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  • MVC View Model Intellesense / Compile error

    - by Marty Trenouth
    I have one Library with my ORM and am working with a MVC Application. I have a problem where the pages won't compile because the Views can't see the Model's properties (which are inherited from lower level base classes). They system throws a compile error saying that 'object' does not contain a definition for 'ID' and no extension method 'ID' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) implying that the View is not seeing the model. In the Controller I have full access to the Model and have check the Inherits from portion of the view to validate the correct type is being passed. Controller: return View(new TeraViral_Blog()); View: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<com.models.TeraViral_Blog>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Index2 </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>Index2</h2> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> ID: <%= Html.Encode(Model.ID) %> </p> </fieldset> </asp:Content>

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  • Python: For loop problem

    - by James
    I have a PSP page with html embedded. I need to place another for loop so i can insert another %s next to background-color: which will instert a appropriate colour to colour in the html table. For example i need to insert for z in colours so it can loop over the colours list and insert the correct colour. Where ever i try to insert the for loop it doesnt seem to work it most commonly colours each cell in the table 60 times then moves onto the next cell and repeats itself and crashes my web browser. The colours are held in a table called colours. code below: <table> <% s = ''.join(aa[i] for i in table if i in aa) for i in range(0, len(s), 60): req.write('<tr><td><TT>%04d</td>' % (i+1)); for k in s[i:i+60]: req.write('<TT><td><TT><font style="background-color:">%s<font></td>' % (k)); req.write('</TT></tr>') #end %> </table>

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  • What is a fast way to set debugging code at a given line in a function?

    - by Josh O'Brien
    Preamble: R's trace() is a powerful debugging tool, allowing users to "insert debugging code at chosen places in any function". Unfortunately, using it from the command-line can be fairly laborious. As an artificial example, let's say I want to insert debugging code that will report the between-tick interval calculated by pretty.default(). I'd like to insert the code immediately after the value of delta is calculated, about four lines up from the bottom of the function definition. (Type pretty.default to see where I mean.) To indicate that line, I need to find which step in the code it corresponds to. The answer turns out to be step list(c(12, 3, 3)), which I zero in on by running through the following steps: as.list(body(pretty.default)) as.list(as.list(body(pretty.default))[[12]]) as.list(as.list(as.list(body(pretty.default))[[12]])[[3]]) as.list(as.list(as.list(body(pretty.default))[[12]])[[3]])[[3]] I can then insert debugging code like this: trace(what = 'pretty.default', tracer = quote(cat("\nThe value of delta is: ", delta, "\n\n")), at = list(c(12,3,3))) ## Try it a <- pretty(c(1, 7843)) b <- pretty(c(2, 23)) ## Clean up untrace('pretty.default') Questions: So here are my questions: Is there a way to print out a function (or a parsed version of it) with the lines nicely labeled by the steps to which they belong? Alternatively, is there another easier way, from the command line, to quickly set debugging code for a specific line within a function? Addendum: I used the pretty.default() example because it is reasonably tame, but with real/interesting functions, repeatedly using as.list() quickly gets tiresome and distracting. Here's an example: as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(as.list(body(# model.frame.default))[[26]])[[3]])[[2]])[[4]])[[3]])[[4]])[[4]])[[4]])[[3]]

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  • Unit testing, mocking - simple case: Service - Repository

    - by rafek
    Consider a following chunk of service: public class ProductService : IProductService { private IProductRepository _productRepository; // Some initlization stuff public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { return _productRepository.GetProduct(id); } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } } Let's consider a simple unit test: [Test] public void GetProduct_return_the_same_product_as_getProduct_on_productRepository() { var product = EntityGenerator.Product(); _productRepositoryMock.Setup(pr => pr.GetProduct(product.Id)).Returns(product); Product returnedProduct = _productService.GetProduct(product.Id); Assert.AreEqual(product, returnedProduct); _productRepositoryMock.VerifyAll(); } At first it seems that this test is ok. But let's change our service method a little bit: public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { var product = _productRepository.GetProduct(id); product.Owner = "totallyDifferentOwner"; return product; } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } How to rewrite a given test that it'd pass with the first service method and fail with a second one? How do you handle this kind of simple scenarios? HINT: A given test is bad coz product and returnedProduct is actually the same reference.

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  • how to rotate around each record in linq and show that in view

    - by Sadegh
    Hi, I have four tables in my database and i want to join that's and return record's and show that into searchController! My query is this: public IQueryable PerformSearch(string query) { if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(query)) { var results = from tbl1 in context.Table1 join tbl2 in context.Table2 on tbl1.Id equals tbl2.Id join tbl3 in context.Table3 on tbl2.Id equals tbl3.Id join tbl4 in context.Table4 on tbl3.Id equals tbl4.Id where tbl1.col2.Contains(query) orderby tbl1.Count descending select new { col1 = tbl1.Col1, col1 = tbl1.Col1, col1 = tbl1.Col1, . . . }; return results.AsQueryable(); } else return null; } And this method called in SearchController as below: public class SearchController : System.Web.Mvc.Controller { public System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Search(System.String query) { var search = new Search(); ViewData["result"] = search.PerformSearch(query); return View("Search"); } } I don't know how i can rotate around each record (plus vs intellisense feature) returned by PeformSeach method and show that in view! Also is this a good way? thanks in advance

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  • C# web service, MySql encoding problem

    - by Boban
    I use C# web service to insert, delete and get data from MySql database. The problem is some of the data is in Macedonian (Cyrilic). When I insert directly in the database, it inserts ok. For example: "???" is "???". When I insert throgh the service, it's not. For example: "???" is "???". When I try to get data throug the service, it gets it ok. What's the problem with the inserting? Here is part of my code for inserting: MySqlConnection connection = new MySqlConnection(MyConString); MySqlCommand command = connection.CreateCommand(); command.CommandText = "INSERT INTO user (id_user, name VALUES (NULL, ?name);"; command.Parameters.Add("?name", MySqlDbType.VarChar).Value = name; connection.Open(); command.ExecuteReader(); connection.Close(); return thisrow; Tnq U in advance!!!

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  • JoinColumn name not used in sql

    - by Vladimir
    Hi! I have a problem with mapping many-to-one relationship without exact foreign key constraint set in database. I use OpenJPA implementation with MySql database, but the problem is with generated sql scripts for insert and select statements. I have LegalEntity table which contains RootId column (among others). I also have Address table which has LegalEntityId column which is not nullable, and which should contain values referencing LegalEntity's "RootId" column, but without any database constraint (foreign key) set. Address entity is mapped: @Entity @Table(name="address") public class Address implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.LAZY, optional=false) @JoinColumn(referencedColumnName="RootId", name="LegalEntityId", nullable=false, insertable=true, updatable=true, table="LegalEntity") public LegalEntity getLegalEntity() { return this.legalEntity; } } SELECT statement (when fetching LegalEntity's addresses) and INSERT statment are generated: SELECT t0.Id, .., t0.LEGALENTITY_ID FROM address t0 WHERE t0.LEGALENTITY_ID = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (..., LEGALENTITY_ID) VALUES (..., ?) [params=..., (int) 2] If I omit table attribute from mentioned statements are generated: SELECT t0.Id, ... FROM address t0 INNER JOIN legalentity t1 ON t0.LegalEntityId = t1.RootId WHERE t1.Id = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (...) VALUES (...) [params=...] So, LegalEntityId is not included in any of the statements. Is it possible to have relationship based on such referencing (to column other than primary key, without foreign key in database)? Is there something else missing? Thanks in advance.

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  • EF 4.0 Code only assocation from abstract to derived

    - by Jeroen
    Using EF 4.0 Code only i want to make an assocation between an abstract and normal class. I have class 'Item', 'ContentBase' and 'Test'. 'ContentBase' is abstract and 'Test' derives from it. 'ContentBase' has a property 'Item' that links to an instance of 'Item'. So that 'Test.Item' or any class that derives from 'ContentBase' has an 'Item' navigation property. In my DB every record for Test has a matching record for Item. public class Item { public int Id { get; set;} } public abstract class ContentBase { public int ContentId { get; set;} public int Id { get; set;} public Item Item { get; set;} } public class Test : ContentBase { public string Name { get; set;} } now some init code public void SomeInitFunction() { var itemConfig = new EntityConfiguration<Item>(); itemConfig.HasKey(p => p.Id); itemConfig.Property(p => p.Id).IsIdentity(); this.ContextBuilder.Configurations.Add(itemConfig); var testConfig = new EntityConfiguration<Test>(); testConfig.HasKey(p => p.ContentId); testConfig.Property(p => p.ContentId).IsIdentity(); // the problem testConfig.Relationship(p => p.Item).HasConstraint((p, q) => p.Id == q.Id); this.ContextBuilder.Configurations.Add(testConfig); } This gives an error: A key is registered for the derived type 'Test'. Keys must be registered for the root type 'ContentBase'. anyway i try i get an error. What am i a doing wrong?

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  • Nhibernate - getting single column from other table

    - by Muhammad Akhtar
    I have following tables Employee: ID,CompanyID,Name //CompanyID is foriegn key of Company Table Company: CompanyID, Name I want to map this to the following class: public class Employee { public virtual Int ID { get; set; } public virtual Int CompanyID { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string CompanyName { get; set; } protected Employee() { } } here is my xml class <class name="Employee" table="Employee" lazy="true"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" column="Id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="CompanyID" column="CompanyID" type="Int32" not-null="false"/> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" length="100" not-null="false"/> What I need to add in xml class to map CompanyName in my result? here is my code... public ArrayList getTest() { ISession session = NHibernateHelper.GetCurrentSession(); string query = "select Employee.*,(Company.Name)CompanyName from Employee inner join Employee on Employee.CompanyID = Company.CompanyID"; ArrayList document = (ArrayList)session.CreateSQLQuery(query, "Employee", typeof(Document)).List(); return document; } but in the returned result, I am getting CompanyName is null is result set and other columns are fine. Note:In DB, tables don't physical relation Please suggest my solution ------ Thanks

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  • gridview image column problem

    - by jame
    Work on vs05 C# asp.net .My SQL Syntax is :**** if exists (select * from dbo.sysobjects where id = object_id(N'[dbo].[Images]') and OBJECTPROPERTY(id, N'IsUserTable') = 1) drop table [dbo].[Images] GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Images] ( [ID] [numeric](18, 0) IDENTITY (1, 1) NOT NULL , [ImageName] [varchar] (50) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL , [Image] [image] NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] TEXTIMAGE_ON [PRIMARY] GO I want to show this Images table values in a grid view.....I do it ...but the image value can not show ....asp.net syntax for gridview is <asp:GridView ID="GridView2" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False"> <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="ImageName" HeaderText="ImageName" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Image"> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("Image") %>'></asp:TextBox> </EditItemTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Image ID="Image1" runat="server" ImageUrl='<%# Eval("Image") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> i write the below code on pageload event. i want images table values must shown when the page is load... string strSQL = "Select * From Images"; DataTable dt = clsDB.getDataTable(strSQL); this.GridView2.DataSource = dt; this.GridView2.DataBind(); Why not i get the image on my image column of the gridview.....what's the problem is how to solve?

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  • Event handler triggered twice instead of once

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I am sorry that I have asked two questions in a few minutes. In a html file, I got three child DIV tags in a parent DIV tag: <div id="container"> <div id="frag-123">123</div> <div id="frag-124">124</div> <div id="frag-125">125</div> </div> Now when I click either the three child DIV tags, I will see two alert boxes pop up instead of one: The first alert box will show something like this: frag-123, and the second alert box will show something like this: container I dont know why. I just want to get the ID value of a child DIV, not the one from the parent DIV. <script> $(function() { $("div").click(function() { var imgID = this.id; alert(imgID); }); }); </script> Please help.

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  • Find and replace certain part of value (jquery)

    - by Hakan
    This might be a little complicated. See code below. When image is clicked I want to change "MY-ID-NUMBER" in "value" and "src" of object. But I want the other information to remain. When link is clicked I want to restore "value" and "src" so I can use the same function for next image that is clicked. Is it possible? Please help! My HTML: <img height="186" width="134" alt="4988" src="i123.jpg"> <img height="186" width="134" alt="4567" src="i124.jpg"> <a class="restore-to-default" href="#">DVD</a> <div class="tdt"> <object width="960" height="540"><param name="movie" value="http://www.domain.com/v3.4/player.swf?file=http://se.player-feed.domain.com/cinema/MY-ID-NUMBER/123-1/><param name="wmode" value="transparent" /><param name="allowFullScreen" value="true" /><param name="allowScriptAccess" value="always" /><embed id="player" name="player" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" src="http://www.player.domain.com/v3.4/player.swf?file=http://se.player-feed.domain.com/cinema/MY-ID-NUMBER/123-1/&display_title=over&menu=true&enable_link=true&default_quality=xxlarge&controlbar=over&autostart=true&backcolor=000000&frontcolor=ffffff&share=0&repeat=always&displayclick=play&volume=80&linktarget=_blank" width="960" height="540"allowFullScreen="true" allowScriptAccess="always"></embed></object> My jquery: $('img').click(function(){ var alt = $(this).attr("alt"); $('.tdt object').val("alt", alt); // Some how change "MY-ID-NUMBER" into the "alt-value" of image }); $('a').click(function(){ //restore to "MY-ID-NUMBER" }); Thanks!

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  • temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

    - by lau
    Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

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  • Trouble decoding JSON string with PHP

    - by Anthony
    I'm trying to send an array of objects from JS to PHP using JSON. I have an array of players as follows: var player; var players = new Array(); //loop for number of players player = new Object(); player.id = theID; players[i] = player; Then my AJAX call looks like this: JSONplayers = JSON.stringify(players); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "php/ajax_send_players.php", data: { "players" : JSONplayers } On the PHP side the decode function looks like this $players = $_REQUEST['players']; echo var_dump($players); $players = json_decode($players); echo 'players: ' .$players. '--'. $players[0] . '--'. $players[0]->id; Debugging in chrome, the JSON players var looks like this before it is sent: JSONplayers: "[{"id":"Percipient"},{"id":"4"}]" And when I vardump in PHP it looks OK, giving this: string(40) "[{\"id\":\"Percipient\"},{\"id\":\"4\"}]" But I can't access the PHP array, and the echo statement about starting with players: outputs this: players: ---- Nothing across the board...maybe it has something to do with the \'s in the array, I am new to this and might be missing something very simple. Any help would be greatly appreciated. note I've also tried json_decode($players, true) to get it as an assoc array but get similar results.

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  • Index an array expression directly in PostgreSQL

    - by wich
    I'm trying to insert data into a table from a template table. I need to rewrite one of the columns for which I wanted to use a directly indexed array expression, but I can't seem to find how to do this, if it is even possible. The scenario: create table template ( id integer, index integer, foo integer); insert into template values (0, 1, 23), (0, 2, 18), (0, 3, 16), (0, 4, 7), (1, 1, 17), (1, 2, 26), (1, 3, 11), (1, 4, 3); create table data ( data_id integer, foo integer); Now what I'd like to do is the following: insert into data select (array[3,7,5,2])[index], foo from template where id = 1; But this doesn't work, the (array[3,7,5,2])[index] syntax isn't valid. I tried a few variants, but was unable to get anything working and wasn't able to find the correct syntax in the docs, nor even whether this is at all possible or not. As a current workaround I've devised the following, but it is less than ideal, from an elegance perspective at least, but it may also be a performance hit, I haven't looked into that yet. insert into data select arr[index], foo from template, (select array[3,7,5,2] as arr) as q where id = 1; If anyone could suggest a (better) alternative to accomplish this I'd like to hear that as well.

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  • Need help with a simple ASP.NET ModalPopupExtender example

    - by remdao
    I'm new to ASP.NET and I'm trying to get this Ajax ModalPopupExtender working. This is an example i found on the net, but nothing happens when btnpopup is clicked. <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="ModalTestProject._Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:scriptmanager id="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:scriptmanager> <asp:Button ID="btnpopup" runat="server" Text="Button" /> <ajaxToolkit:ModalPopupExtender ID="mpe" runat="server" TargetControlID="btnpopup" PopupControlID="pnlpopup" CancelControlID="btnCancelpopup" EnableViewState="true" DropShadow="true" /> <asp:Panel ID="pnlpopup" runat="server" Width="400px"> test <asp:Button ID="btnCancelpopup" runat="server" Text="Button" /> </asp:Panel> </form> </body> </html>

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  • JQuery use variable by name of divID

    - by Russell Parrott
    Just a quick question, that I cannot fathom out, hope you guys and girls can help. I have a div (with ID) that when clicked opens a new div - great works well, what I really want is to "populate" the new div with predefined text based on the clicked div's ID. example: <div class="infobox" id="help_msg1">Click me</div> I may have say 3 (actually more but...) of these div's This opens: <div id="helpbox">text in here</div> In/on my .js page I have doc ready etc then: var help_msg1 ='text that is a help message'; var help_msg2 ='text that is another help message'; var help_msg3 ='text that is yet another help message'; Then $('.infobox').live('click',function() { $('#helpbox').remove(); $('label').css({'font-weight': '400'}); $(this).next('label').css({'font-weight': '900'}); var offset = $(this).next().next().offset(); var offsetby = $(this).next().next().width(); var leftitby = offset.left+offsetby+10; $('body').append('text in here'); $('#helpbox').css( { 'left': leftitby, 'top': offset.top } ); }); Note I remove each #helpbox before appending the new one and the .next().next() identifies the appropriate text input that lot all works. What I need is how do I put var help_msg1 into the append when id="help_msg1" is clicked or var help_msg2 when id="help_msg2" is clicked etc. I have tried

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  • asp.net ajax collapsible panel in ie8 problem

    - by stuart
    Anyone try this simple bit of code in an ie8 browswer and try refreshing the page, in ie8 you will get an error around getelementbyid on refresh. When i run it it complains of not being able to find control with id of 'ctl00_main_dd' <cc1:CollapsiblePanelExtender ID="CollapsiblePanelExtender2" runat="server" ImageControlID="Image2" CollapsedImage="~/App_Themes/IMStandard/icons/uparrow.png" ExpandedImage="~/App_Themes/IMStandard/icons/downarrow.png" CollapseControlID="dd" ExpandControlID="dd" TargetControlID="pnlQuickKeywordSearch" SuppressPostBack="true"> </cc1:CollapsiblePanelExtender> <asp:Panel ID="dd" runat="server"> <h3 class="loginHeader"> <asp:Image ID="Image2" runat="server" /> &nbsp;&nbsp;Quick Keyword search&nbsp;<asp:Image ID="HelpIconImage" runat="server" Width="16px" Height="16px" ImageUrl="~/App_Themes/IMStandard/icons/help.png" /></h3> </asp:Panel> <asp:Panel ID="pnlQuickKeywordSearch" Style="float: left; border: double 3px #C9DF86;" runat="server" > <div style="clear: both; padding: 5px;"> </div></asp:Panel> Anybody know why this is happening? is it a bug in ie8 or am i missing something? By the way, i am using masterpages, but i dont think that has anything to do with it. Thanks

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  • Multi-Column Join in Hibernate/JPA Annotations

    - by bowsie
    I have two entities which I would like to join through multiple columns. These columns are shared by an @Embeddable object that is shared by both entities. In the example below, Foo can have only one Bar but Bar can have multiple Foos (where AnEmbeddableObject is a unique key for Bar). Here is an example: @Entity @Table(name = "foo") public class Foo { @Id @Column(name = "id") @GeneratedValue(generator = "seqGen") @SequenceGenerator(name = "seqGen", sequenceName = "FOO_ID_SEQ", allocationSize = 1) private Long id; @Embedded private AnEmbeddableObject anEmbeddableObject; @ManyToOne(targetEntity = Bar.class, fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumns( { @JoinColumn(name = "column_1", referencedColumnName = "column_1"), @JoinColumn(name = "column_2", referencedColumnName = "column_2"), @JoinColumn(name = "column_3", referencedColumnName = "column_3"), @JoinColumn(name = "column_4", referencedColumnName = "column_4") }) private Bar bar; // ... rest of class } And the Bar class: @Entity @Table(name = "bar") public class Bar { @Id @Column(name = "id") @GeneratedValue(generator = "seqGen") @SequenceGenerator(name = "seqGen", sequenceName = "BAR_ID_SEQ", allocationSize = 1) private Long id; @Embedded private AnEmbeddableObject anEmbeddableObject; // ... rest of class } Finally the AnEmbeddedObject class: @Embeddable public class AnEmbeddedObject { @Column(name = "column_1") private Long column1; @Column(name = "column_2") private Long column2; @Column(name = "column_3") private Long column3; @Column(name = "column_4") private Long column4; // ... rest of class } Obviously the schema is poorly normalised, it is a restriction that AnEmbeddedObject's fields are repeated in each table. The problem I have is that I receive this error when I try to start up Hibernate: org.hibernate.AnnotationException: referencedColumnNames(column_1, column_2, column_3, column_4) of Foo.bar referencing Bar not mapped to a single property I have tried marking the JoinColumns are not insertable and updatable, but with no luck. Is there a way to express this with Hibernate/JPA annotations? Thank you.

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  • How can I have 2 ADO access methods use the same Transaction?

    - by KevinDeus
    I'm writing a test to see if my LINQ to Entity statement works.. I'll be using this for others if I can get this concept going.. my intention here is to INSERT a record with ADO, then verify it can be queried with LINQ, and then ROLLBACK the whole thing at the end. I'm using ADO to insert because I don't want to use the object or the entity model that I am testing. I figure that a plain ADO INSERT should do fine. problem is.. they both use different types of connections. is it possible to have these 2 different data access methods use the same TRANSACTION so I can roll it back?? _conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); _conn.Open(); _trans = _conn.BeginTransaction(); var x = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO Table1(ID, LastName, FirstName, DateOfBirth) values('127', 'test2', 'user', '2-12-1939');", _conn); x.ExecuteNonQuery(); //So far, so good. Adding a record to the table. //at this point, we need to do **_trans.Commit()** here because our Entity code can't use the same connection. Then I have to manually delete in the TestHarness.TearDown.. I'd like to eliminate this step //(this code is in another object, I'll include it for brevity. Imagine that I passed the connection in) //check to see if it is there using (var ctx = new XEntities(_conn)) //can't do this.. _conn is not an EntityConnection! { var retVal = (from m in ctx.Table1 where m.first_name == "test2" where m.last_name == "user" where m.Date_of_Birth == "2-12-1939" where m.ID == 127 select m).FirstOrDefault(); return (retVal != null); } //Do test.. Assert.BlahBlah(); _trans.Rollback();

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  • jQuery to find previous elements

    - by mike
    Hi everybody, I have the following table <table> <tr class="ligneI"> <td class="col2b"><input type="text" id="desc" class="calcule"></td> <td class="col2b"><input type="text" id="price" class="calcule"></td> <td class="calculated_price">220.00</td> <td class="calculated_price">1800.00</td> <td><a title="" class="picto06 deleteLink" id="deleteLink1" href="#" onclick="resetfields(this);">delete</a></td> </tr> <tr class="ligneI"> <td class="col2b"><input type="text" id="desc" class="calcule"></td> <td class="col2b"><input type="text" id="price" class="calcule"></td> <td class="calculated_price">87.00</td> <td class="calculated_price">40.00</td> <td><a title="" class="picto06 deleteLink" id="deleteLink2" href="#" onclick="resetfields(this);">delete</a></td> ... and I would like to reset the entire when i click on a delete link. I tried to do something like this: function resetfields(obj) { $(this).parent().prevAll('td.calcule').html('&nbsp;'); $(this).parent().prevAll('td input.calcule').val(''); } but only the first line erase the two first befor my link. Someone can help me please. Ps : excuse my english

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  • Dealing with SQLException with spring,hibernate & Postgres

    - by mad
    Hi im working on a project using HibernateDaoSUpport from my Daos from Spring & spring-ws & hibernate & postgres who will be used in a national application (means a lot of users) Actually, every exception from hibernate is automatically transformed into some specific Spring dataAccesException. I have a table with a keyword on the dabatase & a unique constraint on the keywords : no duplicate keywords is allowed. I have found twows ways to deal with with that in the Insert Dao: 1- Check for the duplicate manually (with a select) prior to doing your insert. I means that the spring transaction will have a SERIALIZABLE isolation level. The obvious drawback is that we have now 2 queries for a simple insert.Advantage: independent of the database 2-let the insert gone & catch the SqlException & convert it to a userfriendly message & errorcode to the final consumer of our webservices. Solution 2: Spring has developped a way to translate specific exeptions into customized exceptions. see http://www.oracle.com/technology/pub/articles/marx_spring.html In my case i would have a ConstraintViolationException. Ideally i would like to write a custom SQLExceptionTranslator to map the duplicate word constraint in the database with a DuplicateWordException. But i can have many unique constraints on the same table. So i have to get the message of the SQLEXceptions in order to find the name of the constraint declared in the create table "uq_duplicate-constraint" for example. Now i have a strong dependency with the database. Thanks in advance for your answers & excuse me for my poor english (it is not my mother tongue)

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  • Codeigniter Inserting Multidimensional Array as rows in MySQL

    - by RisingSun
    Please Refer to this question I asked Codeigniter Insert Multiple Rows in SQL To restate <tr> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][name]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][address]" value=""><br></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][age]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][email]" value=""></td> </tr> <tr> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][name]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][address]" value=""><br></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][age]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][email]" value=""></td> </tr> .......... Can Be Inserted into MySQL as this foreach($_POST['user'] as $user) { $this->db->insert('mytable', $user); } This results in multiple MySQL queries. Is it possible to optimise it further, so that the insert occurs in one query Something like this insert multiple rows via a php array into mysql but taking advantage of codeigniters simpler syntax. Thanks

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  • associated array elements in zend form

    - by ToonMariner
    Hi, Been trying to find a solution for this for a while with not much luck... Need to render a form with an array of checkboxes each having an associated textbox. given an array of array('Dave'=23,'Pete'=12,'Si'=43); the resulting mark-up should yield: <div> <label><input type="checkbox" name="user_id[]" id="user_id-1" value="23" />Dave</label> <label for="job-1">Job:</label><input type="text" name="job[]" id="job-1" /> </div> <div> <label><input type="checkbox" name="user_id[]" id="user_id-2" value="12" />Pete</label> <label for="job-2">Job:</label><input type="text" name="job[]" id="job-2" /> </div> <div> <label><input type="checkbox" name="user_id[]" id="user_id-3" value="43" />Si</label> <label for="job-3">Job:</label><input type="text" name="job[]" id="job-3" /> </div> Complete zend noob so any help appreciuated (including decorators etc.) Thanks peeps

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  • Finding the index of a list item in jQuery

    - by Tim Piele
    I have an unordered list of eight items. On page load the first five <li> have default thumbnail images in them and the 6th one has a 1px by 1px placeholder image with the ID of $('#last'). When a user inserts a new image it replaces the 'src' of $('#last') with their new image. It's not the most efficient way but it works. <ul> <li><img src="img1.png" /></li> <li><img src="img2.png" /></li> <li><img src="img3.png" /></li> <li><img src="img4.png" /></li> <li><img src="img5.png" /></li> <li><img src="1px.png" id="last"/></li> <li></li> <li></li> </ul> When the user adds a new image the ID of $('#last') is removed and I use each() to find the next empty <li> and insert the 1px by 1px image in it, with an ID of $('#last') so it is ready for the next image upload. At this point I need to get the index() of the <li> that now has the 1px by 1px image in it, whose ID is $('#last'), so that I can store the index in the session, so when a user comes back to the page the $('#last') ID is still set and ready to accept another image. How do I get the index of the <li> with that image in it, since it was set after page load? Is there a way to use delegate() or on() to get it? i.e. how do I get the index of an element that was set after page load?

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