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  • ThreadExceptionEventHandler and invoking delegates

    - by QmunkE
    If I assign a ThreadExceptionEventHandler to Application.ThreadException, why when I invoke a delegate method using a control on the main application thread are any exceptions thrown by that delegate not triggering the event handler? i.e. static void Main() { ... Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); Application.Run(new Form1()); } static void Application_ThreadException(object sender, System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventArgs e) { Console.Error.Write("A thread exception occurred!"); } ... private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread syncThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(this.ThrowException)); syncThread.Start(); } private void ThrowException() { button1.Invoke(new MethodInvoker(delegate { // Not handled by ThreadExceptionEventHandler? throw new Exception(); })); } The context on this is that I have a background thread started from a form which is throwing an unhandled exception which terminates the application. I know this thread is going to be unreliable since it is network connectivity reliant and so subject to being terminated at any point, but I'm just interested as to why this scenario doesn't play out as I expect?

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  • Purpose of singletons in programming

    - by thecoshman
    This is admittedly a rather loose question. My current understanding of singletons is that they are a class that you set up in such a way that only one instance is ever created. This sounds a lot like a static class to me. The main differnce being that with a static class you don't / can't instance it, you just use it such as Math.pi(). With a singletong class, you would still need to do something like singleton mySingleton = new singleton(); mysingleton.set_name("foo"); singleton otherSingleton = new singleton(); // correct me if i am wrong, but mysingleton == othersingleton right now, yes? // this the following should happen? otherSingleston.set_name("bar"); mysingleton.report_name(); // will output "bar" won't it? Please note, I am asking this language independently, more about the concept. So I am not so worried about actually how to coed such a class, but more why you would wan't to and what thing you would need to consider.

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  • How to focus a control in an MDIParent when all child windows have closed?

    - by Tim Gradwell
    I have a control in my parent mdi form which I wish to be given the focus if all mdi children have closed. I've tried hooking into the child form's FormClosed event and setting the focus from there but when I test it, my control is not left with focus when I close the mdi child. Can anyone tell me what I'm missing? In the sample below, "first focus" gets hit and does its job correctly (if I comment out the first focus line, my tree does not get focus on startup, so it must be doing its job, right?) Unfortunately, even though "second focus" gets hit, my tree does not end up with the focus when I close the child window. Sample using System; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace mdiFocus { class ParentForm : Form { public ParentForm() { IsMdiContainer = true; tree = new TreeView(); tree.Nodes.Add("SomeNode"); tree.Dock = DockStyle.Left; Controls.Add(tree); } protected override void OnShown(EventArgs e) { Form child = new Form(); child.MdiParent = this; child.Show(); child.FormClosed += new FormClosedEventHandler(child_FormClosed); tree.Focus(); // first focus works ok } void child_FormClosed(object sender, FormClosedEventArgs e) { tree.Focus(); // second focus doesn't seem to work, even though it is hit :( } TreeView tree; } static class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.Run(new ParentForm()); } } }

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  • How to properly assign a value to the member of a struct that has a class data type?

    - by sasayins
    Hi, Please kindly see below for the codes. Its compiling successfully but the expected result is not working. Im very confused because my initialization of the array is valid, //cbar.h class CBar { public: class CFoo { public: CFoo( int v ) : m_val = v {} int GetVal() { return m_val; } private: int m_val; }; public: static const CFoo foo1; static const CFoo foo2; public: CBar( CFoo foo ) m_barval( foo.GetVal() ){} int GetFooVal() { return m_barval; } private: int m_barval; }; //cbar.cpp const CBar::CFoo foo1 = CBar::CFoo(2); const CBar::CFoo foo2 = CBar::CFoo(3); //main.cpp struct St { CBar::CFoo foo; }; St st[] = { CBar::foo1, CBar::foo2 }; for( int i=0; i<sizeof(st)/sizeof(St); i++ ) { CBar cbar( st[i].foo ); std::cout << cbar.GetFooVal() << std::endl; } But then when I change the St::foo to a pointer. And like assign the address of CBar::foo1 or CBar::foo2, its working, like this, //main.cpp struct St { const CBar::CFoo *foo; }; St st[] = { &CBar::foo1, &CBar::foo2 }; for( int i=0; i<sizeof(st)/sizeof(St); i++ ) { CBar cbar( *st[i].foo ); std::cout << cbar.GetFooVal() << std::endl; } The real problem is. The app should output 2 3 Please advice. Many thanks.

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  • Cloning ID3DXMesh with declration that has 12 floats breaks?

    - by meds
    I have the following vertex declration: struct MESHVERTInstanced { float x, y, z; // Position float nx, ny, nz; // Normal float tu, tv; // Texcoord float idx; // index of the vertex! float tanx, tany, tanz; // The tangent const static D3DVERTEXELEMENT9 Decl[6]; static IDirect3DVertexDeclaration9* meshvertinstdecl; }; And I declare it as such: const D3DVERTEXELEMENT9 MESHVERTInstanced::Decl[] = { { 0, 0, D3DDECLTYPE_FLOAT3, D3DDECLMETHOD_DEFAULT, D3DDECLUSAGE_POSITION, 0 }, { 0, 12, D3DDECLTYPE_FLOAT3, D3DDECLMETHOD_DEFAULT, D3DDECLUSAGE_NORMAL, 0 }, { 0, 24, D3DDECLTYPE_FLOAT2, D3DDECLMETHOD_DEFAULT, D3DDECLUSAGE_TEXCOORD, 0 }, { 0, 32, D3DDECLTYPE_FLOAT1, D3DDECLMETHOD_DEFAULT, D3DDECLUSAGE_TEXCOORD, 1 }, { 0, 36, D3DDECLTYPE_FLOAT3, D3DDECLMETHOD_DEFAULT, D3DDECLUSAGE_TANGENT, 0 }, D3DDECL_END() }; What I try to do next is copy an ID3DXMesh into another one with the new vertex declaration as such: model->CloneMesh( model->GetOptions(), MESHVERTInstanced::Decl, gd3dDevice, &pTempMesh ); When I try to get the FVF size of pTempMesh (D3DXGetFVFVertexSize(pTempMesh-GetFVF())) I get '0' though the size should be 48. The whole thing is fine if I don't have the last declaration, '{ 0, 36, D3DDECLTYPE_FLOAT3, D3DDECLMETHOD_DEFAULT, D3DDECLUSAGE_TANGENT, 0 },' in it and the CloneMesh function does not return a FAIL. I've also tried using different declarations such as D3DDECLUSAGE_TEXCOORD and that has worked fine, returning a size of 48. Is there something specific about D3DDECLUSAGE_TANGENT I don't know? I'm at a complete loss as to why this isn't working...

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  • Java : Inner class of an interface (from google guice)

    - by bsreekanth
    Hello, I was going through the source of google guice, and found an unfamiliar piece of code. It would be great learning if someone can clarify it. I have very basic understanding of inner classes, as they keep the implementation details close to the public interface. Otherwise the inner class may pollute the namespace. Now, I see the below lines at public static final Scope SINGLETON = new Scope() { public <T> Provider<T> scope(final Key<T> key, final Provider<T> creator) { return new Provider<T>() { ......... } It assign an inner class instance to the static variable, but Scope is an interface defined as (at) public interface Scope Is it possible to instantiate the interface?? or is it a succinct syntax for an anonymous implementation of an interface?? If anyone can explain what the author is intended by multiple nested classes above (Scope and Provider), and why it make sense to implement this way, it would help me to understand. thanks.

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  • Objective C Naming Convention for an object that owns itself

    - by Ed Marty
    With the latest releases of XCode that contain static analyzers, some of my objects are throwing getting analyzer issues reported. Specifically, I have an object that owns itself and is responsible for releasing itself, but should also be returned to the caller and possibly retained there manually. If I have a method like + (Foo) newFoo the analyzer sees the word New and reports an issue in the caller saying that newFoo is expected to return an object with retain +1, and it isn't being released anywhere. If I name it + (Foo) getFoo the analyzer reports an issue in that method, saying there's a potential leak because it's not deallocated before returning. My class basically looks like this: + (Foo *) newFoo { Foo *myFoo = [[[Foo new] retain] autorelease]; [myFoo performSelectorInBackground:@selector(bar) withObject:nil]; return myFoo; } - (void) bar { //Do something that might take awhile [self release]; } The object owns itself and when its done, will release itself, but there's nowhere that it's being stored, so the static analyzer sees it as a leak somewhere. Is there some naming or coding convention to help?

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  • Referer is passed from HTTPS to HTTP in some cases... How?

    - by ravisorg
    In theory browsers do not pass on referer information from HTTPS to HTTP sites. And in my experience this has always been true. But I just found an exception, and I want to understand why it works so I can use it as well. Search for "what is my referer" on https://www.google.ca/ eg: https://www.google.ca/search?q=what+is+my+referer There are a few sites that will show referer. They all seem to "work" when they shouldn't. For example, click the www.whatismyreferer.com one. I get: Your referer: https://www.google.ca/ Note that sometimes, rarely, I get "no referer" as the result. Go back and click the link again and it'll "work" the next time. This should not happen. www.whatismyreferer.com is a non-HTTPS site. The referer header should not be being passed, but it is. What's going on here, and how can I do the same from my HTTPS site to the HTTP sites I'm linking to?

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  • 1 PC, 2 consoles (as in 2 monitors, keyboards and mice)

    - by ciuly
    I have this desire to "kill 2 birds with one shot". Currently, I have 1 server running round the clock, 1 laptop that runs about 8 hours a day, 7 days a week, and a desktop that runs about the same length of time. All 3 are ... old, to say the least. So there is a great need to upgrade (well, the server might handle its job for another year or so, but that only depends on how much time I have to put it to "work"). Now, I'm "dreaming" of only one PC. I'm thinking vmware's ESX. So there will be a VM for the server, a VM for the "laptop" and one for the "desktop". And obviously I'll have to somehow "link" a set of monitor/keyboard/mouse with one of the laptop/desktop VMs. The server doesn't need such things, obviously (it doesn't have them at this moment either). Is something like this possible? ESX is not a requirement, it's just something I found that answers part of my problems, but there still remains the 2 KVM set that needs connecting and "linking" to appropriate VM. Why I would want to do this? well, first of all, it's much cheaper to upgrade one PC than 3. Then, the power consumption is obviously lower. Plus the extra space.Plus it allows me to better separate networks and services. Thanks.

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  • VS2010 and CSS: What is the best way to position a single form control

    - by George
    OK, I have a ton of controls on my page that I need to individually place. I need to set a margin here, a padding there, etc. None of these particular styles that I want to apply will be applied to more than control. What is the bets practice for determining at which level the style is placed, etc? OK, my choices are 1) External CSS file 1A) Using ClientIdMode = Auto (the default) I could assign a unique CssClass value to the ASP.NET control and, in the external CSS file, create a class selector that would only be applied to that one control. 1B) User Client ID = Predicatable In the external CSS file, I could determine what the ID will be for the controls of interest and create an ID selector (#ControlID{Style} ). However, I fear maintenance issues due to including/removing parent containers that would cause the ID to change. 1C) User Client ID = Static. I could choose static IDs for the controls such that I minimize the likelihood of a clash with auto generated IDs (perhaps by prefixing the ID with "StaticID_" and use an external stylesheet with ID selectors. 2) I could place the style right on the control. The only disadvantage here, as I see it, is that style info is brought down each time instead of being cached , which is what I'd get using an external CSS. If a style isn't resused, I personally don't see much benefit to placing it in an external file, though please explain why if you disagree. Is there moire of a reason that "It's nice to have all the CSS in one place?"

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  • How to check if a child-object is populated

    - by TheQ
    How can i check if a child-object of a linq-object is populated or not? Example code below. My model have two methods, one joins data, and the other does not: public static Member GetMemberWithPhoto(Guid memberId) { using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { DataLoadOptions dataLoadOptions = new DataLoadOptions(); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Member>(x => x.UserPhoto); db.LoadOptions = dataLoadOptions; var query = from x in db.Members where x.MemberId == memberId select x; return query.FirstOrDefault(); } } public static Member GetMember(Guid memberId) { using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { var query = from x in db.Members where x.MemberId == memberId select x; return query.FirstOrDefault(); } } Then my control have the following code: Member member1 = Member.GetMemberWithPhoto(memberId); Member member2 = Member.GetMember(memberId); Debug.WriteLine(member1.UserPhoto.ToString()); Debug.WriteLine(member2.UserPhoto.ToString()); The last line will generate a "Cannot access a disposed object" exception. I know that i can get rid of that exception just by not disposing the datacontext, but then the last line will generate a new query to the database, and i don't want that. What i would like is something like: Debug.WriteLine((member1.UserPhoto.IsPopulated()) ? member1.UserPhoto.ToString() : "none"); Debug.WriteLine((member2.UserPhoto.IsPopulated()) ? member2.UserPhoto.ToString() : "none"); Is it possible?

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  • Dependencyproperty doesn't have value on load

    - by Jakob
    My problem is this, I have a UC called profile that contains another UC called FollowImageControl. In my Profile.xaml i declaretively bind a property of FollowImageControl called FollowerId to a CurrentUserId from Profile.xaml.cs. Problem is that I CurrentUserId is assigned in Profile.xaml.cs; the Profile.xaml code-behind. This means that I do not initially get the FollowerId. I have these methods in the FollowImageControl.xaml.cs: public static readonly DependencyProperty _followUserId = DependencyProperty.Register("FollowUserId", typeof(Guid), typeof(FollowImageControl), null); public Guid FollowUserId { get { return (Guid)GetValue(_followUserId); } set { SetValue(_followUserId, value); } } public FollowImageControl() { // Required to initialize variables InitializeComponent(); LoggedInUserId = WebContext.Current.User.UserId; var ctx = new NotesDomainContext(); if (ctx.IsFollowingUser(LoggedInUserId, FollowUserId).Value) SwitchToDelete.Begin(); } private void AddImg_MouseLeftButtonDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { if (LoggedInUserId != FollowUserId) { var ctx = new NotesDomainContext(); ctx.FollowUser(FollowUserId, LoggedInUserId); ctx.SubmitChanges(); } } THE WEIRD THING IS that when i insert breakpoints the FollowerUserId in FollowImageControl() is 0, but it has a value in AddImg_MouseLeftButtonDown, and there is no inbetween logic that sets the value of it. How is this??? Here's a little more code info: This is my binding from profile.xaml <internalCtrl:FollowImageControl FollowUserId="{Binding ElementName=ProfileCtrl, Path=CurrentUserId}" /> this is my constructor in profile.xaml.cs wherein the CurrentUserId is set public static readonly DependencyProperty _CurrentUserId = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentUserId", typeof(Guid), typeof(Profile), null); public Guid CurrentUserId { get { return (Guid)GetValue(_CurrentUserId); } set { SetValue(_CurrentUserId, value); } } public Profile(Guid UserId) { CurrentUserId = UserId; InitializeComponent(); Loaded += new RoutedEventHandler(Profile_Loaded); } I'm seriously dumbfound that one minute the FollowerId has no value, and the next it holds the right, without me having changed the value in the code-behind.

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  • Refactoring. Your way to reduce code complexity of big class with big methods

    - by Andrew Florko
    I have a legacy class that is rahter complex to maintain: class OldClass { method1(arg1, arg2) { ... 200 lines of code ... } method2(arg1) { ... 200 lines of code ... } ... method20(arg1, arg2, arg3) { ... 200 lines of code ... } } methods are huge, unstructured and repetitive (developer loved copy/paste aprroach). I want to split each method into 3-5 small functions, whith one pulic method and several helpers. What will you suggest? Several ideas come to my mind: Add several private helper methods to each method and join them in #region (straight-forward refactoring) Use Command pattern (one command class per OldClass method in a separate file). Create helper static class per method with one public method & several private helper methods. OldClass methods delegate implementation to appropriate static class (very similiar to commands). ? Thank you in advance!

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  • MidiSystem.getSequencer() returns Audio Device Unavailable

    - by ksemeks
    I've keep having an exception thrown, on and on. When i try to make a new Sequencer object, i keep getting the javax.sound.midi.MidiUnavailableException: Audio Device Unavailable exception. So, here's the code: import javax.sound.midi.*; public class MiniMusicPlayer1 { public static void main(String[] args) { try { Sequencer sequencer = MidiSystem.getSequencer(); sequencer.open(); Sequence seq = new Sequence(Sequence.PPQ, 4); Track track = seq.createTrack(); for (int i = 5; i < 61; i += 4) { track.add(makeEvent(144, 1, i, 100, i)); track.add(makeEvent(128, 1, i, 100, (i+2))); } sequencer.setSequence(seq); sequencer.setTempoInBPM(220); sequencer.start(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } public static MidiEvent makeEvent(int comd, int chan, int one, int two, int tick) { MidiEvent event = null; try { ShortMessage a = new ShortMessage(); a.setMessage(comd, chan, one, two); event = new MidiEvent(a, tick); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return event; } } And here's the complete error (at compile): javax.sound.midi.MidiUnavailableException: Audio Device Unavailable at com.sun.media.sound.MixerSynth.implOpen(MixerSynth.java:165) at com.sun.media.sound.AbstractMidiDevice.doOpen(AbstractMidiDevice.java:144) at com.sun.media.sound.AbstractMidiDevice.openInternal(AbstractMidiDevice.java:134) at com.sun.media.sound.AbstractMidiDevice.getReceiverReferenceCounting(AbstractMidiDevice.java:339) at javax.sound.midi.MidiSystem.getReceiver(MidiSystem.java:243) at javax.sound.midi.MidiSystem.getSequencer(MidiSystem.java:442) at javax.sound.midi.MidiSystem.getSequencer(MidiSystem.java:348) at MiniMusicPlayer1.main(MiniMusicPlayer1.java:9) First i was unable to play MIDI files on my pc, but then i got it to work, so now i can play MIDI files, that's okay. I tried even to close every process which uses my sound card, but the error is still there. Anyone can help me?

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  • How to encrypt a RSAKey using another RSAKey?

    - by Tom Brito
    I know its not the usual thing to do. But the specification I'm implementing is discribed this way, and I cannot run out. I was trying to encrypt the modulus and exponent of the private key, but the following test code raises an exception because the byte array is 1 byte larger then the maximum allowed by RSA block: import java.security.KeyPair; import java.security.KeyPairGenerator; import java.security.NoSuchAlgorithmException; import java.security.NoSuchProviderException; import java.security.interfaces.RSAPrivateKey; import java.security.interfaces.RSAPublicKey; import javax.crypto.Cipher; import org.apache.commons.lang.ArrayUtils; public class TEST { public static KeyPair generateKeyPair() throws NoSuchAlgorithmException, NoSuchProviderException { KeyPairGenerator keyPairGenerator = KeyPairGenerator.getInstance("RSA", "BC"); keyPairGenerator.initialize(1024); return keyPairGenerator.generateKeyPair(); } public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { KeyPair keyPair = generateKeyPair(); RSAPrivateKey privateKey = (RSAPrivateKey) keyPair.getPrivate(); System.out.println("Priv modulus len = " + privateKey.getModulus().bitLength()); System.out.println("Priv exponent len = " + privateKey.getPrivateExponent().bitLength()); System.out.println("Priv modulus toByteArray len = " + privateKey.getModulus().toByteArray().length); byte[] byteArray = privateKey.getModulus().toByteArray(); // the byte at index 0 have no value (in every generation it is always zero) byteArray = ArrayUtils.subarray(byteArray, 1, byteArray.length); System.out.println("byteArray size: " + byteArray.length); RSAPublicKey publicKey = (RSAPublicKey) keyPair.getPublic(); Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("RSA", "BC"); cipher.init(Cipher.ENCRYPT_MODE, publicKey); byte[] encryptedBytes = cipher.doFinal(byteArray); System.out.println("Success!"); } } (obs. its just a test, i would never encrypt the private key with its pair public key) The byte array is 128 bytes, the exactly maximum allowed by a RSA block, so why the exception? And how to fix it?

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  • Is this use of PreparedStatements in a Thread in JAVA correct?

    - by Gormcito
    I'm still an undergrad just working part time and so I'm always trying to be aware of better ways to do things. Recently I had to write a program for work where the main thread of the program would spawn "task" threads (for each db "task" record) which would perform some operations and then update the record to say that it has finished. Therefore I needed a database connection object and PreparedStatement objects in or available to the ThreadedTask objects. This is roughly what I ended up writing, is creating a PreparedStatement object per thread a waste? I thought static PreparedStatments could create race conditions... Thread A stmt.setInt(); Thread B stmt.setInt(); Thread A stmt.execute(); Thread B stmt.execute(); A´s version never gets execed.. Is this thread safe? Is creating and destroying PreparedStatement objects that are always the same not a huge waste? public class ThreadedTask implements runnable { private final PreparedStatement taskCompleteStmt; public ThreadedTask() { //... taskCompleteStmt = Main.db.prepareStatement(...); } public run() { //... taskCompleteStmt.executeUpdate(); } } public class Main { public static final db = DriverManager.getConnection(...); }

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  • How do I get Apache 2 to read this directory?

    - by Mike
    I'm on Mac OSX and i I have apache2 installed via MacPorts, running as the _www user. I have some files I want to serve in the /Users/Me/Documents/abc folder. Right now, though, the permissions of /Users/Me/Documents are 700. So, _www can't get in, even if abc is chmod 777. I recognize the following options: Allow _www access to my Documents folder. Put the files I want to share outside of my Documents folder. Hard-link the files outside of my Documents folder, and point apache to the hard links. None of these solutions are acceptable to me, however. I don't feel safe allowing _www access to my entire Documents folder. I really want to keep the files in my Documents folder for other reasons. The files are changing all the time, so hard-linking would not always reflect the right file structure, and, as I understand it, you can't hard-link a directory (though, if you could, that would solve it). Any ideas for a solution? Is there a way to run a few httpd processes as my user account so it can get in there? Or, is there some way to hard-link a directory, or some way to get httpd to follow a symlink past a directory that is 700 not owned by _www? Thanks!

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  • Why aren't my threads start at the same time? Java

    - by Ada
    Hi, I have variable number of threads which are used for parallel downloading. I used this, for(int i = 0; i< sth; i++){ thrList.add(new myThread (parameters)); thrList.get(i).start(); thrList.get(i).join(); } I don't know why but they wait for each other to complete. When using threads, I am supposed get mixed print outs, since right then there are several threads running that code. However, when I print them out, they are always in order and one thread waits for the previous one to finish first. I only want them to join the main thread, not wait for each other. I noticed that when I measured time while downloading in parallel. How can I fix this? Why are they doing it in order? In my .java, there is MyThread class with run and there is Downloader class with static methods and variables. Would they be the cause of this? The static methods and variables? How can I fix this problem?

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  • Managing records of bugs and notes

    - by Jim
    Hi. I want to create a knowledgebase for a piece of software. I'd also like to be able to track bugs and common points of failure in that application. Linking knowledgebase articles to bug records would be a real boon, as would the ability to do complex queries for particular articles and bugs on the basis of tags or metadata. I've never done anything like this before, and like to install as little as possible. I've been looking at creating a wiki with Wiki On A Stick, and it seems to offer a lot. But I can't make complex queries. I can create pages that list all 'articles' with a particular single tag, but I can't specify multiple tags or filters. Is there any software that can help? I don't want to spend money until I've tried something out thoroughly, and I'd ideally like something that demands little-to-no installation. Are there any tools that can help me? If something could easily export its data, or stored data in XML, that would be a real plus too. Otherwise, are there any simple apps that allow me to set up forms for bugs, store data as XML then query and process that XML on demand? Thanks in advance.

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  • Retrieve POST data without knowing exact number of fields

    - by James
    Hi all! I'm creating an online poll from scratch which will be held in a database. I'm working on getting a system set up so someone can create a new poll. I will be having the user fill out a simple HTML form with the Questions and Answers (there may be several answers). The user will be able to add multiple questions and multiple answers for each question. As the total number of questions and answers will be decided by the user, I need to create some clever PHP to cater for this - however many there are. When dealing with a static number of questions, it's simple. But I'm having trouble thinking of a way to get all the POST data into individual PHP variables so I can process them. I was thinking of using a foreach loop, anyone got any ideas? Sorry for the long winded description! If anyone needs anything clarified, I'd be happy to do so. My problem is that I can't get my head around how to deal with the POST values when I don't know exactly which element of the array will contain what. If things were static with a set number of questions and answers, I'd know $_POST[0] was Question1, etc Thank you! =)

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  • Is it a good practice for a .js file to rely on variables declared in the including html

    - by Bozho
    In short: <script type="text/javascript"> var root = '${config.root}'; var userLanguage = '${config.language}'; var userTimezone = '${config.timezone}'; </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/scripts.js"></script> And then, in scripts.js, rely on these variables: if (userLanguage == 'en') { .. } The ${..} is simply a placeholder for a value in the script that generates the page. It can be php, jsp, asp, whatever. The point is - it is dynamic, and hence it can't be part of the .js file (which is static). So, is it OK for the static javascript file to rely on these externally defined configuration variables? (they are mainly configuration, of course). Or is it preferred to make the .js file be served dynamically as well (i.e. make it a .php / .jsp, with the proper Content-Type), and have these values defined in there.

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  • What's the deal with the hidden Throw when catching a ThreadAbortException?

    - by priehl
    I'm going through a book of general c# development, and I've come to the thread abort section. The book says something along the lines that when you call Thread.Abort() on another thread, that thread will throw a ThreadAbortException, and even if you tried to supress it it would automatically rethrow it, unless you did some bs that's generally frowned upon. Here's the simple example offered. using System; using System.Threading; public class EntryPoint { private static void ThreadFunc() { ulong counter = 0; while (true) { try { Console.WriteLine("{0}", counter++); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { // Attempt to swallow the exception and continue. Console.WriteLine("Abort!"); } } } static void Main() { try { Thread newThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(EntryPoint.ThreadFunc)); newThread.Start(); Thread.Sleep(2000); // Abort the thread. newThread.Abort(); // Wait for thread to finish. newThread.Join(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } } The book says: When your thread finishes processing the abort exception, the runtime implicitly rethrows it at the end of your exception handler. It’s the same as if you had rethrown the exception yourself. Therefore, any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally. In the example, the call to Join won’t be waiting forever as initially expected. So i wrapped a try catch around the Thread.Abort() call and set a break point, expecting it to hit this, considering the text says "any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally". BUT IT DOES NOT. I'm racking my brain to figure out why. Anyone have any thoughts on why this isn't the case? Is the book wrong? Thanks in advance.

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  • 1 PC, 2 consoles (as in 2 monitors, keyboards and mice)

    - by ciuly
    I have this desire to "kill 2 birds with one shot". Currently, I have 1 server running round the clock, 1 laptop that runs about 8 hours a day, 7 days a week, and a desktop that runs about the same length of time. All 3 are ... old, to say the least. So there is a great need to upgrade (well, the server might handle its job for another year or so, but that only depends on how much time I have to put it to "work"). Now, I'm "dreaming" of only one PC. I'm thinking vmware's ESX. So there will be a VM for the server, a VM for the "laptop" and one for the "desktop". And obviously I'll have to somehow "link" a set of monitor/keyboard/mouse with one of the laptop/desktop VMs. The server doesn't need such things, obviously (it doesn't have them at this moment either). Is something like this possible? ESX is not a requirement, it's just something I found that answers part of my problems, but there still remains the 2 KVM set that needs connecting and "linking" to appropriate VM. Why I would want to do this? well, first of all, it's much cheaper to upgrade one PC than 3. Then, the power consumption is obviously lower. Plus the extra space.Plus it allows me to better separate networks and services. Thanks.

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  • How do I handle freeing unmanaged structures in C# on application close?

    - by LostKaleb
    I have a C# project in which i use several unmanaged C++ functions. More so, I also have static IntPtr that I use as parameters for those functions. I know that whenever I use them, I should implement IDisposable in that class and use a destructor to invoke the Dispose method, where I free the used IntPtr, as is said in the MSDN page. public void Dispose() { Dispose(true); GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } private void Dispose(bool disposing) { // Check to see if Dispose has already been called. if (!this.disposed) { if (disposing) { component.Dispose(); } CloseHandle(m_InstanceHandle); m_InstanceHandle = IntPtr.Zero; disposed = true; } } [System.Runtime.InteropServices.DllImport("Kernel32")] private extern static Boolean CloseHandle(IntPtr handle); However, when I terminate the application, I'm still left with a hanging process in TaskManager. I believe that it must be related to the used of the MarshalAs instruction in my structures: [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential, CharSet = CharSet.Ansi)] public struct SipxAudioCodec { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst=32)] public string CodecName; public SipxAudioBandwidth Bandwidth; public int PayloadType; } When I create such a structure should I also be careful to free the space it allocs using a destructor? [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential, CharSet = CharSet.Ansi)] public struct SipxAudioCodec { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst=32)] public string CodecName; public SipxAudioBandwidth Bandwidth; public int PayloadType; ~SipxAudioCodec() { Marshal.FreeGlobal(something...); } } Thanks in advance!

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  • Using Google Voice with an internal SIP Server

    - by BHelman
    Let me be upfront and say first that I am new to the entire details of VoIP. My former understanding was just the extent of Skype. Don't worry, I understand a lot more of it now. The situation is this. I have a Google number that is actually very close to the area in which I live. It's convenient as it is not long distance for everyone. I love its features and etc, but I want it to forward to a VoIP phone, which will be my residential phone. Obviously, Google does not allow forwarding calls to domains (yet). So I use SIPGate with a SIPGate number to forward to a softphone for now. I can configure a VoIP phone to interact with my account easily enough. The problem lies with SIPGate itself really. Google Voice gives free unlimited inbound and outbound calling. SIPGate charges you for outbound. So a VoIP phone would work, but I could never make a call on it (for free). So let's say I setup an Asterisk server, or any other SIP server. What is the best way to go about linking my server to Google Voice? I looked into IPKall but it only specifies inbound calling and not outbound. Or is that just assumed? Does an SIP server handle outbound calling by itself?

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