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• SEO Problem for new dictionary site, google hasn't indexed content.

  - by John

  I loaded about 15,000 pages, letters A & B of a dictionary and submitted to google a text site map. I'm using google's search with advertisement as the planned mechanism to go through my site. Google's webmaster accepted the site mapps as good but then did not index. My index page has been indexed by google and at this point have not linked to any pages. So to get google's search to work I need to get all my content indexed. It appears google will not just index from the site map and so I was thinking of adding pages that spider in links from the main index page. But I don't want to create a bunch of pages that programicly link all of the pages without knowing if this has a chance to work. Eventually I plan on having about 150,000 pages each page being a word or phrase being defined. I wrote a program that is pulling this from a dictionary database. I would like to prove the content that I have to anyone interested to show the value of the dictionary in releation to the dictionary software that I'm completing. Suggestions for getting the entire site indexed by google so I can appear in the search results? Thanks

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• Should I put actors in the Domain-Model/Class-Diagram?

  - by devoured elysium

  When designing both the domain-model and class-diagrams I am having some trouble understanding what to put in them. I'll give an example of what I mean: I am doing a vacations scheduler program, that has an Administrator and End-Users. The Administrator does a couple of things like registering End-Users in the program, changing their previleges, etc. The End-User can choose his vacations days, etc. I initially defined an Administrator and End-User as concepts in the domain-model, and later as classes in the class-diagram. In the class-diagram, both classes ended up having a couple of methods like Administrator.RegisterNewUser(); Administrator.UnregisterUser(int id); etc. Only after some time I realised that actually both Administrator and End-User are actors, and maybe I got this design totally wrong. Instead of filling Administrator and End-User classes with methods to do what my Use-Cases request, I could define other classes from the domain to do them, and have controllers handle the Use-Cases(actually, I decided to do one for each Use-Case). I could have a UserDatabase.RegisterNewUser() and UserDatabase.UnregisterUser(int id);, for example, instead of having those methods on the Administrator class. The idea would be to try to think of the whole vacation-scheduler as a "closed-program" that has a set of features and doesn't bother with things such as authentication, that should be internal/protected, being that the only public things I'd let the outside world see would be its controllers. Is this the right approach? Or am I getting this totally wrong? Is it generally bad idea to put Actors in the domain-model/class-diagrams? What are good rules of thumb for this? My lecturer is following Applying UML and Patterns, which I find awful, so I'd like to know where I could look up more info on this described actor-models situation. I'm still a bit confused about all of this, as this new approach is radically different from anything I've done before.

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• understanding and implementing Boids

  - by alphablender

  So I'm working on porting Boids to Brightscript, based on the pseudocode here: http://www.kfish.org/boids/pseudocode.html I'm trying to understand the data structures involved, for example is Velocity a single value, or is it a 3D value, ie velocity={x,y,z} It seems as if the pseudocode seems to mix this up where sometimes it has an equation that incudes both vectors and single-value items: v1 = rule1(b) v2 = rule2(b) v3 = rule3(b) b.velocity = b.velocity + v1 + v2 + v3 If Velocity is a tripartite value then this would make sense, but I'm not sure. So my first question here is, is this the correct datastructure for a single boid based on the Pseudocode on that page: boid={position:{px:0,py:0,pz:0},velocity:{x:0,y:0,z:0},vector:{x:0,y:0,z:0},pc:{x:0,y:0,z:0},pv:{x:0,y:0,z:0}) where pc=perceived center, pv= perceived velocity I"ve implemented a vector_add, vector_sub, vector_div, and vector boolean functions. The reason I'm starting from this pseudocode is I've not been able to find anything else that is as readable, but it still leaves me with lots of questions as the data structures are not explicitly defined for each variable. (edit) here's a good example of what i'm talking about: IF |b.position - bJ.position| < 100 THEN if b.position - b[j].position are both 3D coordinates, how can they be considered "less than 100" unless they are < {100,100,100} ? Maybe that is what I need to do here, use a vector comparison function?

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• Implementing comparision operators via 'tuple' and 'tie', a good idea?

  - by Xeo

  (Note: tuple and tie can be taken from Boost or C++11.) When writing small structs with only two elements, I sometimes tend to choose a std::pair, as all important stuff is already done for that datatype, like operator< for strict-weak-ordering. The downsides though are the pretty much useless variable names. Even if I myself created that typedef, I won't remember 2 days later what first and what second exactly was, especially if they are both of the same type. This gets even worse for more than two members, as nesting pairs pretty much sucks. The other option for that is a tuple, either from Boost or C++11, but that doesn't really look any nicer and clearer. So I go back to writing the structs myself, including any needed comparision operators. Since especially the operator< can be quite cumbersome, I thought of circumventing this whole mess by just relying on the operations defined for tuple: Example of operator<, e.g. for strict-weak-ordering: bool operator<(MyStruct const& lhs, MyStruct const& rhs){ return std::tie(lhs.one_member, lhs.another, lhs.yet_more) < std::tie(rhs.one_member, rhs.another, rhs.yet_more); } (tie makes a tuple of T& references from the passed arguments.) Edit: The suggestion from @DeadMG to privately inherit from tuple isn't a bad one, but it got quite some drawbacks: If the operators are free-standing (possibly friends), I need to inherit publicly With casting, my functions / operators (operator= specifically) can be easily bypassed With the tie solution, I can leave out certain members if they don't matter for the ordering Are there any drawbacks in this implementation that I need to consider?

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• Magento, 1 db field not saved

  - by david parloir

  Hi there, I have a problem with 1 field of the db. With this code: $expireMonth = Mage::getStoreConfig('points_options/config_points/expiration_period', Mage::app()->getStore()->getId()); if (!is_null($expireMonth) && ($expireMonth > 0)) { $expireDate = date("Y-m-d H:i:s", strtotime("+" . $expireMonth . " month")); } else { $expireDate = NULL; } //die($expireDate); //store in points history table $this->_pointsModel->setCustomerId($this->_customer->getId()) ->setOrdersId('welcome') ->setPointsPending($pointsForNewCustomer) ->setPointsComment(Mage::helper('points')->__('welcome points')) ->setDateAdded(date('Y-m-d H:i:s')) ->setPointsStatus(2)//confirmed ->setPointsType('WE') ->setStoreId(Mage::app()->getStore()->getId()) ->setExpireDate($expireDate) ->save(); every field is saved in the table, except for expire_date. If I uncoment the die($expireData), I see the correct value, something like 2012-01-13 13:21:12. The filed is defined as: `expire_date` datetime NULL Any thaughts? edit: the solution is: $expireDate = date("Y-m-d H:i:s", strtotime("+" . $expireMonth . " months")); check out the "s" in my strtotime expression

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• C++ STL question related to insert iterators and sets

  - by rshepherd

  #include #include #include #include using namespace std; class MyContainer { public: string value; MyContainer& operator=(const string& s) { this->value = s; return *this; } }; int main() { list<string> strings; strings.push_back("0"); strings.push_back("1"); strings.push_back("2"); set<MyContainer> containers; copy(strings.begin(), strings.end(), inserter(containers, containers.end())); } The preceeding code does not compile. In typical STL style the error output is verbose and difficult to understand. The key part seems to be this... /usr/include/c++/4.4/bits/stl_algobase.h:313: error: no match for ‘operator=’ in ‘__result.std::insert_iterator::operator* [with _Container = std::set, std::allocator ]() = __first.std::_List_iterator::operator* [with _Tp = std::basic_string, std::allocator ]()’ ...which I interpet to mean that the assignment operator needed is not defined. I took a look at the source code for insert_iterator and noted that it has overloaded the assignment operator. The copy algorithm must uses the insert iterators overloaded assignment operator to do its work(?). I guess that because my input iterator is on a container of strings and my output iterator is on a container of MyContainers that the overloaded insert_iterator assignment operator can no longer work. This is my best guess, but I am probably wrong. So, why exactly does this not work and how can I accomplish what I am trying to do?

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• Error using maven profiles

  - by user3127896

  I've added two profiles to my application and that how it looks: <profiles> <profile> <id>dev</id> <properties> <db.username>root</db.username> <db.password>root</db.password> <db.connectionURL>localhost:3306</db.connectionURL> <db.driverClass>com.mysql.jdbc.Driver</db.driverClass> </properties> </profile> <profile> <id>prod</id> <properties> <db.username>prodroot</db.username> <db.password>prodpass</db.password> <db.connectionURL>localhost:3306</db.connectionURL> <db.driverClass>com.mysql.jdbc.Driver</db.driverClass> </properties> </profile> </profiles> In my jdbc.properties file i changed values like this: jdbc.driverClassName=${db.driverClass} jdbc.dialect=org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect jdbc.databaseurl=jdbc:mysql://${db.connectionURL}/dbname jdbc.username=${db.username} jdbc.password=${db.password} And here's bean from spring-container.xml <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" p:driverClassName="${jdbc.driverClassName}" p:url="${jdbc.databaseurl}" p:username="${jdbc.username}" p:password="${jdbc.password}" /> When i try to deploy my application i got following error: SEVERE: Exception sending context initialized event to listener instance of class org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Invalid bean definition with name 'dataSource' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/spring-servlet.xml]: Could not resolve placeholder 'db.driverClass' Structure of project: Any ideas what i'm doing wrong? Thanks in advance!

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• How to move positions within an array?

  - by Jade Mulholland

  A program that simply moves array elements. Two variables: userInputVariable and blankSpaceVariable. I have a 2D array named table. Defined as table[userInputVariable + 1][6] I am printing out this array in a table format, and the far left column is numbered by whatever number the user entered at the beginning of the program. I then ask the user where they would like to enter a blank space within the array. This blank space acts like a divider for all the other information in the array. For example, if the user enters 10 at the start for the userInputVariable, and then enters 5 for the blank space. Once printed, the numbers should go like this: 1, 2, 3, 4, --, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10. My plan has been to create a for loop and try to move all the numbers in the array back a position starting from the blank space variable. What I currently have, but does not work: for (int i = blankSpaceVariable; i < table.length - 1; i++) { table[i] = table[i + 1]; } table[blankSpaceVariable] = "--"; With my current code, the numbers go like this: 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 Tried completing this a few different ways also, but the other info within my 2D array didn't move with the numbers. So I thought that this approach can hopefully move all the info within my 2D array down, and make way for a blank section. All help is greatly appreciated!

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• C++ STL question related to insert iterators and overloaded operators

  - by rshepherd

  #include <list> #include <set> #include <iterator> #include <algorithm> using namespace std; class MyContainer { public: string value; MyContainer& operator=(const string& s) { this->value = s; return *this; } }; int main() { list<string> strings; strings.push_back("0"); strings.push_back("1"); strings.push_back("2"); set<MyContainer> containers; copy(strings.begin(), strings.end(), inserter(containers, containers.end())); } The preceeding code does not compile. In standard C++ fashion the error output is verbose and difficult to understand. The key part seems to be this... /usr/include/c++/4.4/bits/stl_algobase.h:313: error: no match for ‘operator=’ in ‘__result.std::insert_iterator::operator* [with _Container = std::set, std::allocator ]() = __first.std::_List_iterator::operator* [with _Tp = std::basic_string, std::allocator ]()’ ...which I interpet to mean that the assignment operator needed is not defined. I took a look at the source code for insert_iterator and noted that it has overloaded the assignment operator. The copy algorithm must uses the insert iterators overloaded assignment operator to do its work(?). I guess that because my input iterator is on a container of strings and my output iterator is on a container of MyContainers that the overloaded insert_iterator assignment operator can no longer work. This is my best guess, but I am probably wrong. So, why exactly does this not work and how can I accomplish what I am trying to do?

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• Joining tables with composite keys in a legacy system in hibernate

  - by Steve N

  Hi, I'm currently trying to create a pair of Hibernate annotated classes to load (read only) from a pair of tables in a legacy system. The legacy system uses a consistent (if somewhat dated) approach to keying tables. The tables I'm attempting to map are as follows: Customer CustomerAddress -------------------------- ---------------------------- customerNumber:string (pk) customerNumber:string (pk_1) name:string sequenceNumber:int (pk_2) street:string postalCode:string I've approached this by creating a CustomerAddress class like this: @Entity @Table(name="CustomerAddress") @IdClass(CustomerAddressKey.class) public class CustomerAddress { @Id @AttributeOverrides({ @AttributeOverride(name = "customerNumber", column = @Column(name="customerNumber")), @AttributeOverride(name = "sequenceNumber", column = @Column(name="sequenceNumber")) }) private String customerNumber; private int sequenceNumber; private String name; private String postalCode; ... } Where the CustomerAddressKey class is a simple Serializable object with the two key fields. The Customer object is then defined as: @Entity @Table(name = "Customer") public class Customer { private String customerNumber; private List<CustomerAddress> addresses = new ArrayList<CustomerAddress>(); private String name; ... } So, my question is: how do I express the OneToMany relationship on the Customer table?

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• Why won't JPA delete owned entities when the owner entity loses the reference to them?

  - by Nick

  Hi! I've got a JPA entity "Request", that owns a List of Answers (also JPA entities). Here's how it's defined in Request.java: @OneToMany(cascade= CascadeType.ALL, mappedBy="request") private List<Answer> answerList; And in Answer.java: @JoinColumn(name = "request", referencedColumnName="id") @ManyToOne(optional = false) private Request request; In the course of program execution, the Request's List of Answers may have Answers added or removed from it, or the actual List object may be replaced. My problem is thus: when I merge a Request to the database, the Answer objects that used to be in the List are kept in the database -- that is, Answer objects that the Request no longer holds a reference to (indirectly, via a List) are not deleted. This is not the behaviour I desire, as if I merge a Request to the database, and then fetch it again, its Answers List may not be the same. Am I making some programming mistake? Is there an annotaion or setting that will ensure that the Answers in the database are exactly the Answers in the Request's List? A solution is to keep references to the original Answers List and then use the EntityManager to remove each old Answer before merging the Request, but it seems like there should be a cleaner way. Thank you!

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• Weird Rails database errors

  - by Jason Swett

  I've had some trouble getting my Rails app to connect to PostgreSQL so I decided to just say screw it and use SQLite for now. (I'm using the tutorial here: http://guides.rubyonrails.org/getting_started.html) I started a BRAND NEW, fresh Rails app from this tutorial. When I visit my app in the browser after deleting public/index.html, I get this the first time: Please install the pg adapter: `gem install activerecord-pg-adapter` (no such file to load -- active_record/connection_adapters/pg_adapter) That's odd to me because I'm not mentioning PostgreSQL anywhere. Here's my databases.yml: # SQLite version 3.x # gem install sqlite3-ruby (not necessary on OS X Leopard) development: adapter: sqlite3 database: db/development.sqlite3 pool: 5 timeout: 5000 # Warning: The database defined as "test" will be erased and # re-generated from your development database when you run "rake". # Do not set this db to the same as development or production. test: adapter: sqlite3 database: db/test.sqlite3 pool: 5 timeout: 5000 production: adapter: sqlite3 database: db/production.sqlite3 pool: 5 timeout: 5000 To make things more confusing, I only get that "pg adapter" error on the first load. For every subsequent page request, I get this error: ActiveRecord::ConnectionNotEstablished So even though I removed all mention of PostgreSQL, I'm still getting errors. What could be going on?

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• Importing a C DLL's functions into a C++ program

  - by bobobobo

  I have a 3rd party library that's written in C. It exports all of its functions to a DLL. I have the .h file, and I'm trying to load the DLL from my C++ program. The first thing I tried was surrounding the parts where I #include the 3rd party lib in #ifdef __cplusplus extern "C" { #endif and, at the end #ifdef __cplusplus } // extern "C" #endif But the problem there was, all of the DLL file function linkage looked like this in their header files: a_function = (void *)GetProcAddress(dll, "a_function"); While really a_function had type int (*a_function) (int *). Apparently MSVC++ compiler doesn't like this, while MSVC compiler does not seem to mind. So I went through (brutal torture) and fixed them all to the pattern typedef int (*_a_function) (int *); _a_function a_function ; Then, to link it to the DLL code, in main(): a_function = (_a_function)GetProcAddress(dll, "a_function"); This SEEMS to make the compiler MUCH, MUCH happier, but it STILL complains with this final set of 143 errors, each saying for each of the DLL link attempts: error LNK2005: _a_function already defined in main.obj main.obj Multiple symbol definition errors.. sounds like a job for extern! SO I went and made ALL the function pointer declarations as follows: function_pointers.h typedef int (*_a_function) (int *); extern _a_function a_function ; And in a cpp file: function_pointers.cpp #include "function_pointers.h" _a_function a_function ; ALL fine and dandy.. except for linker errors now of the form: error LNK2001: unresolved external symbol _a_function main.obj Main.cpp includes "function_pointers.h", so it should know where to find each of the functions.. I am bamboozled. Does any one have any pointers to get me functional? (Pardon the pun..)

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• Can't declare an abstract method private....

  - by Zombies

  I want to do this, yet I can't. Here is my scenario and rational. I have an abstract class for test cases that has an abstract method called test(). The test() method is to be defined by the subclass; it is to be implemented with logic for a certain application, such as CRMAppTestCase extends CompanyTestCase. I don't want the test() method to be invoked directly, I want the super class to call the test() method while the sub class can call a method which calls this (and does other work too, such as setting a current date-time right before the test is executed for example). Example code: public abstract class CompanyTestCase { //I wish this would compile, but it cannot be declared private private abstract void test(); public TestCaseResult performTest() { //do some work which must be done and should be invoked whenever //this method is called (it would be improper to expect the caller // to perform initialization) TestCaseResult result = new TestCaseResult(); result.setBeginTime(new Date()); long time = System.currentTimeMillis(); test(); //invoke test logic result.setDuration(System.currentTimeMillis() - time); return result; } } Then to extend this.... public class CRMAppTestCase extends CompanyTestCase { public void test() { //test logic here } } Then to call it.... TestCaseResult result = new CRMAppTestCase().performTest();

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• C# Automatic Properties - Still null after +=?

  - by Sam Schutte

  This seems like a bug to me... I accept that automatic properties, defined as such: public decimal? Total { get; set; } Will be null when they are first accessed. They haven't been initialized, so of course they are null. But, even after setting their value through +=, this decimal? still remains null. So after: Total += 8; Total is still null. How can this be correct? I understand that it's doing a (null + 8), but seems strange that it doesn't pick up that it means it should just be set to 8... Addendums: I made the "null + 8" point in my question - but notice that it works with strings. So, it does null + "hello" just fine, and returns "hello". Therefore, behind the scenes, it is initializing the string to a string object with the value of "hello". The behavior should be the same for the other types, IMO. It might be because a string can accept a null as a value, but still, a null string is not an initialized object, correct? Perhaps it's just because a string isn't a nullable...

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• short-cutting equality checking in F#?

  - by John Clements

  In F#, the equality operator (=) is generally extensional, rather than intensional. That's great! Unfortunately, it appears to me that F# does not use pointer equality to short-cut these extensional comparisons. For instance, this code: type Z = MT | NMT of Z ref // create a Z: let a = ref MT // make it point to itself: a := NMT a // check to see whether it's equal to itself: printf "a = a: %A\n" (a = a) ... gives me a big fat segmentation fault[*], despite the fact that 'a' and 'a' both evaluate to the same reference. That's not so great. Other functional languages (e.g. PLT Scheme) get this right, using pointer comparisons conservatively, to return 'true' when it can be determined using a pointer comparison. So: I'll accept the fact that F#'s equality operator doesn't use short-cutting; is there some way to perform an intensional (pointer-based) equality check? The (==) operator is not defined on my types, and I'd love it if someone could tell me that it's available somehow. Or tell me that I'm wrong in my analysis of the situation: I'd love that, too... [*] That would probably be a stack overflow on Windows; there are things about Mono that I'm not that fond of...

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• How to avoid notice in php when one of the conditions is not true

  - by user225269

  I've notice that when one of the two conditions in a php if statement is not true. You get an undefined index notice for the statement that is not true. And the result in my case is a distorted web page. For example, this code: <?php session_start(); if (!isset($_SESSION['loginAdmin']) && ($_SESSION['loginAdmin'] != '')) { header ("Location: loginam.php"); } else { include('head2.php'); } if (!isset($_SESSION['login']) && ($_SESSION['login'] != '')) { header ("Location: login.php"); } else { include('head3.php'); } ?> If one of the if statements is not true. The one that is not true will give you a notice that it is undefined. In my case it says that the session 'login' is not defined. If session 'LoginAdmin' is used. What can you recommend that I would do in order to avoid these undefined index notice.

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• SSIS Expressions - EvaluateAsExpression Problem

  - by Randy Minder

  In a Data Flow, I have an Derived Column task. In the expression for one of the columns, I have the following expression: [siteid] == "100" ? "1101" : [siteid] == "110" ? "1001" : [siteid] == "120" ? "2101" : [siteid] == "140" ? "1102" : [siteid] == "210" ? "2001" : [siteid] == "310" ? "3001" : [siteid] This works just fine. However, I intend to reuse this in at least a dozen other places so I want to store this to a variable and use the variable in the Derived Column instead of the hard-coded expression. When I attempt to create a variable, using the expression above, I get a syntax error saying 'siteid' is not defined. I guess this makes sense because it isn't. But how can I get this the expression to work by using a variable? It seems like I need some sort of way to tell it that 'siteid' will be the column containing the data I want to apply the expression to.

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• Query with UDF works in Access but gives Undefined function in expression (Err 3085) in Excel

  - by ronwest

  I have an Access table with a date/time field. I wanted to make a composite Key field out of the date/time field and 3 other text fields in the same format as the matching Key field in another database. So I concatenated the 3 text fields and wrote a User-Defined-Function in a Module to output the date field as a string in the format "YYYYMMDD". Public Function YYYYMMDD(dteDate As Date) As String YYYYMMDD = Format(dteDate, "YYYYMMDD") End Function I can then successfully run my queries in Access and it all works fine. But when I set up some DAO code in Excel and try to run the query that works fine within Access... db.Execute "qryMake_tblValsDailyAccount" ...Excel gives me the "Undefined function in expression. (Error 3085)" error. To me this is a bug in Excel and/or Access, because the (Excel) client shouldn't need to know anything about the internal calculations that normally take place perfectly in the (Access) server when in isolation. Excel should send the querydef (name with no parameters) to the server, let the server do its work then receive the answers. Why does it need to get involved with a function internal to the server? Does anyone know a way around this?

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• Querying using table-valued parameter

  - by antmx

  I need help please with writing a sproc, it takes a table-valued parameter @Locations, whose Type is defined as follows: CREATE TYPE [dbo].[tvpLocation] AS TABLE( [CountryId] [int] NULL, [ResortName] [nvarchar](100) NULL, [Ordinal] [int] NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Ordinal] ASC )WITH (IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF) ) @Locations will contain at least 1 row. Each row WILL have a non-null CountryId, and MAY have a non-null ResortName. Each row will have a unique Ordinal, the first being 0. The combinations of CountryId and ResortName in @Locations will be unique. The sproc needs to search against the following table structure. The image can be seen better by right-clicking it and View Image, or similar depending on your browser. Now this is where I'm stuck, the sproc should be able to find Tours where: The Tour's 1st TourHotel (Ordinal 0) has the same CountryId (and ResortName if specified) of the 1st row of @Locations (Ordinal 0). And also if @Locations has 1 row, the Tour must have additional TourHotels, ALL of which must be in the remaining CountryIds (and ResortNames if specified) of these remaining @Locations rows. Edit This is the code I finally used, based on Anthony Faull's suggestion. Thank you so much Anthony: select distinct T.Id from tblTour T join tblTourHotel TH on TH.TourId = T.Id join tblHotel H ON H.Id = TH.HotelId JOIN @Locations L ON ( ( L.Ordinal = 0 AND TH.Ordinal = 0 ) OR ( L.Ordinal > 0 AND TH.Ordinal > 0 ) ) AND L.CountryId = H.CountryId AND ( L.ResortName = H.ResortName OR L.ResortName IS NULL ) cross apply( select COUNT(TH2.Id) AS [Count] FROM tblTourHotel TH2 where TH2.TourId = TH.TourId ) TourHotelCount where TourHotelCount.[Count] = @LocationCount group by T.Id, T.TourRef, T.Description, T.DepartureDate, T.NumNights, T.DepartureAirportId, T.DestinationAirportId, T.AirlineId, T.FEPrice having COUNT(distinct TH.Id) = @LocationCount

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• Javascript OOP - accessing the inherited property or function from a closure within a subclass

  - by Ali

  Hi All, I am using the javascript inheritance helper provided here: http://ejohn.org/blog/simple-javascript-inheritance/ I have the following code, and I have problem accessing the inherited property or function from a closure within a subclass as illustrated below. I am new to OOP javascript code and I appreciate your advice. I suppose within the closure, the context changes to JQuery (this variable) hence the problem. I appreciate your comments. Thanks, -A PS - Using JQuery 1.5 var Users = Class.extend({ init: function(names){this.names = names;} }); var HomeUsers = Users.extend({ work:function(){ // alert(this.names.length); // PRINTS A // var names = this.names; // If I make a local alias it works $.map([1,2,3],function(){ var newName = this.names.length; //error this.names is not defined. alert(newName); }); } }); var users = new HomeUsers(["A"]); users.work();

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• WPF Databinding With A Collection Object

  - by Randster

  Argh, although I've been googling, I really would appreciate it if someone could break my problem down as all the code examples online are confusing me more than assisting (perhaps it's just late)... I have a simple class as defined below: public class Person { int _id; string _name; public Person() { } public int ID { get { return _id; } set { _id = value; } } public string Name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; } } } that is stored in a database, and thru a bit more code I put it into an ObservableCollection object to attempt to databind in WPF later on: public class People : ObservableCollection<Person> { public People() : base() { } public void Add(List<Person> pListOfPeople) { foreach (Person p in pListOfPeople) this.Add(p); } } In XAML, I have myself a ListView that I would like to populate a ListViewItem (consisting of a textblock) for each item in the "People" object as it gets updated from the database. I would also like that textblock to bind to the "Name" property of the Person object. I thought at first that I could do this: lstPeople.DataContext = objPeople; where lstPeople is my ListView control in my XAML, but that of course does nothing. I've found TONS of examples online where people through XAML create an object and then bind to it through their XAML; but not one where we bind to an instantiated object and re-draw accordingly. Could someone please give me a few pointers on: A) How to bind a ListView control to my instantiated "People" collection object? B) How might I apply a template to my ListView to format it for the objects in the collection? Even links to a decent example (not one operating on an object declared in XAML please) would be appreciated. Thanks for your time.

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• (Android) Why won't invalidate() update my buttons immediately?

  - by frustrated user

  I have read several forums and examples on using invalidate() in order to update views immediately but I still do not understand why what I am doing will not work. The code below uses image buttons defined by "red", "blue", "green", and "yellow". I set a 1 second delay between each time I try and change a button's appearance. Please someone tell me what i'm doing wrong. private void showPattern() { if (correct == true) { for (int k = 0; k < temp_basket.length; k++) { if (temp_basket[k] == 0) { red.setPressed(true); red.invalidate(); final Handler handler = new Handler(); Timer t = new Timer(); t.schedule(new TimerTask() { public void run() { handler.post(new Runnable() { public void run() { red.setPressed(false); red.invalidate(); } }); } }, 1000); There are 3 more or these blocks after this one that are blue, green, and yellow.

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• "error: Expected a type, got 'classname'" in C++

  - by Bay

  Using the following code: template <typename T> class node { [. . .] }; class b_graph { friend istream& operator>> (istream& in, b_graph& ingraph); friend ostream& operator<< (ostream& out, b_graph& outgraph); public: [...] private: vector<node> vertices; //This line I'm getting: error: type/value mismatch at argument 1 in template parameter list for ‘template<class _Tp, class _Alloc> class std::vector’ error: expected a type, got 'node' error: template argument 2 is invalid On the indicated line. Node is clearly defined before b_graph which uses it - what have I done here?

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• Multiple Foreign keys to a single table and single key pointing to more than one table

  - by user1216775

  I need some suggestions from the database design experts here. I have around six foreign keys into a single table (defect) which all point to primary key in user table. It is like: defect (.....,assigned_to,created_by,updated_by,closed_by...) If I want to get information about the defect I can make six joins. Do we have any better way to do it? Another one is I have a states table which can store one of the user-defined set of values. I have defect table and task table and I want both of these tables to share the common state table (New, In Progress etc.). So I created: task (.....,state_id,type_id,.....) defect(.....,state_id,type_id,...) state(state_id,state_name,...) importance(imp_id,imp_name,...) There are many such common attributes along with state like importance(normal, urgent etc), priority etc. And for all of them I want to use same table. I am keeping one flag in each of the tables to differentiate task and defect. What is the best solution in such a case? If somebody is using this application in health domain, they would like to assign different types, states, importances for their defect or tasks. Moreover when a user selects any project I want to display all the types,states etc under configuration parameters section.

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