC One idea I had was the DTO will contain the meta data about the form (As Attributes) and the form can be dynamically generated, but i do not want to reinvent the wheel if their is an easy way. I have looked at RAD software but all of them look at the DB and generate screens. I rather want some thing that can look at my DTO and generate screens. Jay

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  • Using the JPA Criteria API, can you do a fetch join that results in only one join?

    - by Shaun
    Using JPA 2.0. It seems that by default (no explicit fetch), @OneToOne(fetch = FetchType.EAGER) fields are fetched in 1 + N queries, where N is the number of results containing an Entity that defines the relationship to a distinct related entity. Using the Criteria API, I might try to avoid that as follows: CriteriaBuilder builder = entityManager.getCriteriaBuilder(); CriteriaQuery<MyEntity> query = builder.createQuery(MyEntity.class); Root<MyEntity> root = query.from(MyEntity.class); Join<MyEntity, RelatedEntity> join = root.join("relatedEntity"); root.fetch("relatedEntity"); query.select(root).where(builder.equals(join.get("id"), 3)); The above should ideally be equivalent to the following: SELECT m FROM MyEntity m JOIN FETCH myEntity.relatedEntity r WHERE r.id = 3 However, the criteria query results in the root table needlessly being joined to the related entity table twice; once for the fetch, and once for the where predicate. The resulting SQL looks something like this: SELECT myentity.id, myentity.attribute, relatedentity2.id, relatedentity2.attribute FROM my_entity myentity INNER JOIN related_entity relatedentity1 ON myentity.related_id = relatedentity1.id INNER JOIN related_entity relatedentity2 ON myentity.related_id = relatedentity2.id WHERE relatedentity1.id = 3 Alas, if I only do the fetch, then I don't have an expression to use in the where clause. Am I missing something, or is this a limitation of the Criteria API? If it's the latter, is this being remedied in JPA 2.1 or are there any vendor-specific enhancements? Otherwise, it seems better to just give up compile-time type checking (I realize my example doesn't use the metamodel) and use dynamic JPQL TypedQueries.

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  • Can I have two names for the same variable?

    - by Roman
    The short version of the question: I do: x = y. Then I change x, and y is unchanged. What I want is to "bind" x and y in such a way that I change y whenever I change x. The extended version (with some details): I wrote a class ("first" class) which generates objects of another class ("second" class). In more details, every object of the second class has a name as a unique identifier. I call a static method of the first class with a name of the object from the second class. The first class checks if such an object was already generated (if it is present in the static HashMap of the first class). If it is already there, it is returned. If it is not yet there, it is created, added to the HashMap and returned. And then I have the following problem. At some stage of my program, I take an object with a specific name from the HashMap of the first class. I do something with this object (for example change values of some fields). But the object in the HashMap does not see these changes! So, in fact, I do not "take" an object from the HashMap, I "create a copy" of this object and this is what I would like to avoid.

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  • How to make "int" parse blank strings?

    - by Alex B
    I have a parsing system for fixed-length text records based on a layout table: parse_table = [\ ('name', type, length), .... ('numeric_field', int, 10), # int example ('textc_field', str, 100), # string example ... ] The idea is that given a table for a message type, I just go through the string, and reconstruct a dictionary out of it, according to entries in the table. Now, I can handle strings and proper integers, but int() will not parse all-spaces fields (for a good reason, of course). I wanted to handle it by defining a subclass of int that handles blank strings. This way I could go and change the type of appropriate table entries without introducing additional kludges in the parsing code (like filters), and it would "just work". But I can't figure out how to override the constructor of a build-in type in a sub-type, as defining constructor in the subclass does not seem to help. I feel I'm missing something fundamental here about how Python built-in types work. How should I approach this? I'm also open to alternatives that don't add too much complexity.

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  • Is it possible to dynamically insert rows in an existing DataTable (No DataSource used)?

    - by aparnakarthik
    Hi... I have created a datatable with three fields namely TimeTask, TaskItem and Count (count of user) eg; {"12:30AM-01:00AM" , T1 , 3}. dataTable.Columns.Add("Task Time", typeof(string)); dataTable.Columns.Add("Task", typeof(string)); dataTable.Columns.Add("Count", typeof(int)); dataTable.Rows.Add("12:00AM-12:15AM", "T1", 6); dataTable.Rows.Add("12:45AM-01:00AM", "T1", 5); dataTable.Rows.Add("01:00AM-01:15AM", "T1", 1); dataTable.Rows.Add("01:15AM-01:30AM", "T2", 4); dataTable.Rows.Add("01:30AM-01:45AM", "T2", 9); GridView1.DataSource = dataTable; GridView1.DataBind(); In this there is no task for the TimeTask "12:15AM-12:30AM" and "12:30AM-12:45AM" yet the TimeTask should be inserted as, TimeTask TaskItem Count 12:00AM-12:15AM T1 6 12:15AM-12:30AM - - 12:30AM-12:45AM - - 12:45AM-01:00AM T1 5 01:00AM-01:15AM T1 1 01:15AM-01:30AM T2 4 01:30AM-01:45AM T2 9 How to chk for the missing rows? Is it possible to dynamically insert rows in an existing DataTable (No DataSource used) in this scenario.pls help.Thanks :-)

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  • Run a shell script using cron

    - by Blanca
    Hi! I have this FeedIndexer.sh: #!/bin/sh java -jar FeedIndexer.jar Just to run FeedIndexer.jar which is in the same directory as the .sh, I would like to run it using crontab, so I did this: # /etc/crontab: system-wide crontab # Unlike any other crontab you don't have to run the `crontab' # command to install the new version when you edit this file # and files in /etc/cron.d. These files also have username fields, # that none of the other crontabs do. SHELL=/bin/sh PATH=/usr/local/sbin:/usr/local/bin:/sbin:/bin:/usr/sbin:/usr/bin # m h dom mon dow user command 17 * * * * root cd / && run-parts --report /etc/cron.hourly 25 6 * * * root test -x /usr/sbin/anacron || ( cd / && run-parts --report /etc/cron.daily ) 47 6 * * 7 root test -x /usr/sbin/anacron || ( cd / && run-parts --report /etc/cron.weekly ) 52 6 1 * * root test -x /usr/sbin/anacron || ( cd / && run-parts --report /etc/cron.monthly ) 01 01 * * * root run-parts --report /home/slosada/workspace/FeedIndexer/target/FeedIndexer.sh # But it doen't work. Have i made any mistake?? Thank you!

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  • find on page neighbouring siblings jquery?

    - by Stefan
    ok i've been searching for an answer to this (if there even is one) with no luck i have a succession of div elements as shown in the pic bellow: http://i61.photobucket.com/albums/h46/DrAcOliCh_2006/untitled-1.jpg?t=1300520458 the blue background is the absolute parent of the orange divs which are also siblings the DOM is not quite organized according to how the orange elements appear on the page because they are all draggable (i used jquery UI) and i moved them around inside the parent, yet, as some know, the DOM doesn't get reorganized when i move draggable elements around, so basically the siblings structure remains the same inside the DOM what i kinda need (again if that is even possible) is to determine the immediate on page neighbouring siblings of eachother; in other words, say we take that "FlashBanner" element which, on page, has the "Logo", the "Search" and the "ShoppingBasket" elements as immediate top siblings and the "Categories" and "Content" elements as immediate bottom siblings (and no left or right siblings) i have a manual solution to this, that is to pre-specify the on page neighbouring siblings for each element through a series of form fields and stuff (another story and another wall of text to explain), but that is not important atm as i want to know if it can be done automatically (i.e tell jquery to find them for me) appreciate any help, even an "it can't be done automatically", and thank you for your time hope this doesn't sound to ambiguous (or silly for that matter) and why i need to do that don't ask :P wall of text to explain cheers :)

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  • Prototype: Form.serialize missing some inputs (due to table?)

    - by Chris
    I'm using JavaScript Prototype (through Ruby on Rails) to handle some Ajax calls; but in one particular case I'm missing a field from the form. I have a layout like this: +---------+---------+ | Thing 1 | Thing 2 | +---------+---------+-----------+ | o Opt 1 | o Opt 1 | <Confirm> | | o Opt 2 | o Opt 2 | | +---------+---------+-----------+ Opt 1 and 2 are Radio buttons, Confirm is a button. The entire table is wrapped in a form, with code like: <form action="javascript:void(0)"> <input type="hidden" name="context" value="foo" /> <input type="hidden" name="subcontext" value="bar" /> <table> <tr><td>Thing 1</td><td>Thing2</td></tr> <tr><td> <input type="radio" name="choice" value="1.1" />Opt 1<br /> <input type="radio" name="choice" value="1.2" />Opt 2<br /> </td><td> <input type="radio" name="choice" value="2.1" />Opt 1<br /> <input type="radio" name="choice" value="2.2" />Opt 2<br /> </td><td> <input name="choice_btn" type="button" value="Confirm" onclick="new AJAX.Updater('my_form', '/process_form', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, parameters:Form.serialize(this.form)}); return false;" /> </td></tr> </table> </form> But I can see that the POST generated by clicking the Confirm button contains the foo and bar values for the hidden fields, but not the choice of the radio buttons. Is this because I've got a table inside my form? How can I get around this?

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  • database table design

    - by e.b.white
    I design the tables as below for the system which looks like a package delivering system For example, after user received the package, postman should record in system, and the state(history table) is "delivered",and operator is this postman, the current state(state table) is of course "delivered" history table: +---------------+--------------------------+ | Field | Desc | +---------------+--------------------------+ | id | PRIMARY KEY | +---------------+--------------------------+ | package_id | package_tacking_id | +---------------+--------------------------+ | state | package_state | +---------------+--------------------------+ | operators | operators | +---------------+--------------------------+ | create_time| create_time | +---------------+--------------------------+ state table: +---------------+--------------------------+ | Field | Desc | +---------------+--------------------------+ | id | PRIMARY KEY | +---------------+--------------------------+ | package_id | package_tacking_id | +---------------+--------------------------+ | state | latest_package_state | +---------------+--------------------------+ Above is just the basic information to record, some other information( like invoice, destination,...) should be recored as well. But there are different service types like s1 and s2, for s1 it is not needed to record invoice but s1 need, and maybe s1 need some other information to record (like the tel of end user). After all, at delivering way stations there are additional information to record, and for different service type the information type is different. My question is: 1. For different service type, shall I need to declare different tables(option A) or just one big table which can record all information for all types(option B)? 2. If option A, since the basic information above is MUST, how can prevent from declaring there duplicate fields in different tables?

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  • Value missing from form.fieldnames in ColdFusion

    - by Patrick McElhaney
    I must be losing my mind. <cfif cgi.request_method eq "POST"> <cfoutput> Form.fieldnames = #form.fieldnames#<br> structKeyList(form) = #structKeyList(form)# </cfoutput> </cfif> <form method="post" accept-charset="utf-8"> <input type="text" name="graduation_date" value="x"><br> <input type="text" name="foo" value="y"><br> <input type="text" name="bar" value="z"><br> <input type="submit" value="Submit Form" > </form> The form.fieldnames variable should include a list of submitted fields: foo, bar, and graduation_date. But graduation_date is missing. After a little more testing, I see that anything ending in _date is excluded from form.fieldnames. I was going to ask what's wrong with my code, but now I'm pretty convinced it's a bug in ColdFusion. (I'm on ColdFusion 8.0.1 / OS X 10.5.6.) It's a bug in ColdFusion, right?

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  • Set DetailsView as selected row of GridView

    - by Nix
    I am afraid this is a brain fart question. But I have searched around and have not been able to find the answer. I am creating a GridView/DetailsView page. I have a grid that displays a bunch of rows, when a row is selected it uses a DetailsView to allow for Insert/Update. My question is what is the best way to link these? I do not want to reach out to the web service again, all the data i need is in the selected grid view row. I basically have 2 separate data sources that share the same "DataObjectTypeName", the first data source retrieves the data, and the other to do the CRUD. What is the best way to transfer the Selected Grid View row to the Details View? Am I going to have to manualy handle the Insert/Update events and call the data source myself? <asp:GridView ID="gvDetails" runat="server" DataKeyNames="ID, Code" DataSourceID="odsSearchData" > <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowA" HeaderText="A" SortExpression="RowA" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowB" HeaderText="B" SortExpression="RowB" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowC" HeaderText="C" SortExpression="RowC" /> ....Code... <asp:DetailsView ID="dvDetails" runat="server" DataKeyNames="ID, Code" DataSourceID="odsCRUD" GridLines="None" DefaultMode="Edit" AutoGenerateRows="false" Visible="false" Width="100%"> <Fields> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowA" HeaderText="A" SortExpression="RowA" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowB" HeaderText="B" SortExpression="RowB" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowC" HeaderText="C" SortExpression="RowC" /> ...

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  • codeigniter differentiate field names in JOINed tables

    - by Patrick
    Hi, I need to retrieve data from two tables. the first is a list of events, the second is a list of venues. I have a fields with the same name in both tables: events.venue (which is an ID) and venues.venue is the name of the place, say "blues bar". The tables can be joined on events.venue = venues.id. Snippet of my model: $this->db->select('events.*, venues.*'); $this->db->join('venues', 'events.venue = venues.id'); if ($date != 'all') { $this->db->where('date', $date); } if ($keyword) { $this->db->like('description', $keyword); $this->db->or_like('band', $keyword); $this->db->or_like('venue', $keyword); $this->db->or_like('genre', $keyword); } $Q = $this->db->get('events'); if ($Q->num_rows() > 0) { foreach ($Q->result() as $row) { $data[] = $row; } } $Q->free_result(); return $data; Snippet of the View: foreach ($events as $row) { echo "<p>{$row->band} ({$row->genre})<br />"; echo "Playing at: {$row->venue}<br /></p>"; // echoes "blues bar" //more here... } 2 Questions: 1) Why does $row-venue echo venues.venue, instead of events.venue? B) how can I differentiate them? eg. What if I want to echo both events.venue and venues.venue? I can probably do something like "SELECT venues.venue as name_of_the_venue", but how can I do this when I've already selected *?

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  • Web Control added in .master control type not found in child page

    - by turtle
    I have a Web Site project, and within it I have a user Web Control defined in an ascx file. The control is added to the Site.Master, and it shows up correctly on the page and everything is fine. I need to override some of the control's fields on one of the pages that derive from Site.Master. // In OnLoad: MyControlName control = (MyControlName) Page.Master.GetBaseMasterPage().FindControl("controlID")); The issue is that MyControlName doesn't register as a valid Type on the child page. If I add a second instance of the control to the child page directly, the above works as needed, but if the control isn't placed directly on the page, and instead is only defined in the master page, the type is undefined. The control is not in a namespace, and is defined within the project, so I don't know why it is having such an issue location the appropriate type. If I put a breakpoint in the OnLoad, the type listed for the control is ASP.my_control_name_ascx, but using that does not work either. Why can't the child class reference the correct type? Can I fix this? Thanks!

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  • Looking for an email template engine for end-users ...

    - by RizwanK
    We have a number of customers that we have to send monthly invoices too. Right now, I'm managing a codebase that does SQL queries against our customer database and billing database and places that data into emails - and sends it. I grow weary of maintaining this every time we want to include a new promotion or change our customer service phone numbers. So, I'm looking for a replacement to move more of this into the hands of those requesting the changes. In my ideal world, I need : A WYSIWYG (man, does anyone even say that anymore?) email editor that generates templates based upon the output from a Database Query. The ability to drag and drop various fields from the database query into the email template. Display of sample email results with the database query. Web application, preferably not requiring IIS. Involve as little code as possible for the end-user, but allow basic functionality (i.e. arrays/for loops) Either comes with it's own email delivery engine, or writes output in a way that I can easily write a Python script to deliver the email. Support for generic Database Connectors. (I need MSSQL and MySQL) F/OSS So ... can anyone suggest a project like this, or some tools that'd be useful for rolling my own? (My current alternative idea is using something like ERB or Tenjin, having them write the code, but not having live-preview for the editor would suck...)

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