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  • Property overwrite behaviour

    - by jeremyj
    I thought it worth sharing about property overwrite behaviour because i found it confusing at first in the hope of preventing some learning pain for the uninitiated with MSBuild :-)The confusion for me came because of the redundancy of using a Condition statement in a _project_ level property to test that a property has not been previously set. What i mean is that the following two statements are always identical in behaviour, regardless if the property has been supplied on the command line -  <PropertyGroup>    <PropA Condition=" '$(PropA)' == '' ">PropA set at project level</PropA>  </PropertyGroup>has the same behaviour regardless of command line override as -  <PropertyGroup>     <PropA>PropA set at project level</PropA>   </PropertyGroup>  i.e. the two above property declarations have the same result whether the property is overridden on the command line or not.To prove this experiment with the following .proj file -<?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?><Project ToolsVersion="4.0" >  <PropertyGroup>    <PropA Condition=" '$(PropA)' == '' ">PropA set at project level</PropA>  </PropertyGroup>  <Target Name="Target1">    <Message Text="PropA: $(PropA)"/>  </Target>  <Target Name="Target2">    <PropertyGroup>      <PropA>PropA set in Target2</PropA>    </PropertyGroup>    <Message Text="PropA: $(PropA)"/>  </Target>  <Target Name="Target3">    <PropertyGroup>      <PropA Condition=" '$(PropA)' == '' ">PropA set in Target3</PropA>    </PropertyGroup>    <Message Text="PropA: $(PropA)"/>  </Target>  <Target Name="Target4">    <PropertyGroup>      <PropA Condition=" '$(PropA)' != '' ">PropA set in Target4</PropA>    </PropertyGroup>    <Message Text="PropA: $(PropA)"/>  </Target></Project>Try invoking it using both of the following invocations and observe its output -1)>msbuild blog.proj /t:Target1;Target2;Target3;Target42)>msbuild blog.proj /t:Target1;Target2;Target3;Target4 "/p:PropA=PropA set on command line"Then try those two invocations with the following three variations of specifying PropA at the project level -1)  <PropertyGroup>     <PropA Condition=" '$(PropA)' == '' ">PropA set at project level</PropA>   </PropertyGroup> 2)   <PropertyGroup>     <PropA>PropA set at project level</PropA>   </PropertyGroup>3)  <PropertyGroup>     <PropA Condition=" '$(PropA)' != '' ">PropA set at project level</PropA>   </PropertyGroup>

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  • How to deal with overly aggressive "Link Take Down Demands"?

    - by Eoin
    I've been receiving a large number of emails recently requesting I clean from link spam from my forum. Initially the emails were very polite and professional, and I was happy to remove the links. Recently the email have gotten very abrasive, here is a particularly rude example: From: [email protected] To: [email protected] Hi, This is the second time we are reaching out to you regarding your link to our site hxxp://www.company-two.com from hxxp://www.my-forum.com/some-topic-id. We really do need to remove this link. We have to report to Google any link we were unable to remove, and I wouldn't want to have to include your site in the list. Could you please remove our link from this page and any other page on your site? Thank You, Name Changed Behind the superficial pleasantries I feel there is some very real maliciousness. Note the email address, DMCA Violations, I don't see how the DMCA is involved here, except as a word which tends to strike fear in many people. Also relating to the email address, it doesn't match the company being linked to at all. How am I to trust they are truely operating on behalf of company-two when they don't even use one of it's email addresses. My email is hidden by privacypost. While a service with legitimate uses, I feel it's highly unprofessional for communications between to companies. The claim "This is the second time..." Every email I've received has started like this, but a check of my spam filters has never revealed a 1st mail. Initially I gave them the benefit of the doubt, by now though it's clear this is a cheap ploy to start me off on the defensive. And finally worst of all- the threats of reporting me to Google if I don't do everything they ask. I sent a polite reply asking for more information. I have no idea if the email address was even valid but I never received any response. Much later I got this followup mail From: [email protected] To: [email protected] Hi, This is the final time we are reaching out to you regarding your link to our site hxxp://www.company-two.com from hxxp://www.my-forum.com/some-topic-id. We will soon be reporting to Google any link we were unable to remove, and currently your site will have to be on the list. Could you please remove our link from this page and any other page on your site? I appreciate your urgent attention to this matter. Thank You, Name Changed This time the from address was more personal, though still not obviously connected to the spammed company. Lets be honest, I don't for one second believe that the companies were the victim of a 3rd party spammer as they claim. The links in questions were generated well over a year ago, and I firmly believe the companies were directly responsible for the spam links in question, a type of spam that has plagued my forum. Now they have the audacity to demand I spend my time cleaning up their mess, using threats to ensure they get their way. Have recent changes in Googles algorithms meant all the cash they spent spamming the web has now turned into a liability? If so I can see why these companies are all of a sudden running scared. Frankly, cleaning up my forum is a good things, but the threats they are using sickens me. So my question here is specifically about the threats: Are they vaild, and would such reports to Google destroy my page rankings? Is there a way I can report this abusive behaviour to Google?

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  • Ask the Readers: How Many Monitors Do You Use with Your Computer?

    - by Asian Angel
    Most people have a single monitor for their computers, many have two, and some individuals enjoy “3 monitor plus” goodness. This week we would like to know how many monitors you use with your computer. Photo by DamnedNice. A good majority of people have a single monitor that they use with their computers and that single monitor serves their needs very well. It could be that these individuals do not engage in a heavy amount of work or play on their computers…they just need to do the basics like checking e-mail, using I.M., working with photos, etc. Another possibility is the use of virtual desktop software such as Dexpot, Yodm 3D, or Sysinternals Desktops on Windows systems. Linux systems such as Ubuntu already have that wonderful multi-desktop functionality built in. The wonderful part about virtual desktops is that a single monitor can feel equivalent to a small army of monitors. The ability to separate your open windows into “categories” and spread them out across multiple desktops is definitely nice. With each passing year dual monitor setups are becoming more common. Having twice the screen real-estate visible at the same time can be extremely convenient when you are multi-tasking. Perhaps you like to monitor your system’s stats and an e-mail account on the second monitor while working with software on the first. It certainly beats having windows popping up and down on your screen constantly while keeping on top of everything! Next we have the people who have three or more monitors in use with their computers. This may be a result of the type of work they do, an experiment to see if multiple monitors are right for them, or the cool, geeky factor that comes with having all those monitors. Needless to say these individuals can induce a good amount of envy and/or inspiration in the rest of us when we see their awesome setups. Are you perfectly content with a single monitor? Do you have two or more monitors that you use? If you have two or more monitors are they actually that useful to you? Perhaps you are getting ready even now to add additional monitors to your system. Whatever your situation may be at the moment, let us know your thoughts (and possible multi-monitor plans) in the comments! How-To Geek Polls require Javascript. Please Click Here to View the Poll. Latest Features How-To Geek ETC How to Use the Avira Rescue CD to Clean Your Infected PC The Complete List of iPad Tips, Tricks, and Tutorials Is Your Desktop Printer More Expensive Than Printing Services? 20 OS X Keyboard Shortcuts You Might Not Know HTG Explains: Which Linux File System Should You Choose? HTG Explains: Why Does Photo Paper Improve Print Quality? Hidden Tracks Your Stolen Mac; Free Until End of January Why the Other Checkout Line Always Moves Faster World of Warcraft Theme for Windows 7 Ubuntu Font Family Now Available for Download Oh No! WikiLeaks Published Santa Claus’s Naughty List [Video] Remember the Milk Now Supports HTTPS Encryption for the Entire Session

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  • Getting 2D Platformer entity collision Response Correct (side-to-side + jumping/landing on heads)

    - by jbrennan
    I've been working on a 2D (tile based) 2D platformer for iOS and I've got basic entity collision detection working, but there's just something not right about it and I can't quite figure out how to solve it. There are 2 forms of collision between player entities as I can tell, either the two players (human controlled) are hitting each other side-to-side (i. e. pushing against one another), or one player has jumped on the head of the other player (naturally, if I wanted to expand this to player vs enemy, the effects would be different, but the types of collisions would be identical, just the reaction should be a little different). In my code I believe I've got the side-to-side code working: If two entities press against one another, then they are both moved back on either side of the intersection rectangle so that they are just pushing on each other. I also have the "landed on the other player's head" part working. The real problem is, if the two players are currently pushing up against each other, and one player jumps, then at one point as they're jumping, the height-difference threshold that counts as a "land on head" is passed and then it registers as a jump. As a life-long player of 2D Mario Bros style games, this feels incorrect to me, but I can't quite figure out how to solve it. My code: (it's really Objective-C but I've put it in pseudo C-style code just to be simpler for non ObjC readers) void checkCollisions() { // For each entity in the scene, compare it with all other entities (but not with one it's already compared against) for (int i = 0; i < _allGameObjects.count(); i++) { // GameObject is an Entity GEGameObject *firstGameObject = _allGameObjects.objectAtIndex(i); // Don't check against yourself or any previous entity for (int j = i+1; j < _allGameObjects.count(); j++) { GEGameObject *secondGameObject = _allGameObjects.objectAtIndex(j); // Get the collision bounds for both entities, then see if they intersect // CGRect is a C-struct with an origin Point (x, y) and a Size (w, h) CGRect firstRect = firstGameObject.collisionBounds(); CGRect secondRect = secondGameObject.collisionBounds(); // Collision of any sort if (CGRectIntersectsRect(firstRect, secondRect)) { //////////////////////////////// // // // Check for jumping first (???) // // //////////////////////////////// if (firstRect.origin.y > (secondRect.origin.y + (secondRect.size.height * 0.7))) { // the top entity could be pretty far down/in to the bottom entity.... firstGameObject.didLandOnEntity(secondGameObject); } else if (secondRect.origin.y > (firstRect.origin.y + (firstRect.size.height * 0.7))) { // second entity was actually on top.... secondGameObject.didLandOnEntity.(firstGameObject); } else if (firstRect.origin.x > secondRect.origin.x && firstRect.origin.x < (secondRect.origin.x + secondRect.size.width)) { // Hit from the RIGHT CGRect intersection = CGRectIntersection(firstRect, secondRect); // The NUDGE just offsets either object back to the left or right // After the nudging, they are exactly pressing against each other with no intersection firstGameObject.nudgeToRightOfIntersection(intersection); secondGameObject.nudgeToLeftOfIntersection(intersection); } else if ((firstRect.origin.x + firstRect.size.width) > secondRect.origin.x) { // hit from the LEFT CGRect intersection = CGRectIntersection(firstRect, secondRect); secondGameObject.nudgeToRightOfIntersection(intersection); firstGameObject.nudgeToLeftOfIntersection(intersection); } } } } } I think my collision detection code is pretty close, but obviously I'm doing something a little wrong. I really think it's to do with the way my jumps are checked (I wanted to make sure that a jump could happen from an angle (instead of if the falling player had been at a right angle to the player below). Can someone please help me here? I haven't been able to find many resources on how to do this properly (and thinking like a game developer is new for me). Thanks in advance!

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  • I need help with 2D collision response (of stacking rotating polygons, with friction and gravity, for a game)

    - by Register Sole
    Hi I am looking for suggestions on how to write a collision response for game programming purpose (so not a scientific simulation). I am dealing with 2D polygons that are rotating, and I want them to be able to stack. I also want friction and gravity. I have a detection mechanism that returns the separating axis, how long the polygons are overlapping, and up to 2 points of contact. For the response, I am currently using an impulse-based response, which main idea is: find the separating axis, length of overlap, and the point of contact (if there are two, pick a random point between to simulate averaged force. i believe there are better ways than this) separate the object (modifying their positions, taking into account of their masses. i do not separate them completely though, to keep track that they are colliding to reduce jitter) calculate normal force based on the coefficient of restitution as if there is no friction. calculate friction, as if there is no normal force. I also assume that the direction of the friction is the same throughout the collision. apply the two forces (which result in a rather inaccurate result, since each force is calculated as if the other is not present. for non-rotating bodies though, this method is exact) I am aware that this method requires the coefficient of friction to be sufficiently small due to the assumption that the direction of friction stays the same in a collision. Also, the result is visually satisfying if gravity is not present. However, when there is gravity, objects on ground jitter and drift (even with zero coefficient of restitution)! It also happens for stacking objects. Larger coefficient of restitution and gravity increase the jittering. I hope you can help me with this. Some things i would like to know more about is how to handle collision with two point of contacts (how to end up having an object sitting still on the ground?), how to reduce, and prevent if possible, jitter and drift (do people use the most accurate method possible, or is there a trick to overcome this?), and how to handle multiple objects collision (for example, in the case of stacking objects, how do I check collisions between all of them and keep them all stable at every frame so they don't jitter?). A total reformulation of my algorithm is also welcomed, as long as it works. Another thing to note is that I am not making a Physics game, so I only need a visually satisfying response (though a realistic response is preferable, if it is not performance-heavy). But surely jittering and drifting objects on flat ground are not at all acceptable. In addition, I am a Physics student, so feel free to talk about impulse and whatever needed. Finally, I'm sorry for the long post. I tried to be as concise as I can. Thank you for reading it! EDIT It seems what I didn't manage to come up all this time is to separate resting contact as a class of its own and how to solve them. Currently reading the paper suggested by Jedediah. More suggestions on the topic are welcome :) CASE CLOSED After reading various papers referenced in the paper, successfully implemented simultaneous impulse method (referring to the original paper by Erin Catto, [Catt05]). Thanks maaaan!! The paper is wonderful. The current system is visibly much better than the previous. Still haven't separated resting contact as a class of its own though, which brings me to my next question. Love you all! Haha (sorry, I'm just so happy thanks to you).

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  • Android - Using PreferenceScreen to display and save settings to/from ContentProvider

    - by Donal Rafferty
    I have my own custom Content Provider that loads a datasbase which contains the settings information for my application. I load the settings from the ContentProvider on the creation of my Settings activity. My Settings activity is made up of a PreferenceScreen and Dialog based EditText's. The following code shows how I use the preference screen and edit texts. So as you can see from the first image this works and displays the menu with the information underneath. The problem is in image two, when I click on a choice in the menu the dialog pops up but it is empty, I would like to be able to load the data from my content provider into the edit text in the dialog, so in image one it shows "Donal" as the user name so in image two "Donal" should also appear in the edit text in the dialog. I would also like to be able to listen to the OK button in the dialog so when a user changes a setting I can update the data in my content provider. Can anyone help me with what I'm trying to do? Code // Root PreferenceScreen root = getPreferenceManager().createPreferenceScreen(this); // Dialog based preferences PreferenceCategory dialogBasedPrefCat = new PreferenceCategory(this); dialogBasedPrefCat.setTitle(R.string.dialog_based_preferences); root.addPreference(dialogBasedPrefCat); // Edit text preference EditTextPreference editTextPref = new EditTextPreference(this); editTextPref.setDialogTitle(R.string.dialog_title_edittext_preference); editTextPref.setKey("edittext_preference"); editTextPref.setTitle(R.string.title_edittext_preference); editTextPref.setSummary(name); dialogBasedPrefCat.addPreference(editTextPref); Image One Image Two

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  • how to read user input from custom dialog in android?

    - by urobo
    I'd like to use a custom dialog built over an AlterDialog to obtain login info from the user. In this manner I first use the layoutinflater to get the layout and then put it in the AlertDialog.Builder.setView() method. LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater) Home.this.getSystemService(LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); layoutLogin = inflater.inflate(R.layout.login,(ViewGroup) findViewById(R.id.rl)); My layout consists of two textview and two editext for username and password respectively. Then I override the onCreateDialog method, checking the dialog id and putting all together, during the building phase I use the setButton(...) method to add a confirmation Button, neutral though: /* (non-Javadoc) * @see android.app.Activity#onCreateDialog(int) */ @Override protected Dialog onCreateDialog(int id) { AlertDialog d = null; AlertDialog.Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); switch(id){ ... case Home.DIALOG_LOGIN: builder.setView(layoutLogin); builder.setMessage("Sign in to your DyCaPo Account").setCancelable(false); d=builder.create(); d.setTitle("Login"); Message msg = new Message(); msg.setTarget(Home.this.handleLogin); d.setButton(Dialog.BUTTON_NEUTRAL,"Sign in",msg); break; ... } return d; } Then I setup the Handler handleLogin: private Handler handleLogin= new Handler(){ /* (non-Javadoc) * @see android.os.Handler#handleMessage(android.os.Message) */ @Override public void handleMessage(Message msg) { String input = usernameInput.getText().toString(); //this should hold the EditText field for the username } }; which is just a stub up to now. what I don't get is when and where I have to access the two fields since I tried to save a reference to them but unfortunately I always get a null pointer exception. Can anyone tell me what I do wrong and give some guidelines to work with custom dialogs. Thanks in advance! :)

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  • How do you construct an array suitable for numpy sorting?

    - by Alex
    I need to sort two arrays simultaneously, or rather I need to sort one of the arrays and bring the corresponding element of its associated array with it as I sort. That is if the array is [(5, 33), (4, 44), (3, 55)] and I sort by the first axis (labeled below dtype='alpha') then I want: [(3.0, 55.0) (4.0, 44.0) (5.0, 33.0)]. These are really big data sets and I need to sort first ( for nlog(n) speed ) before I do some other operations. I don't know how to merge my two separate arrays though in the proper manner to get the sort algorithm working. I think my problem is rather simple. I tried three different methods: import numpy x=numpy.asarray([5,4,3]) y=numpy.asarray([33,44,55]) dtype=[('alpha',float), ('beta',float)] values=numpy.array([(x),(y)]) values=numpy.rollaxis(values,1) #values = numpy.array(values, dtype=dtype) #a=numpy.array(values,dtype=dtype) #q=numpy.sort(a,order='alpha') print "Try 1:\n", values values=numpy.empty((len(x),2)) for n in range (len(x)): values[n][0]=y[n] values[n][1]=x[n] print "Try 2:\n", values #values = numpy.array(values, dtype=dtype) #a=numpy.array(values,dtype=dtype) #q=numpy.sort(a,order='alpha') ### values = [(x[0], y[0]), (x[1],y[1]) , (x[2],y[2])] print "Try 3:\n", values values = numpy.array(values, dtype=dtype) a=numpy.array(values,dtype=dtype) q=numpy.sort(a,order='alpha') print "Result:\n",q I commented out the first and second trys because they create errors, I knew the third one would work because that was mirroring what I saw when I was RTFM. Given the arrays x and y (which are very large, just examples shown) how do I construct the array (called values) that can be called by numpy.sort properly? *** Zip works great, thanks. Bonus question: How can I later unzip the sorted data into two arrays again?

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  • Redirect from URL with QueryString to the same URL without QueryString

    - by Slauma
    I have a page request with a QueryString, say http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx?OrderID=1. The page is displayed in a browser. Now there is an asp:LinkButton on the page which should enable the user to open the page without the QueryString (as if he had entered http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx directly in the browser's address bar). I had two ideas: 1) Use the PostBackUrl attribute of the LinkButton: <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" Text="Select" PostBackUrl="~/Orders.aspx" /> 2) Use "RedirectUrl" in an event handler: <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" Text="Select" OnClick="LinkButton1_Click" /> ...and... protected void LinkButton1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Redirect("~/Orders.aspx"); } In both cases the browser's address bar shows http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx without the QueryString, as I like to have it. But in the first case the page does not change at all. But it should, because I'm evaluating the QueryString in code-behind and control the appearance of the page depending on whether a QueryString exists or not. The second option works as intended. If I am not wrong the second option requires an additional roundtrip: Browser sends request to server Event handler on server side sends Redirect URL to browser Browser sends again request to the server, but with the new URL Server sends new requested page to browser Is this correct at all? Whereas the first option omits the first two steps in the list above, thus saving the additional roundtrip and resulting in: Browser sends request to the server, but with the new URL (the PostbackURL specified in the LinkButton) Server sends new requested page to browser But, as said, the result isn't the same. I'm sure my try to explain the differences between the two options is wrong somewhere. But I don't know where exactly. Can someone explain what's really the difference? Do I really need this second roundtrip of option (2) to achieve what I want? Thanks in advance!

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  • Can a masterpage reference another masterpage with the same content and contentplaceholder tags?

    - by Peach
    Current Setup I currently have three masterpages and content pages in the following hierarchy : One root-level masterpage that displays the final result. Call this "A" Two sibling pages that don't reference each other but contain all the same contentplaceholder elements, just in a different order with different <div>'s surrounding them. Both reference the root-level masterpage. Call these "B1" and "B2". Several content pages that reference one or the other sibling master pages above (not both). Call these "C1" through "C-whatever". Basically I have: Cn = B1 = A Cm = B2 = A This hierarchy works fine. Desired Setup What I want to do is add in a new level to this hierarchy (a new master page) between the content pages and the sibling masterpages. Basically so it's like this: One root-level masterpage that displays the final result. Two sibling pages plus a third sibling. Call it B3 A new middle masterpage that dynamically 'chooses' one of the sibling masterpages. The desired behaviour is to pass through the content given by C directly to Bn without modifying it. The only thing D actively does is choose which Bn. Call this new masterpage D. Several content pages that reference the new middle master page instead of the old siblings. The challenge to this is, I'm working within the confines of a rather complex product and I cannot change the original two sibling masterpages (B1 and B2) or content pages (C) in any meaningful way. I want: Cn = D = B1 = A Cm = D = B2 = A Ck = D = B3 = A Essentially, D should "pass through" all it's content to whichever B-level masterpage it chooses. I can't put this logic in the C-level pages. Additional Details All B-level pages have the same content/contentplaceholder tags, just ordered and styled differently. D can be as convoluted as it has to be, so long as it doesn't require modifying C or B. I'm using ASP.Net 2.0 Is this possible?

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  • Odd Infragistics UltraComboEditor data binding non-bug

    - by Richard Dunlap
    Within an Infragistics 8.2 UltraComboEditor, we had the following properties set via C#: DataSource = dataSource; ValueMember = "Measure"; DisplayMember = "Name"; DataBindings.Add("Value", repository, "Measure"); DataBindings["Value"].DataSourceUpdateMode = DataSourceUpdateMode.OnPropertyChanged; where dataSource was an array of objects, each with a property Measure, and repository was an object with a property Measure. (Those strings are actually constructor parameters -- just using explicit strings to simplify the example.) In the course of some refactoring, the name of the property on the objects in the array was changed to BaseEnum (the objects are actually wrapped enumerations, for the curious), but the name of ValueMember above was not changed. And yet, the combo box binding continued to work through initial testing, beta testing, and even after release... until two customers emailed in noting that the combo box was no longer changing the underlying parameter. We were able to dig out the problem by careful study of the source code repository... despite being in the awkward position of not being able to replicate the buggy behavior internally. Two part question: What's happening under the hood that allowed the binding to continue to function, and/or what might be unique about those two users that caused the binding to (correctly) fail? (O/S version isn't alone the answer, and we get the unexpectedly functioning binding on machines that have never had a version of the software before, so we're not looking at rogue binaries). Are there tools that might have been able to warn us about the misbind, even if something was cleaning up behind?

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  • Reusing service proxies

    - by Hadi Eskandari
    I have a set of webservices that I connect to using Silverlight Client. I use proxies generated by "Add service reference" or SLSVCUTIL.exe tool to connect to this service. So far, I have only used one single service. Now I want to use another service on the same server. The problem is that, first service generated set of proxy classes for me, and second service will reuse the same set of classes (plus extra services/classes), e.g. CustomerService.SaveCustomer(Customer customer); OrderService.CheckCustomerLevel(Customer customer); The problem is when I add reference to the second service, I can not reuse the same namespace for the second one (VS error), and when I use a different namespace, the generated classes, although are essentially the same, reside in different namespace, hence different and I end up with two Customer classes in two different namespaces. Anyway around this? I just neeed to have two set of services, reusing the Customer class. I have already tried "reuse types in assembly / all assemblies" check mark when generating proxy classes, but it seems to have no effect. any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Assistance with building an inverted-index

    - by tipu
    It's part of an information retrieval thing I'm doing for school. The plan is to create a hashmap of words using the the first two letters of the word as a key and any words with the two letters saved as a string value. So, hashmap["ba"] = "bad barley base" Once I'm done tokenizing a line I take that hashmap, serialize it, and append it to the text file named after the key. The idea is that if I take my data and spread it over hundreds of files I'll lessen the time it takes to fulfill a search by lessening the density of each file. The problem I am running into is when I'm making 100+ files in each run it happens to choke on creating a few files for whatever reason and so those entries are empty. Is there any way to make this more efficient? Is it worth continuing this, or should I abandon it? I'd like to mention I'm using PHP. The two languages I know relatively intimately are PHP and Java. I chose PHP because the front end will be very simple to do and I will be able to add features like autocompletion/suggested search without a problem. I also see no benefit in using Java. Any help is appreciated, thanks.

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  • Visual Studio Debugging is not attaching to WebDev.WebServer.EXE

    - by Aaron Daniels
    I have a solution with many projects. On Debug, I have three web projects that I want to start up on their own Cassini ASP.NET Web Development servers. In the Solution Properties - Common Properties - Startup Project, I have Multiple startup projects chosen with the three web applications' Action set to Start. All three web development servers start, and all three web pages load. However, Visual Studio is only attaching to two of the WebDev.WebServer.EXE processes. I have to manually go attach to the third process in order to debug it with the debugger. This behavior just started happening, and I'm at a loss as to how to troubleshoot this. Any help is appreciated. EDIT: Also to note, I have stopped and restarted the development servers several times with no change in behavior. Also, when attaching to the process manually, I see that the Type property of the two automatically attached WebDev.WebServer.EXE processes is Managed, while the Type property of the unattached WebDev.WebServer.EXE process is TSQL, Managed, x86. When looking at the project's properties, however, I am targeting AnyCPU, and do NOT have SQL Server debugging enabled. EDIT: Also to note, the two projects that attach correctly are C# web applications. <ProjectTypeGuids>{349c5851-65df-11da-9384-00065b846f21};{fae04ec0-301f-11d3-bf4b-00c04f79efbc}</ProjectTypeGuids> The project that is not attaching correctly is a VB.NET web application. <ProjectTypeGuids>{349c5851-65df-11da-9384-00065b846f21};{F184B08F-C81C-45F6-A57F-5ABD9991F28F}</ProjectTypeGuids> EDIT: Also to note, the behavior is the same on another workstation. So odds are that it's not a machine specific problem.

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  • Navigating between pages in a Facebook Platform iframe application

    - by Jimmy Cuadra
    I'm working on a Facebook Platform application that runs in iframe mode, and I'm having trouble understanding how to navigate between pages within the app. Let's say the first page that is loaded within the iframe at my canvas URL is one.html. Within that page, there is a link to two.html that just changes the source of the iframe and doesn't reload the Facebook chrome. When I do this, all the Facebook fb_sig_* query string parameters that Facebook passes to the original page aren't included, and so two.html has no awareness of the connection to Facebook and no ability to make API calls to generate the content for the page. One possible solution would be to manually extract all the Facebook parameters from one.html and append it to the link to two.html myself. This seems really ugly and I figured there had to be a cleaner way. For reference, my application is written in Perl and uses the WWW::Facebook::API module as a client library. I didn't see anything in it that I can use to easily reconstruct the Facebook parameters for use with links in iframe apps. Another possible solution would be to store all the Facebook parameters in a session on my server on the first page load, and just use the values in that session on subsequent page views. But what happens if the data I've stored no longer matches what Facebook would have sent if it were a completely new request (i.e. something in the user's Facebook session changed)? Is there something obvious I'm missing? What is the standard approach to navigating between pages within an iframe app? Facebook's documentation is atrocious and I haven't been able to find anything that clearly explains how this works. I also realize this wouldn't be an issue with an app using FBML instead of an iframe, but my understanding is that iframe apps are now encouraged over FBML apps, though again this seems ambiguous since so much of Facebook's documentation is outdated and contradictory.

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  • Disable caching in JPA (eclipselink)

    - by James
    Hi, I want to use JPA (eclipselink) to get data from my database. The database is changed by a number of other sources and I therefore want to go back to the database for every find I execute. I have read a number of posts on disabling the cache but this does not seem to be working. Any ideas? I am trying to execute the following code: EntityManagerFactory entityManagerFactory = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("default"); EntityManager em = entityManagerFactory.createEntityManager(); MyLocation one = em.createNamedQuery("MyLocation.findMyLoc").getResultList().get(0); MyLocation two = em.createNamedQuery("MyLocation.findMyLoc").getResultList().get(0); System.out.println(one==two); one==two is true while I want it to be false. I have tried adding each/all the following to my persistence.xml <property name="eclipselink.cache.shared.default" value="false"/> <property name="eclipselink.cache.size.default" value="0"/> <property name="eclipselink.cache.type.default" value="None"/> I have also tried adding the @Cache annotation to the Entity itself: @Cache( type=CacheType.NONE, // Cache nothing expiry=0, alwaysRefresh=true ) Am I misunderstanding something? Thank you, James

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  • popViewController does not autorotate back to allowed orientation

    - by JoeGaggler
    I have two UIViewControllers, "A" and "B", where "A" overrides the shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation to return YES for UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait, and "B" returns YES for all orientations. In my example "A" is the root navigation view controller, and I then use pushViewController for "B". After that I rotate the device into landscape, which successfully autorotates "B", then I pop "B" (back button or via popViewController) to return to "A". When targetting iPhone OS 3.1.3, "A" returns to the portrait orientation as expected. When targetting iPhone OS 3.2, I have two side-effects: "A" is displayed in landscape. The navigation bar does not update even though "A" is now displayed. The navigation bar still shows the items for "B". Only after trying to go back/pop one more time will the navigation bar animate to show the items for "A". If I instead attempt to push "B" again and go back, I have to pop twice before the navigation bar animates to show the items for "A". During these "intermediate pops" the view for "A" remains displayed. While researching this issue, I have seen other answers suggesting performing the rotation manually ([UIDevice setOrientation] or via a tranformation), however this does not help understand what the problem is, especially why it behaves differently between the two OS's. So my question is: must all of my UIViewControllers on the UINavigationController stack support exactly the same orientations going forward? And if not, then is there something that I need to do to make it behave as it did for OS 3.1.3?

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  • Android fragments problems different layouts

    - by juan
    I have two layouts: one for portait with one container and another for landscape with two containers. In the first layout I show a fragment and when the user select one element, I replace the fragment with another (with FragmentTransation.Replace). <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:tools="http://schemas.android.com/tools" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" > <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/container1" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:orientation="vertical" /> </RelativeLayout> In the second layout I want to show the two fragments at one time, one in the first container and the second in the second container. <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:tools="http://schemas.android.com/tools" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:orientation="horizontal" > <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/container1" android:layout_width="0dp" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:layout_weight="3" android:orientation="vertical" /> <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/container2" android:layout_width="0dp" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:layout_weight="7" android:orientation="vertical" /> </LinearLayout> But I can't make this works with configuration changes. I try use different names for containers, try add fragments when only bundle is null,... Someone have a working code of this case?

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  • Phantom class definitions in Flash CS5?

    - by cc
    I'm trying to get FlashPunk working in the Flash CS5 IDE (don't ask), and I'm having trouble getting it to compile. In strict mode, the error I'm getting is: net/flashpunk/FP.as, Line 95 1119: Access of possibly undefined property _inherit through a reference with static type World. Typically, this means that there is a missing variable definition or the class being compiled cannot see that variable. Presumably, the framework compiles for others, so I'm pretty sure this isn't the issue, but I went in anyway and made sure the variables existed and set these variables to public (they were set to internal), but the error still occurred. It was almost like the compiler wasn't seeing the property definitions. If I turn off "strict mode", the app compiles, but then I get this error: ArgumentError: Error #1063: Argument count mismatch on World(). Expected 2, got 0. Now, World is a class in the FlashPunk package. In the class definition for it, the constructor does not expect any arguments: public function World() { ... ...and yet, for some reason, Flash is expecting two arguments. So it appears that everything is correct, but Flash is somehow expecting something different than what World's constructor defines. These two issues combined makes it seem like Flash is getting some other phantom version of another class called "World" which has two constructor arguments and different properties. I've gone in and checked the ActionScript settings. The only external-to-project stuff referenced is the default "$(AppConfig)/ActionScript 3.0/libs". And I'm not using any of my own code other than a single "Main.as" file that super's Engine to set a few parameters - certainly, there's no new World class. With a generic name like "World", I thought perhaps this is a reserved class name within Flash or something, maybe imported from the default libs mentioned above, but some Googling turning up empty seems to put the lie to that. Any idea what might be going on?

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  • Relation between HTTP Keep Alive duration and TCP timeout duration

    - by Suresh Kumar
    I am trying to understand the relation between TCP/IP and HTTP timeout values. Are these two timeout values different or same? Most Web servers allow users to set the HTTP Keep Alive timeout value through some configuration. How is this value used by the Web servers? is this value just set on the underlying TCP/IP socket i.e is the HTTP Keep Alive timeout and TCP/IP Keep Alive Timeout same? or are they treated differently? My understanding is (maybe incorrect): The Web server uses the default timeout on the underlying TCP socket (i.e. indefinite) regardless of the configured HTTP Keep Alive timeout and creates a Worker thread that counts down the specified HTTP timeout interval. When the Worker thread hits zero, it closes the connection. EDIT: My question is about the relation or difference between the two timeout durations i.e. what will happen when HTTP keep-alive timeout duration and the timeout on the Socket (SO_TIMEOUT) which the Web server uses is different? should I even worry about these two being same or not?

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  • Call bindings for DependencyObject when DependencyProperites are changed

    - by melculetz
    Is there a way to notify a DependencyObject's bindinigs when the inner DependencyProperties have changed? For example, I have this class: public class BackgroundDef : DependencyObject { public static readonly DependencyProperty Color1Property = DependencyProperty.Register("Color1", typeof(Color), typeof(Background), new UIPropertyMetadata(Colors.White)); public static readonly DependencyProperty UseBothColorsProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("UseBothColors", typeof(bool), typeof(Background), new UIPropertyMetadata(false)); public static readonly DependencyProperty Color2Property = DependencyProperty.Register("Color2", typeof(Color), typeof(Background), new UIPropertyMetadata(Colors.White)); public Color Color1 { set { SetValue(Color1Property, value); } get { return (Color)GetValue(Color1Property); } } public bool UseBothColors { set { SetValue(UseBothColorsProperty, value); } get { return (bool)GetValue(UseBothColorsProperty); } } public Color Color2 { set { SetValue(Color2Property, value); } get { return (Color)GetValue(Color2Property); } } } For which I have 3 separate two-way bindings that set the values for Color1, Color2 and UseBothColors. But I also have a binding for a BackgroundDef instance, which should create a Brush and draw the background of a button (either a single color, or two gradient colors). My problem is that the two-way bindings for the DependencyProperties update the properties, but the binding for the class instance is not called, as apparently the entire object does not change. Any idea how I could call the bindings for the DependencyObject when the DependencyProperties are changed?

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  • C# Find and Replace RegEx with wildcard search and addition of value

    - by fraXis
    Hello, The below code is from my other questions that I have asked here on SO. Everyone has been so helpful and I almost have a grasp with regards to RegEx but I ran into another hurdle. This is what I basically need to do in a nutshell. I need to take this line that is in a text file that I load into my content variable: X17.8Y-1.Z0.1G0H1E1 I need to do a wildcard search for the X value, Y value, Z value, and H value. When I am done, I need this written back to my text file (I know how to create the text file so that is not the problem). X17.8Y-1.G54G0T2 G43Z0.1H1M08 I have code that the kind users here have given me, except I need to create the T value at the end of the first line, and use the value from the H and increment it by 1 for the T value. For example: X17.8Y-1.Z0.1G0H5E1 would translate as: X17.8Y-1.G54G0T6 G43Z0.1H5M08 The T value is 6 because the H value is 5. I have code that does everything (does two RegEx functions and separates the line of code into two new lines and adds some new G values). But I don't know how to add the T value back into the first line and increment it by 1 of the H value. Here is my code: StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(fDialog.FileName.ToString()); string content = reader.ReadToEnd(); reader.Close(); content = Regex.Replace(content, @"X[-\d.]+Y[-\d.]+", "$0G54G0"); content = Regex.Replace(content, @"(Z(?:\d*\.)?\d+)[^H]*G0(H(?:\d*\.)?\d+)\w*", "\nG43$1$2M08"); //This must be created on a new line This code works great at taking: X17.8Y-1.Z0.1G0H5E1 and turning it into: X17.8Y-1.G54G0 G43Z0.1H5M08 but I need it turned into this: X17.8Y-1.G54G0T6 G43Z0.1H5M08 (notice the T value is added to the first line, which is the H value +1 (T = H + 1). Can someone please modify my RegEx statement so I can do this automatically? I tried to combine my two RegEx statements into one line but I failed miserably. Thanks so much, Shawn

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  • cells order changes in UITableView after reloadSections: method

    - by user304895
    I'm having a problem using a grouped UITableView, and after 3 days of searching, I didn't found the solution... Actually, I have a Grouped table, composed of two sections : The first section contains a UISegmentedControl with three buttons : button0, button1 and button2. When clicking on the button0, I want to show two cells in the second section, with embedded UITextField in each cell. When clicking on the button1, I want to show one cell in the second section with an embedded UITextField. When clicking on the button2, I have to show the camera in ModalView (I think it will be ok). I've also put placeholders in each UITextField. Each time a button is clicked, I call a pickOne: method in order to update my view. In this method, I construct a NSIndexSet with NSRange of (1, 1), and then I call the reloadSections: method from the UITableViewController with NSIndexSet as a parameter. When the view appears for the first time, everything is ok, but when I click many times on the buttons, the order of the cells changes (cells containing the two textFields for the button0), and the new placeHolders are written over the old ones. Even more, sometimes when I click on the button0, it shows me only the second cell... Do you have any idea ? or need some code ? Thank you :)

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  • UITextView - text shifts out of view when editing

    - by Jeff
    I have a tableHeaderView with a UITextView in it. The view loads from a nib. The UITextView does not have any scrolling turned on. The reason I am using it is simply that it wraps text over two lines. I gave it just enough room to fit two lines of text. The data that I prepopulate works just fine, and is aligned in the center vertically whether it is two or one line. The problem is that when I edit the cell via the UI, the text shifts up to the point that the top half of it is cut off. When exiting editing, it stays this way. Not sure I have any relevant code to show, but hopefully the explanation makes sense. I can't seem to find anyone else having this issue and I cannot imagine what it could be. I've played around with turning scrolling on and off, toying with the size of the field, and everything else I could play with to no avail. Thanks Jeff

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  • optimize query: get al votes from user's item

    - by Toni Michel Caubet
    hi there! i did it my way because i'm very bad getting results from two tables... Basically, first i get all the id items that correspond to the user, and then i calculate the ratings of each item. But, there is two different types of object item, so i do this 2 times: show you: function votos_usuario($id){ $previa = "SELECT id FROM preguntas WHERE id_usuario = '$id'"; $r_previo = mysql_query($previa); $ids_p = '0, '; while($items_previos = mysql_fetch_array($r_previo)){ $ids_p .= $items_previos['id'].", "; //echo "ids pregunta usuario: ".$items_previos['id']."<br>"; } $ids = substr($ids_p,0,-2); //echo $ids; $consulta = "SELECT valor FROM votos_pregunta WHERE id_pregunta IN ( $ids )"; //echo $consulta; $resultado = mysql_query($consulta); $votos_preguntas = 0; while($voto = mysql_fetch_array($resultado)){ $votos_preguntas = $votos_preguntas + $voto['valor']; } $previa_r = "SELECT id FROM recetas WHERE id_usuario = '$id'"; $r_previo_r = mysql_query($previa_r); $ids_r = '0, '; while($items_previos_r = mysql_fetch_array($r_previo_r)){ $ids_r .= $items_previos_r['id'].", "; //echo "ids pregunta usuario: ".$items_previos['id']."<br>"; } $ids = substr($ids_r,0,-2); $consulta_b = "SELECT valor FROM votos_receta WHERE id_receta IN ( $ids )"; //echo $consulta; $resultado_b = mysql_query($consulta_b); $votos_recetas = 0; while($voto_r = mysql_fetch_array($resultado_b)){ $votos_recetas = $votos_recetas + $voto_r['valor']; } $total = $votos_preguntas + $votos_recetas; return $total; } As you can si this is two much.. O(n^2) Feel like thinking? thanks!

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