Search Results

Search found 19393 results on 776 pages for 'reference count'.

Page 264/776 | < Previous Page | 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270 271  | Next Page >

  • Events and references pattern

    - by serhio
    In a project I have the following relation between BO and GUI By e.g. G could represent a graphic with time lines, C a TimeLine curve, P - points of that curve and T the time that represents each point. Each GUI object is associated with the BO corresponding object. When T changes GUI P captures the Changed event and changes its location. So, when G should be modified, it modifies internally its objects and as result T changes, P moves and the GuiG visually changes, everything is OK. But there is an inconvenient of this architecture... BO should not be recreated, because this will breack the link between BO and GUIO. In particular, GUI P should always have the same reference of T. If in a business logic I do by e.g. P1.T = new T(this.T + 10) GUI_P1 will not move anymore, because it wait an event from the reference of former P1.T object, that does not belongs to P1 anymore. So the solution was to always modify the existing objects, not to recreate it. But here is an other inconvenient: performance. Say I have a ready newC object that should replace the older one. Instead of doing G1.C = newC I should do foreach T in foreach P in C replace with T from P from newC. Is there an other more optimal way to do it?

    Read the article

  • iphone NSMutableArray loses objects at end of method

    - by Brodie4598
    Hello - in my app, an NSMutableArray is populated with an object in viewDidLoad (eventually there will be many objects but I'm just doing one til I get it working right). I also start a timer that starts a method that needs to access the NSMutableArray every few seconds. The NSMutableArray works fine in viewDidLoad, but as soon as that method is finished, it loses the object. myApp.h @interface MyApp : UIViewController { NSMutableArray *myMutableArray; NSTimer *timer; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *myMutableArray; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSTimer *timer; @end myApp.m #import "MyApp.h" @implementation MyApp @synthesize myMutableArray; - (void) viewDidLoad { cycleTimer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:4.0 target:self selector:@selector(newCycle) userInfo: nil repeats:YES]; MyObject *myCustomUIViewObject = [[MyObject alloc]init]; [myMutableArray addObject:myCustomUIViewObject]; [myCustomUIViewObject release]; NSLog(@"%i",[myMutableArray count]); /////outputs "1" } -(void) newCycle { NSLog(@"%i",[myMutableArray count]); /////outputs "0" ?? why is this?? }

    Read the article

  • why does entity framework+mysql provider enumeration returns partial results with no exceptions

    - by Freddy Rios
    I'm trying to make sense of a situation I have using entity framework on .net 3.5 sp1 + MySQL 6.1.2.0 as the provider. It involves the following code: Response.Write("Products: " + plist.Count() + "<br />"); var total = 0; foreach (var p in plist) { //... some actions total++; //... other actions } Response.Write("Total Products Checked: " + total + "<br />"); Basically the total products is varying on each run, and it isn't matching the full total in plist. Its varies widely, from ~ 1/5th to half. There isn't any control flow code inside the foreach i.e. no break, continue, try/catch, conditions around total++, anything that could affect the count. As confirmation, there are other totals captured inside the loop related to the actions, and those match the lower and higher total runs. I don't find any reason to the above, other than something in entity framework or the mysql provider that causes it to end the foreach when retrieving an item. The body of the foreach can have some good variation in time, as the actions involve file & network access, my best shot at the time is that when the .net code takes beyond certain threshold there is some type of timeout in the underlying framework/provider and instead of causing an exception it is silently reporting no more items for enumeration. Can anyone give some light in the above scenario and/or confirm if the entity framework/mysql provider has the above behavior? Update: I can't reproduce the behavior by using Thread.Sleep in a simple foreach in a test project, not sure where else to look for this weird behavior :(.

    Read the article

  • Return call from ggplot object

    - by aL3xa
    I've been using ggplot2 for a while now, and I can't find a way to get formula from ggplot object. Though I can get basic info with summary(<ggplot_object>), in order to get complete formula, usually I was combing up and down through .Rhistory file. And this becomes frustrating when you experiment with new graphs, especially when code gets a bit lengthy... so searching through history file isn't quite convenient way of doing this... Is there a more efficient way of doing this? Just an illustration: p <- qplot(data = mtcars, x = factor(cyl), geom = "bar", fill = factor(cyl)) + scale_fill_manual(name = "Cylinders", value = c("firebrick3", "gold2", "chartreuse3")) + stat_bin(aes(label = ..count..), vjust = -0.2, geom = "text", position = "identity") + xlab("# of cylinders") + ylab("Frequency") + opts(title = "Barplot: # of cylinders") I can get some basic info with summary: > summary(p) data: mpg, cyl, disp, hp, drat, wt, qsec, vs, am, gear, carb [32x11] mapping: fill = factor(cyl), x = factor(cyl) scales: fill faceting: facet_grid(. ~ ., FALSE) ----------------------------------- geom_bar: stat_bin: position_stack: (width = NULL, height = NULL) mapping: label = ..count.. geom_text: vjust = -0.2 stat_bin: width = 0.9, drop = TRUE, right = TRUE position_identity: (width = NULL, height = NULL) But I want to get code I typed in to get the graph. I reckon that I'm missing something essential here... it's seems impossible that there's no way to get call from ggplot object!

    Read the article

  • PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer vs Filters -- Spring Beans

    - by John
    Hi there. I've got a question regarding the difference between PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer (org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer) and normal filters defined in my pom.xml. I've been looking at examples, and it seems that even though filters are defined and marked to be active by default in the pom.xml they still make use of PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer in Spring's applicationContext.xml. This means that the pom.xml has a reference to a filter-LOCAL.properties while applicationContext.xml has a reference to application.properties and they both contain the same settings. Why is that? Is that how it is supposed to be done? I'm able to run the goal mvn jetty:run without the application.properties present, but if I add settings to the application.properties that differ from the filter-LOCAL.properties they don't seem to override. Here's an example of what I mean: pom.xml <profiles <profile <idLOCAL <activation <activeByDefaulttrue </activation <properties <envLOCAL </properties </profile </profiles applicationContext.xml <bean id="propertyConfigurer" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer" <property name="locations" <list <valueclasspath:application.properties </list </property <property name="ignoreResourceNotFound" value="true"/ </bean <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" <property name="driverClassName" value="${jdbc.driver}"/ <property name="url" value="${jdbc.url}"/ <property name="username" value="${jdbc.username}"/ <property name="password" value="${jdbc.password}"/ </bean an example of the content of application.properties and filters-LOCAL.properties jdbc.driver=org.postgresql.Driver jdbc.url=jdbc:postgresql://localhost/shoutbox_dev jdbc.username=tester jdbc.password=tester Can I remove the propertyConfigurer from the applicationContext, create a PROD filter and disregard the application.properties file, or will that give me issues when deploying to the production server?

    Read the article

  • Test Driven Development with C++: How to test a class which depends on other classes?

    - by Nikhil
    Suppose I have a class A which depends on 3 other classes X, Y and Z, either A uses these through a reference or a pointer or say A is templated to be instantiated with X, Y and Z doesn't matter, the key is that in order to test A, I need to have X, Y and Z. So I need to have fakes for A, B and C. Suppose I write them. Now, how do I swap real and fake objects easily? I can see that this works very easily in the case of templates. In order to make it work when A depends on X, Y and Z through a reference or a pointer, I would need to have a base class say X_Interface from which I can inherit X_Real and X_Fake. So basically, I would end up in having 3 times the number of classes for every class that would need to have a fake. I am most likely missing something. There has to be a simpler way to do this. Having a base class X_Interface is also quite expensive as I will be using more space and making virtual calls. I guess I could use CRTP as I know whether its a X_Real or X_Fake at compile time but still there must be a better way.

    Read the article

  • Quick MVC2 checkbox question

    - by kevinmajor1
    In order to get my EF4 EntityCollection to bind with check box values, I have to manually create the check boxes in a loop like so: <p> <%: Html.Label("Platforms") %><br /> <% for(var i = 0; i < Model.AllPlatforms.Count; ++i) { %> <%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.Name %> <input type="checkbox" name="PlatformIDs" value="<%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.PlatformID %>" /><br /> <% } %> </p> It works, but it doesn't automatically populate the group of check boxes with existing values when I'm editing a model entity. Can I fudge it with something like? <p> <%: Html.Label("Platforms") %><br /> <% for(var i = 0; i < Model.AllPlatforms.Count; ++i) { %> <%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.Name %> <input type="checkbox" name="PlatformIDs" value="<%: Model.AllPlatforms[i].Platform.PlatformID %>" checked=<%: Model.GameData.Platforms.Any(p => PlatformID == i) ? "true" : "false" %> /><br /> <% } %> </p> I figure there has to be something along those lines which will work, and am just wondering if I'm on the right track. EDIT: I'm purposely staying away from MVC's check box HTML helper methods as they're too inflexible for my needs. My check boxes use integers as their values by design.

    Read the article

  • function binding and the clone() function - Jquery

    - by Sam Vloeberghs
    Hi I have problems with my keyup binding when cloning an element. Here's the scenario: I have an html markup like this: <tr class="rijbasis"> <td> <input type="text" class="count" /> </td> <td> <span class="cost">10</span> </td> <td> <span class="total">10</span> </td> </tr> I'm binding an keyup function to the input element of my table row like this: $('.rijbasis input').keyup(function(){ var parent = $(this).parent().parent(); $('.total',parent).text(parseInt($('.cost',parent).text()) * parseInt($('.count',parent).val())); } I designed the function like this so I could clone the table row on a onclick event and append it to the tbody: $('.lineadd').click(function(){ $('.contract tbody').append($('.contract tbody tr:last').clone()); $('.contract tbody tr:last input').val("0"); }); This al works , but the keyup function doesnt work on the input elements of the cloned row.. Can anybody help or advice? I hope I was clear enough and I'll be surely adding details if needed to solve this problem. Greetings

    Read the article

  • Transaction to find an entity - locks all entities of that type?

    - by user246114
    Hi, Reading the docs for transactions: http://code.google.com/appengine/docs/java/datastore/transactions.html An example provided shows one way to make an instance of an object: try { tx.begin(); Key k = KeyFactory.createKey("SalesAccount", id); try { account = pm.getObjectById(Employee.class, k); } catch (JDOObjectNotFoundException e) { account = new SalesAccount(); account.setId(id); } ... When the above transaction gets executed, it will probably block all other write attempts on Account objects? I'm wondering because I'd like to have a user signup which checks for a username or email already in use: tx.begin(); "select from User where mUsername == str1 LIMIT 1"; if (count > 0) { throw new Exception("username already in use!"); } "select from User where mEmail == str1 LIMIT 1"; if (count > 0) { throw new Exception("email already in use!"); } pm.makePersistent(user(username, email)); // ok. tx.commit(); but the above would be even more time consuming I think, making an even worse bottleneck? Am I understanding what will happen correctly? Thanks

    Read the article

  • movieClip in Array displays null, and aren't showing up on stage.addChild(Array[i])

    - by jtdino
    i am new to Actionscript3, i need to know why i keep getting Parameter child must be non-null. And my code won't display 5 enemyBlock objects onto the stage but only just one. any tips and help will be much appreciated. thanks in advance. returns: TypeError: Error #2007: Parameter child must be non-null. at flash.display::DisplayObjectContainer/addChild() at flash.display::Stage/addChild() at BlockDrop_fla::MainTimeline/EnemyBlockPos() at BlockDrop_fla::MainTimeline/frame2() // declare varibles var isEnemyMoving:Boolean = false; var enemyArray:Array; var enemyBlock:MovieClip = new EnemyBlock(); // assign EnemyBlock class to enemyBlock var enemyBlockMC:MovieClip; var count:int = 5; var mapWidth:Number = 800; var mapHeight:Number = 600; function EnemyBlockPos() :void { // assign new MovieClip not null enemyBlockMC = new MovieClip; enemyArray = new Array(); for(var i=1; i<= count; i++){ // add class to MC enemyBlockMC.addChild(enemyBlock); // randomize position enemyBlock.x = Math.round(Math.random()*mapWidth); enemyBlock.y = Math.round(Math.random()*mapHeight); // set motion enemyBlock.movement = 5; // add MC to array enemyArray.push(enemyBlockMC); } for (var w = 1; w <= enemyArray.length; w++) { addChild(enemyArray[w]); } } // endOf EnemyBlockPos

    Read the article

  • net send command program debugging in C#

    - by riad
    Dear all, I write a program to execute and send msg using windows net send command.Its working fine for single receptor.But the problem happen when i want to send message in many receptors. i use a for loop to take receptor name from a list box. Here all message go to the first receptor.The problem happen on process execution.So far i guess the process is not clear or dead on the time. Can any body guide me how i can send the msg to multiple users at a time? my code below: string sendingMessage = messageRichTextBox.Text; string[] recepentAddressArray = new string[recepentAddressListBox.Items.Count]; for (int j = 0; j < recepentAddressListBox.Items.Count; j++) // Getting address from list box { recepentAddressArray[j] = recepentAddressListBox.Items[j].ToString(); string recepantAddress = recepentAddressArray[j]; try { string strLine = "net send " + recepantAddress + " " + sendingMessage + " >C:netsend.log"; FileStream fs = new FileStream("c:netsend.bat", FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write); StreamWriter streamWriter = new StreamWriter(fs); streamWriter.BaseStream.Seek(0, SeekOrigin.End); streamWriter.Write(strLine); streamWriter.Flush(); streamWriter.Close(); fs.Close(); Process p = new Process(); p.StartInfo.FileName = "C:netsend.bat"; p.StartInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Hidden; p.Start(); p.WaitForExit(); p.Close(); FileStream fsOutput = new FileStream("C:netsend.log", FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(fsOutput); reader.BaseStream.Seek(0, SeekOrigin.Begin); string strOut = reader.ReadLine(); reader.Close(); fsOutput.Close(); } catch (Exception) { MessageBox.Show("ERROR"); } }

    Read the article

  • How can I increment a counter every N loops in JMeter?

    - by Dave Hunt
    I want to test concurrency, and reliably replicate an issue that JMeter brought to my attention. What I want to do is set a unique identifier (currently the time in milliseconds with a counter appended) and increment the counter between loops but not between threads. The idea being that the number of threads I have set up is the number of identical identifiers before incrementing and using another. If I had 3 threads with a loop count of 2 I want: 1. Unique ID: <current-time-in-millis>000000 2. Unique ID: <current-time-in-millis>000000 3. Unique ID: <current-time-in-millis>000000 4. Unique ID: <current-time-in-millis>000001 5. Unique ID: <current-time-in-millis>000001 6. Unique ID: <current-time-in-millis>000001 I've tried using Throughput Controllers to increment a counter, as well as several other things that seemed they should work but had no luck. This seems like something JMeter should be able to do. Is there any way to get the value of the loop count?

    Read the article

  • Calculate the retrieved rows in database Visual C#

    - by Tanya Lertwichaiworawit
    I am new in Visual C# and would want to know how to calculate the retrieved data from a database. Using the above GUI, when "Calculate" is click, the program will display the number of students in textBox1, and the average GPA of all students in textBox2. Here is my database table "Students": I was able to display the number of students but I'm still confused to how I can calculate the average GPA Here's my code: private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string connection = @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=C:\Database1.accdb"; OleDbConnection connect = new OleDbConnection(connection); string sql = "SELECT * FROM Students"; connect.Open(); OleDbCommand command = new OleDbCommand(sql, connect); DataSet data = new DataSet(); OleDbDataAdapter adapter = new OleDbDataAdapter(command); adapter.Fill(data, "Students"); textBox1.Text = data.Tables["Students"].Rows.Count.ToString(); double gpa; for (int i = 0; i < data.Tables["Students"].Rows.Count; i++) { gpa = Convert.ToDouble(data.Tables["Students"].Rows[i][2]); } connect.Close(); }

    Read the article

  • relative url in wcf service binding

    - by Jeremy
    I have a silverlight control which has a reference to a silverlight enabled wcf service. When I add a reference to the service in my silverlight control, it adds the following to my clientconfig file: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:3097/MyApp/DataAccess.svc" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" contract="svcMyService.DataAccess" name="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> How do I specify a relative url in the endpoint address instead of the absolute url? I want it to work no matter where I deploy the web app to without having to edit the clientconfig file, because the silverlight component and the web app will always be deployed together. I thought I'd be able to specify just "DataAccess.svc" but it doesn't seem to like that.

    Read the article

  • Bytecode and Objects

    - by HH
    Hey everyone, I am working on a bytecode instrumentation project. Currently when handling objects, the verifier throws an error most of the time. So I would like to get things clear concerning rules with objects (I read the JVMS but couldn't find the answer I was looking for): I am instrumenting the NEW instruction: original bytecode NEW <MyClass> DUP INVOKESPECIAL <MyClass.<init>> after instrumentation NEW <MyClass> DUP INVOKESTATIC <Profiler.handleNEW> DUP INVOKESPECIAL <MyClass.<init>> Note that I added a call to Profiler.handleNEW() which takes as argument an object reference (the newly created object). The piece of code above throws a VerificationError. While if I don't add the INVOKESTATIC (leaving only the DUP), it doesn't. So what is the rule that I'm violating? I can duplicate an uninitialized reference but I can't pass it as parameter? I would appreciate any help. Thank you

    Read the article

  • How is a referencing environment generally implemented for closures?

    - by Alexandr Kurilin
    Let's say I have a statically/lexically scoped language with deep binding and I create a closure. The closure will consist of the statements I want executed plus the so called referencing environment, or, to quote this post, the collection of variables which can be used. What does this referencing environment actually look like implementation-wise? I was recently reading about ObjectiveC's implementation of blocks, and the author suggests that behind the scenes you get a copy of all of the variables on the stack and also of all the references to heap objects. The explanation claims that you get a "snapshot" of the referencing environment at the point in time of the closure's creation. Is that more or less what happens, or did I misread that? Is anything done to "freeze" a separate copy of the heap objects, or is it safe to assume that if they get modified between closure creation and the closure executing, the closure will no longer be operating on the original version of the object? If indeed there's copying being made, are there memory usage considerations in situations where one might want to create plenty of closures and store them somewhere? I think that misunderstanding of some of these concepts might lead to tricky issues like the ones Eric Lippert mentions in this blog post. It's interesting because you'd think that it wouldn't make sense to keep a reference to a value type that might be gone by the time the closure is called, but I'm guessing that in C# the compiler will figure out that the variable is needed later and put it into the heap instead. It seems that in most memory-managed languages everything is a reference and thus ObjectiveC is a somewhat unique situation with having to deal with copying what's on the stack.

    Read the article

  • How do I create Variables in XSLT that are not document fragments?

    - by chiborg
    Consider the following XSLT template <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:variable name="var1"> <elem>1</elem> <elem>2</elem> <elem>3</elem> </xsl:variable> <xsl:text>var1 has </xsl:text> <xsl:value-of select="count($var1)"/> <xsl:text>elements. </xsl:text> <xsl:variable name="var2" select="$var1/elem[. != '2']"/> <xsl:text>var2 has </xsl:text> <xsl:value-of select="count($var2)"/> <xsl:text>elements. </xsl:text> </xsl:template> The output of this template is var1 has 1 elements var2 has 2 elements The first line outputs 1 (and not, as I first expected 3) because var1 is a document fragment that contains the <elem> elements as childen. Now for my questions: How can I create a variable that does not contain a document fragment? I could do it like I did with var2, only leaving out the predicate. But maybe there is a way without using a second variable. Or, as an alternative: How can I preserve the document fragment in a variable while filtering out some elements?

    Read the article

  • Why do WCF clients depend on the app.config file?

    - by routeNpingme
    Like a lot of things, I'm sure there's a good reason for this, so please help me understand... Why, by default, do WCF services store settings in app.config? This has been so frustrating trying to work with multiple Silverlight class libraries. These class libraries are supposed to be completely independent from each other, and this dependency on the app.config seems to cause the following headaches: Single Responsibility Principle - I should be able to add a reference to a class library and go. If that class library uses a service reference, this idea is shot before I even start coding against it. Muddy Configuration - To get other libraries to work, I have to copy and paste the service configurations into the "main" application configs. If an endpoint changes in any way, I can't just worry about a new version of that class DLL - I have to worry about anything that uses it, too. Complex Alternatives - Programmatically creating the endpoint isn't pretty. Period. There has to be a better way. Why doesn't WCF at least separate the service configurations into a ServiceName.config or something that gets copied to an output directory. What am I missing? How do you deal with this?

    Read the article

  • VB dataset issue

    - by Gabriel
    Hi. The idea was to create a message box that stores my user name, message, and post datetime into the database as messages are sent. Soon came to realise, what if the user changed his name? So I decided to use the user id (icn) to identify the message poster instead. However, my chunk of codes keep giving me the same error. Says that there are no rows in the dataset ds2. I've tried my Query on my SQL and it works perfectly so I really really need help to spot the error in my chunk of codes here. Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim name As String Dim icn As String Dim message As String Dim time As String Dim tags As String = "" Dim strConn As System.Configuration.ConnectionStringSettings strConn = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("ufadb") Dim conn As SqlConnection = New SqlConnection(strConn.ToString()) Dim cmd As New SqlCommand("Select * From Message", conn) Dim daMessages As SqlDataAdapter = New SqlDataAdapter(cmd) Dim ds As New DataSet cmd.Connection.Open() daMessages.Fill(ds, "Messages") cmd.Connection.Close() If ds.Tables("Messages").Rows.Count > 0 Then Dim n As Integer = ds.Tables("Messages").Rows.Count Dim i As Integer For i = 0 To n - 1 icn = ds.Tables("Messages").Rows(i).Item("icn") Dim cmd2 As New SqlCommand("SELECT name FROM Member inner join Message ON Member.icn = Message.icn WHERE message.icn = @icn", conn) cmd2.Parameters.AddWithValue("@icn", icn) Dim daName As SqlDataAdapter = New SqlDataAdapter(cmd2) Dim ds2 As New DataSet cmd2.Connection.Open() daName.Fill(ds2, "PosterName") cmd2.Connection.Close() name = ds2.Tables("PosterName").Rows(0).Item("name") message = ds.Tables("Messages").Rows(i).Item("message") time = ds.Tables("Messages").Rows(i).Item("timePosted") tags = time + vbCrLf + name + ": " + vbCrLf + message + vbCrLf + tags Next txtBoard.Text = tags Else txtBoard.Text = "nothing to display" End If End Sub Help will be very much appreciated as I have been on this simple problem for 2 days.

    Read the article

  • Stored Procedure Does Not Fire Last Command

    - by jp2code
    On our SQL Server (Version 10.0.1600), I have a stored procedure that I wrote. It is not throwing any errors, and it is returning the correct values after making the insert in the database. However, the last command spSendEventNotificationEmail (which sends out email notifications) is not being run. I can run the spSendEventNotificationEmail script manually using the same data, and the notifications show up, so I know it works. Is there something wrong with how I call it in my stored procedure? [dbo].[spUpdateRequest](@packetID int, @statusID int output, @empID int, @mtf nVarChar(50)) AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @id int SET @id=-1 -- Insert statements for procedure here SELECT A.ID, PacketID, StatusID INTO #act FROM Action A JOIN Request R ON (R.ID=A.RequestID) WHERE (PacketID=@packetID) AND (StatusID=@statusID) IF ((SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM #act)=0) BEGIN -- this statusID has not been entered. Continue SELECT ID, MTF INTO #req FROM Request WHERE PacketID=@packetID WHILE (0 < (SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM #req)) BEGIN SELECT TOP 1 @id=ID FROM #req INSERT INTO Action (RequestID, StatusID, EmpID, DateStamp) VALUES (@id, @statusID, @empID, GETDATE()) IF ((@mtf IS NOT NULL) AND (0 < LEN(RTRIM(@mtf)))) BEGIN UPDATE Request SET MTF=@mtf WHERE ID=@id END DELETE #req WHERE ID=@id END DROP TABLE #req SELECT @id=@@IDENTITY, @statusID=StatusID FROM Action SELECT TOP 1 @statusID=ID FROM Status WHERE (@statusID<ID) AND (-1 < Sequence) EXEC spSendEventNotificationEmail @packetID, @statusID, 'http:\\cpweb:8100\NextStep.aspx' END ELSE BEGIN SET @statusID = -1 END DROP TABLE #act END Idea of how the data tables are connected:

    Read the article

  • How to solve the delay problem in animation of sprites ?

    - by srikanth rongali
    My problem is, I did coding for a sprite. It should change it should change it's image from( 1, 2, 3). It should look like count down time to start a game. 1, 2, 3 are 3 png images. But the images are not displayed in equal intervals of time. I mean time between (1 - 2), (2 - 3) is not same. It is random. Please help me with my problem. Help me if there is better solution than what I am doing.(My animation should be like, before any game starts we see count down 1 then 2 then 3 then GO). -(id)init { if((self = [super init])) { [[CCDirector sharedDirector] setAnimationInterval:60.0/60]; [[CCDirector sharedDirector] setDisplayFPS:NO]; CCAnimation* numberAnimation = [CCAnimation animationWithName:@"countDown" delay: 60.0/60]; for( int i=1;i<4;i++) [numberAnimation addFrameWithFilename: [NSString stringWithFormat:@"number_%02d.png", i]]; id numberAction = [CCAnimate actionWithAnimation: numberAnimation restoreOriginalFrame:NO]; id action2 = [CCFadeOut actionWithDuration:0.5f]; CCSprite *number; number = [CCSprite spriteWithFile:@"number.png"]; .... } }

    Read the article

  • How can you push a new view with a grouped table?

    - by Tanner
    Hi All, Ive been trying to push a new view when a cell is tapped but absolutely nothing happens. I figured grouped style pushed the same as plain. Here is my code: -(void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; contactArray = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"iPhone",@"iPod",@"MacBook",@"MacBook Pro",nil]; shareArray = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"Flex",@"AIR",@"PhotoShop",@"Flash",nil]; } -(NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 2; } // Customize the number of rows in the table view. -(NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { if(section == 0) return [contactArray count]; else return [shareArray count]; } -(NSString *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView titleForHeaderInSection:(NSInteger)section{ if(section == 0){ return @"Contact"; }else{ return @"Share"; } } -(NSString *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView titleForFooterInSection:(NSInteger)section{ if(section == 0){ return @"Footer for Apple Products"; }else{ return @"Footer for Adobe Softwares"; } } // Customize the appearance of table view cells. -(UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Set up the cell... if(indexPath.section == 0){ cell.text = [contactArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; }else{ cell.text = [shareArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; } return cell; } -(void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { //NextViewController *nextController = [[NextViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"NextView" bundle:nil]; //[self.navigationController pushViewController:nextController animated:YES]; if([contactArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] == @"iPhone"){ LandscapeHydrogen *abo = [[LandscapeHydrogen alloc] initWithNibName:@"LandscapeHydrogen" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:abo animated:NO]; [abo release]; } } Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • wpf observableCollection

    - by Asha
    I have an ObservableCollection which is dataContext for my treeview when I try to remove an Item from ObservableCollection I will get an error that Object reference not set to an instance of an object . can you please tell me why this error is happening and what is the solution thanks EDIT 1: The code is something like : class MyClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { //my class code here } public partial class UC_myUserControl : UserControl { private ObservableCollection<MyClass> myCollection = new ObservableCollection<MyClass>(); private void UserControl_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { myCollection.add(new myClass); myTreeView.DataContext = myCollection ; } private void deleteItem() { myCollection.RemoveAt(0); //after removing I get error Which I guess should be something related //to interface update but I don't know how can I solve it } } Exception Detail : System.NullReferenceException was unhandled Message="Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Source="PresentationFramework" EDIT 3: I have a style which is for my treeitem to keep the treeitems expanded <Style TargetType="TreeViewItem"> <Setter Property="IsExpanded" Value="True" /> </Style> and with commenting this part I wont get any error !!! Now I want to change my question to why having this style is causing error ?

    Read the article

  • What does the windbg command "kd" do?

    - by Oskar
    I ran kd by mistake and got some output that inteerested me, a reference to a line of code in my module that I can't see on the call stack of any thread. The lines weren't the beginnning of the method so I don't think the reference is to a function pointer, but possibly the result of an exception being stored in memory??? Of course, that happens to be what I'm looking for... Update: The stack trace of the exception is: 0:000> kb *** Stack trace for last set context - .thread/.cxr resets it ChildEBP RetAddr Args to Child 0174f168 734ea84f 2cb9e950 00000000 2cb9e950 kernel32!LoadTimeZoneInformation+0x2b 0174f1c4 734ead92 00000022 00000001 000685d0 msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::ExecuteInitTerm+0x178 0174f1f8 734ea9ee 00000000 0000002f 2dbc2abc msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::CreateObjInstanceWithParts+0x1e4 0174f278 7350414e 2cb9e96c 00000000 0174f2f0 msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::CreateObjInstance+0x14d 0174f2e4 734fa071 00000000 2cb9e96c 0174f2fc msvbvm60!RcmConstructObjectInstance+0x75 0174f31c 00976ef1 2cb9e950 00591bc0 0174fddc msvbvm60!__vbaNew+0x21 and into our code (create a new Form derived class) the dds output: 0:000> dds esp-0x40 esp+0x100 0174f05c 00000000 0174f060 00000000 0174f064 00000000 0174f068 00000000 0174f06c 00000000 0174f070 00000000 0174f074 00000000 0174f078 00000000 0174f07c 00000000 0174f080 00000000 0174f084 00000000 0174f088 00000000 0174f08c 00000000 0174f090 00000000 0174f094 00000000 0174f098 00000000 0174f09c 007f4f9b ourDll!formDerivedClass::Form_Initialize+0x10b [C:\Buildbox\formDerivedClass.frm @ 1452] etc which seems to indicate that Initialize is being called even though it isn't on the stack trace of either this exception or any of the threads. As suggested, it might all be a mismatch between pdbs and dlls, but it seems a coincidence that we end up in the right classes and methods

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework 4 Self Many-To-Many with Properties

    - by csharpnoob
    UPDATE: Solved by myself. Tricky but works. If you know a better solution, feel free to correct me. DESIGNER: CODE: Product product1 = new Product{key = "Product 1"}; sd.AddToProducts(product1); Product product2 = new Product{key = "Product 2"}; sd.AddToProducts(product2); Product product3 = new Product{key = "Product 3"}; ProductRelated pr = new ProductRelated(); pr.Products.Add(product1); pr.Products.Add(product2); product3.ProductRelateds.Add(pr); sd.AddToProducts(product3); CODE VIEW: foreach(var x in (from b in sd.Products select b)) { %><%=x.key %><br /> <% foreach (var y in x.ProductRelateds) { foreach (var k in y.Products) { %>- <%=k.key%><br /><%} } } OUTPUT Product1 Product2 Product3 - Product2 - Product1 QUESTION: Hi, i want to have a Self Reference for Releated Products on a Product Entity, something like here: http://my.safaribooksonline.com/9781430227038/modeling_a_many-to-many_comma_self-refer But i also want on the Many-To-Many Reference addional Properties like deleted, created etc. I tried to do it by another Entity "Related", but somehow it won't work. Does anyone had this Problem before? Is there any other Example? Thanks

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270 271  | Next Page >