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  • Maven best practice for generating multiple jars with different/filtered classes ?

    - by jaguard
    I developed a Java utility library (similarly to Apache Commons) that I use in various projects. Additionally to fat clients I also use it for mobile clients (PDA with J9 Foundation profile). In time the library that started as a single project spread over multiple packages. As a result I end up with a lot of functionality but not really needed in all the projects. Since this library is also used inside some mobile/PDA projects I need a way to collect just the used classes and generate the actual specialized jars Currently in the projects that area using this library, I have Ant jar tasks that generate (from the utility project) the specialized jar files (ex: my-util-1.0-pda.jar, my-util-1.0-rcp.jar) using include/exclude jar task features. This is mostly needed due to the generated jar size constraints for the mobile projects. Migrating now to Maven I just wonder if there are any best practices to arrive to something similar so I consider the following scenarios: [1] - additionally to the main jar artifact (my-lib-1.0.jar) also generating inside my-lib project the separate/specialized artifacts using classifiers (ex: my-lib-1.0-pda.jar) using Maven Jar Plugin or Maven Assembly Plugin filtering/includes ... I'm not very comfortable with this approach since it pollute the library with library consumers demands (filters) [2] - Create additional Maven projects for all the specialized clients/projects, that will "wrap" the "my-lib" and generate the filtered jar artifacts (ex: my-lib-wrapper-pda-1.0 ...etc). As a result, these wrapper projects will include the filtering (to generate the filtered artifact) and will depend just on the "my-lib" project and the client projects will depend on my-lib-wrapper-xxx-1.0 instead of my-lib-1.0. This approach my look problematic since even that will let "my-lib" project intact (with no additional classifiers & artifacts), basically will double the number of projects since for every client project I'll have one just to collect the needed classes from the "my-util" library ("my-pda-app" project will need a "my-lib-wrapper-for-my-pda-app" project/dependency) [3] - Into the every client project that use the library (ex: my-pda-app) add some specialized Maven plugins to trim - out (when generating the final artifact/package) the un-needed classes (ex: maven-assembly-plugin, maven-jar-plugin, proguard-maven-plugin) What is the best practice for solving this kind of problems in the "Maven way" ?!

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  • How to merge a "branch" that isn't really a branch (wasn't created by an svn copy)

    - by MatrixFrog
    I'm working on a team with lots of people who are pretty unfamiliar with the concepts of version control systems, and are just kind of doing whatever seems to work, by trial and error. Someone created a "branch" from the trunk that is not ancestrally related to the trunk. My guess is it went something like this: They created a folder in branches. They checked out all the code from the trunk to somewhere on their desktop. They added all that code to the newly created folder as though it was a bunch of brand new files. So the repository isn't aware that all that code is actually just a copy of the trunk. When I look at the history of that branch in TortoiseSVN, and uncheck the "Stop on copy/rename" box, there is no revision that has the trunk (or any other path) under the "Copy from path" column. Then they made lots of changes on their "branch". Meanwhile, others were making lots of changes on the trunk. We tried to do a merge and of course it doesn't work. Because, the trunk and the fake branch are not ancestrally related. I can see only two ways to resolve this: Go through the logs on the "branch", look at every change that was made, and manually apply each change to the trunk. Go through the logs on the trunk, look at every change that was made between revision 540 (when the "branch" was created) and HEAD, and manually apply each change to the "branch". This involves 7 revisions one way or 11 revisions the other way, so neither one is really that terrible. But is there any way to cause the repository to "realize" that the branch really IS ancestrally related even though it was created incorrectly, so that we can take advantage of the built-in merging functionality in Eclipse/TortoiseSVN? (You may be wondering: Why did your company hire these people and allow them to access the SVN repository without making sure they knew how to use it properly first?! We didn't -- this is a school assignment, which is a collaboration between two different classes -- the ones in the lower class were given a very quick hand-wavey "overview" of SVN which didn't really teach them anything. I've asked everyone in the group to please PLEASE read the svn book, and I'll make sure we (the slightly more experienced half of the team) keep a close eye on the repository to ensure this doesn't happen again.)

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  • Outlook Marking Email as Junk Email

    - by robertabead
    I know. I sound like a spammer but these emails are completely legitimate email confirmations for people that have signed up for an account on this website we developed. These emails all make it through to various mail providers (gmail, yahoo, aol, hotmail/live) but they always get directed into the Outlook Junk Email folder. I am have tried using Zend Framework mail, PEAR Mail and phpMailer. All of those methods result in the same thing happening. This seemed to start happening after Microsoft released their update to the Outlook Junk Email filter in January of this year. Following is the code in question: include_once('Mail.php'); include_once('Mail/mime.php'); $hdrs = array( 'From' => "Membership <[email protected]>", 'Subject' => 'Test Email', 'Reply-To'=> "[email protected]", 'Message-ID'=> "<" . str_pad(rand(0,12345678),8,'0',STR_PAD_LEFT) . "@mail.example.com>", 'Date'=> date("D, j M Y H:i:s O",time()), 'To'=> '[email protected]' ); $params = array('host'=>'mail.example.com','auth'=>false,'localhost' => 'www.example.com','debug'=>false); $crlf = "\n"; $mime = new Mail_mime($crlf); $mime->setTXTBody("TEST"); $mime->setHTMLBody("<html>\n<body>\nTest\n</body>\n</html>"); $body = $mime->get(); $hdrs = $mime->headers($hdrs); $mail =& Mail::factory('smtp',$params); $t=$mail->send('[email protected]', $hdrs, $body); As you can see we are using the PEAR Mail functionality in this test. This is the most basic test we could run and the above generated email gets dumped into the Outlook Junk Email folder. We have reverse DNS on the mail server and it matches the forward DNS, SPF and DKIM are set up and there is nothing "spammy" with the above content. Can anybody see something with the above code that could cause Outlook to mark it as Junk? Thanks!

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  • Adding ComboBoxItem to a combobox inside a user control (XAML/WPF)

    - by byte
    I am currently learning to create custom controls in WPF. I successfully created a simple custom control using a Label and a Text Box. I was able to allow setting the Label text by DependencyProperty. Now I am creating a user control that has a ComboBox. I need to allow adding items to this ComboBox from outside the control. To achieve this, I tried exposing a DependencyProperty of type ItemsCollection and it will allows access to the ComboBox's Items property (the DP in my control sample is named 'CbItems'). But I get errors because Items property of Combobox is ReadOnly. Control XAML <UserControl x:Class="MyWpfApp.Controls.MyControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Height="Auto" Width="Auto"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition /> <ColumnDefinition /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Label Grid.Column="0" Content="{Binding FieldLabel}"></Label> <ComboBox Name="cmb" Grid.Column="1" Width="150"></ComboBox> </Grid> </UserControl> MainWindow XAML <Window x:Class="MyWpfApp.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:ctl="clr-namespace:MyWpfApp.Controls" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <ctl:MyControl> <ctl:MyControl.CbItems> <ComboBoxItem>Hello</ComboBoxItem> <ComboBoxItem>World</ComboBoxItem> <ComboBoxItem>Hi</ComboBoxItem> </ctl:LobCombox.CbItems> </ctl:LobCombox> </Grid> </Window> I would like to know what the correct way is to achieve this functionality. I believe the answer to this might also help with other controls like GridView etc Many Thanks

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  • Cases of companies taking IP rights of your own personal projects developed outside company time

    - by GSS
    Hi, I have heard of cases where a developer working for a company is also making his own personal projects in his own time, using his own equipment yet the company he works for tries to claim ownership for the project. I really find this annoying, and bang out of order. It should also be illegal. I am in this position (work for a company and working on my own systems - from small class libraries used to practise what I learn in my exam revision to a large commercial-scale system). While I don't know if the company will try to take ownership, all I know is they say they do not want a conflict of interest. Fair enough, my system is developed in my own time using my own equipment. They also say that work time should be for work only, which it is. Funny thing that as work is so boring, easy and slow that I have plenty of free time, which I wish I could spend on something productive - said system. The problem is, my company does not take hiring technical talent seriously. This is my first job, I am a junior coder (but my status/position doesn't really reflect what I can do), but I am the only developer. Likewise with the guy who controls Windows Server. As the contract does not say anything about taking ownership, I would assume they would. They would try to milk my success (I've made a good impression so I am sure they would). How can this be allowed? Are there any examples of this happening to any fellow Stacker here? It really makes my blood boil. What I find funny is that my company hardly has the expertise and resources to even be able to successfully run a project of my size. What I do at work is an ASP.NET application consisting of five pages, and even then there are flaws in the project. If I told them that they would also have to take responsibility for flaws in the project, then they would think twice! It's exactly because of this I save the best code for myself and at work I write rubbish code full of code smells. The company don't really care about error handling, as long as the business functionality works (ie a scheduled email sends, but there is no error handling). They'd think twice when they see the embarassment and business cost of a YSOD...

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  • Can a View Controller manage more than 1 nib based view?

    - by Hugo Brynjar
    I have a VC controlling a screen of content that has 2 modes; a normal mode and an edit mode. Can I create a single VC with 2 views, each from separate nibs? In many situations on the iphone, you have a VC which controls an associated view. Then on a button press or other event, a new VC is loaded and its view becomes the top level view etc. But in this situation, I have 2 modes that I want to use the same VC for, because they are closely related. So I want a VC which can swap in/out 2 views. As per here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/863321/iphone-how-to-load-a-view-using-a-nib-file-created-with-interface-builder/2683153#2683153 I have found that I can load a VC with an associated view from a nib and then later on load a different view from another nib and make that new view the active view. NSArray *nibObjects = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"EditMode" owner:self options:nil]; UIView *theEditView = [nibObjects objectAtIndex:0]; self.editView = theEditView; [self.view addSubview:theEditView]; The secondary nib has outlets wired up to the VC like the primary nib. When the new nib is loaded, the outlets are all connected up fine and everything works nicely. Unfortunately when this edit view is then removed, there doesn't seem to be any elegant way of getting the outlets hooked up again to the (normal mode) view from the original nib. Nib loading and outlet setting seems a once only thing. So, if you want to have a VC that swaps in/out 2 views without creating a new VC, what are the options? 1) You can do everything in code, but I want to use nibs because it makes creating the UI simpler. 2) You have 1 nib for your VC and just hide/show elements using the hidden property of UIView and its subclasses. 3) You load a new nib as described above. This is fine for the new nib, but how do you sort the outlets when you go back to the original nib. 4) Give up and accept having a 1:1 between VCs and nibs. There is a nib for normal mode, a nib for edit mode and each mode has a VC that subclasses a common superclass. In the end, I went with 4) and it works, but requires a fair amount of extra work, because I have a model class that I instantiate in normal mode and then have to pass to the edit mode VC because both modes need access to the model. I'm also using NSTimer and have to start and stop the timer in each mode. It is because of all this shared functionality that I wanted a single VC with 2 nibs in the first place.

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  • NoSQL DB for .Net document-based database (ECM)

    - by Dane
    I'm halfway through coding a basic multi-tenant SaaS ECM solution. Each client has it's own instance of the database / datastore, but the .Net app is single instance. The documents are pretty much read only (i.e. an image archive of tiffs or PDFs) I've used MSSQL so far, but then started thinking this might be viable in a NoSQL DB (e.g. MongoDB, CouchDB). The basic premise is that it stores documents, each with their own particular indexes. Each tenant can have multiple document types. e.g. One tenant might have an invoice type, which has Customer ID, Invoice Number and Invoice Date. Another tenant might have an application form, which has Member Number, Application Number, Member Name, and Application Date. So far I've used the old method which Sharepoint (used?) to use, and created a document table which has int_field_1, int_field_2, date_field_1, date_field_2, etc. Then, I've got a "mapping" table which stores the customer specific index name, and the database field that will map to. I've avoided the key-value pair model in the DB due to volume of documents. This way, we can support multiple document types in the one table, and get reasonably high performance out of it, and allow for custom document type searches (i.e. user selects a document type, then they're presented with a list of search fields). However, a NoSQL DB might make this a lot simpler, as I don't need to worry about denormalizing the document. However, I've just got concerns about the rest of the data around a document. We store an "action history" against the document. This tracks views, whether someone emails the document from within the system, and other "future" functionality (e.g. faxing). We have control over the document load process, so we can manipulate the data however it needs to be to get it in the document store (e.g. assign unique IDs). Users will not be adding in their own documents, so we shouldn't need to worry about ACID compliance, as the documents are relatively static. So, my questions I guess : Is a NoSQL DB a good fit Is MongoDB the best for Asp.Net (I saw Raven and Velocity, but they're still kinda beta) Can I store a key for each document, and then store the action history in a MSSQL DB with this key? I don't need to do joins, it would be if a person clicks "View History" against a document. How would performance compare between the two (NoSQL DB vs denormalized "document" table) Volumes would be up to 200,000 new documents per month for a single tenant. My current scaling plan with the SQL DB involves moving the SQL DB into a cluster when certain thresholds are reached, and then reviewing partitioning and indexing structures.

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  • Potential issues using member's "from" address and the "sender" header

    - by Paul Burney
    Hi all, A major component of our application sends email to members on behalf of other members. Currently we set the "From" address to our system address and use a "Reply-to" header with the member's address. The issue is that replies from some email clients (and auto-replies/bounces) don't respect the "Reply-to" header so get sent to our system address, effectively sending them to a black hole. We're considering setting the "From" address to our member's address, and the "Sender" address to our system address. It appears this way would pass SPF and Sender-ID checks. Are there any reasons not to switch to this method? Are there any other potential issues? Thanks in advance, -Paul Here are way more details than you probably need: When the application was first developed, we just changed the "from" address to be that of the sending member as that was the common practice at the time (this was many years ago). We later changed that to have the "from" address be the member's name and our address, i.e., From: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> With a "reply-to" header set to the member's address: Reply-To: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> This helped with messages being mis-categorized as spam. As SPF became more popular, we added an additional header that would work in conjunction with our SPF records: Sender: <[email protected]> Things work OK, but it turns out that, in practice, some email clients and most MTA's don't respect the "Reply-To" header. Because of this, many members send messages to [email protected] instead of the desired member. So, I started envisioning various schemes to add data about the sender to the email headers or encode it in the "from" email address so that we could process the response and redirect appropriately. For example, From: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> where the string after "messages" is a hash representing Mary Smith's member in our system. Of course, that path could lead to a lot of pain as we need to develop MTA functionality for our system address. I was looking again at the SPF documentation and found this page interesting: http://www.openspf.org/Best_Practices/Webgenerated They show two examples, that of evite.com and that of egreetings.com. Basically, evite.com is doing it the way we're doing it. The egreetings.com example uses the member's from address with an added "Sender" header. So the question is, are there any potential issues with using the egreetings method of the member's from address with a sender header? That would eliminate the replies that bad clients send to the system address. I don't believe that it solves the bounce/vacation/whitelist issue since those often send to the MAIL FROM even if Return Path is specified.

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  • should I ever put a major version number into a C#/Java namespace?

    - by Andrew Patterson
    I am designing a set of 'service' layer objects (data objects and interface definitions) for a WCF web service (that will be consumed by third party clients i.e. not in-house, so outside my direct control). I know that I am not going to get the interface definition exactly right - and am wanting to prepare for the time when I know that I will have to introduce a breaking set of new data objects. However, the reality of the world I am in is that I will also need to run my first version simultaneously for quite a while. The first version of my service will have URL of http://host/app/v1service.svc and when the times comes by new version will live at http://host/app/v2service.svc However, when it comes to the data objects and interfaces, I am toying with putting the 'major' version of the interface number into the actual namespace of the classes. namespace Company.Product.V1 { [DataContract(Namespace = "company-product-v1")] public class Widget { [DataMember] string widgetName; } public interface IFunction { Widget GetWidgetData(int code); } } When the time comes for a fundamental change to the service, I will introduce some classes like namespace Company.Product.V2 { [DataContract(Namespace = "company-product-v2")] public class Widget { [DataMember] int widgetCode; [DataMember] int widgetExpiry; } public interface IFunction { Widget GetWidgetData(int code); } } The advantages as I see it are that I will be able to have a single set of code serving both interface versions, sharing functionality where possible. This is because I will be able to reference both interface versions as a distinct set of C# objects. Similarly, clients may use both interface versions simultaneously, perhaps using V1.Widget in some legacy code whilst new bits move on to V2.Widget. Can anyone tell why this is a stupid idea? I have a nagging feeling that this is a bit smelly.. notes: I am obviously not proposing every single new version of the service would be in a new namespace. Presumably I will do as many non-breaking interface changes as possible, but I know that I will hit a point where all the data modelling will probably need a significant rewrite. I understand assembly versioning etc but I think this question is tangential to that type of versioning. But I could be wrong.

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  • How can a test script inform R CMD check that it should emit a custom message?

    - by mariotomo
    I'm writing a R package (delftfews) here at office. we are using svUnit for unit testing. our process for describing new functionality: we define new unit tests, initially marked as DEACTIVATED; one block of tests at a time we activate them and implement the function described by the tests. almost all the time we have a small amount of DEACTIVATED tests, relative to functions that might be dropped or will be implemented. my problem/question is: can I alter the doSvUnit.R so that R CMD check pkg emits a NOTE (i.e. a custom message "NOTE" instead of "OK") in case there are DEACTIVATED tests? as of now, we see only that the active tests don't give error: . . * checking for unstated dependencies in tests ... OK * checking tests ... Running ‘doSvUnit.R’ OK * checking PDF version of manual ... OK which is all right if all tests succeed, but less all right if there are skipped tests and definitely wrong if there are failing tests. In this case, I'd actually like to see a NOTE or a WARNING like the following: . . * checking for unstated dependencies in tests ... OK * checking tests ... Running ‘doSvUnit.R’ NOTE 6 test(s) were skipped. WARNING 1 test(s) are failing. * checking PDF version of manual ... OK As of now, we have to open the doSvUnit.Rout to check the real test results. I contacted two of the maintainers at r-forge and CRAN and they pointed me to the sources of R, in particular the testing.R script. if I understand it correctly, to answer this question we need patching the tools package: scripts in the tests directory are called using a system call, output (stdout and stderr) go to one single file, there are two possible outcomes: ok or not ok, so I opened a change request on R, proposing something like bit-coding the return status, bit-0 for ERROR (as it is now), bit-1 for WARNING, bit-2 for NOTE. with my modification, it would be easy producing this output: . . * checking for unstated dependencies in tests ... OK * checking tests ... Running ‘doSvUnit.R’ NOTE - please check doSvUnit.Rout. WARNING - please check doSvUnit.Rout. * checking PDF version of manual ... OK Brian Ripley replied "There are however several packages with properly written unit tests that do signal as required. Please do take this discussion elsewhere: R-bugs is not the place to ask questions." and closed the change request. anybody has hints?

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  • Absolute reRendering using RichFaces

    - by wheelie
    Hey there, I am implementing copy/paste functionality for a complex object tree, this means you can copy an object and paste it where the object type is the same. Therefore I need to reRender the <a4j:commandLink>-s which are performing the paste action (so it will show on the GUI or not). Simplified example: Problem is that copy links are deep in the tree. How is it possible to reRender on a higher level in the component tree? (very)Simplified example: ... <h:form id="form1"> ... <a4j:commandLink value="Copy" reRender=":paste1, :paste2, :paste3" /> <a4j:commandLink id="paste1" value="Paste" rendered="#{myBean.myHashMap.key}" /> <a4j:outputPanel> <a4j:region renderRegionOnly="true"> <a4j:commandLink value="Copy" reRender=":paste1, :paste2, :paste3" /> <a4j:commandLink id="paste2" value="Paste" rendered="#{myBean.myHashMap.key}" /> </a4j:region> <a4j:outputPanel> <a4j:region renderRegionOnly="true"> <a4j:commandLink value="Copy" reRender=":paste1, :paste2, :paste3" /> <a4j:commandLink id="paste3" value="Paste" rendered="#{myBean.myHashMap.key}" /> </a4j:region> </a4j:outputPanel> </a4j:outputPanel> ... </h:form> Something like that. In practise this differs in that a rich:tree is displayed. Also, there can be multiple instances of the same paste link: object:0::paste3, object:1::paste3. private final String pasteIDs = ":xxPaste, ... , :xyPaste"; According to the RichFaces reference, putting the separator to the beginning of the ID means it is an "absolute" search expression, however this way i get the same result: only the 'local' paste link gets rerendered, the others not. Every copy-paste link pair is encapsulated in <a4j:region renderRegionOnly="true">, because it is necessary for other components to restrict the reRender to that region. Could this be blocking the reRender I want to make? Also I want to rerender exactly those paste links, so no other rerender action is triggered. Hope it is clear what i want to achieve. Any help would be appreciated! Daniel

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  • Data aggregation mongodb vs mysql

    - by Dimitris Stefanidis
    I am currently researching on a backend to use for a project with demanding data aggregation requirements. The main project requirements are the following. Store millions of records for each user. Users might have more than 1 million entries per year so even with 100 users we are talking about 100 million entries per year. Data aggregation on those entries must be performed on the fly. The users need to be able to filter on the entries by a ton of available filters and then present summaries (totals , averages e.t.c) and graphs on the results. Obviously I cannot precalculate any of the aggregation results because the filter combinations (and thus the result sets) are huge. Users are going to have access on their own data only but it would be nice if anonymous stats could be calculated for all the data. The data is going to be most of the time in batch. e.g the user will upload the data every day and it could like 3000 records. In some later version there could be automated programs that upload every few minutes in smaller batches of 100 items for example. I made a simple test of creating a table with 1 million rows and performing a simple sum of 1 column both in mongodb and in mysql and the performance difference was huge. I do not remember the exact numbers but it was something like mysql = 200ms , mongodb = 20 sec. I have also made the test with couchdb and had much worse results. What seems promising speed wise is cassandra which I was very enthusiastic about when I first discovered it. However the documentation is scarce and I haven't found any solid examples on how to perform sums and other aggregate functions on the data. Is that possible ? As it seems from my test (Maybe I have done something wrong) with the current performance its impossible to use mongodb for such a project although the automated sharding functionality seems like a perfect fit for it. Does anybody have experience with data aggregation in mongodb or have any insights that might be of help for the implementation of the project ? Thanks, Dimitris

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  • XQuery method question, trying to sum values read from xml

    - by Buck
    I'm pretty new to XQuery and I'm trying to write an example function that I can't get to work. I want to read an xml file, parse out the "time" values, sum them as they're read and return the sum. This is trivial and I'm looking to build more functionality into it but I'd like to get this working first. Also, I know there's a "sum" directive in XQuery that would do just this but I want to add more to it so the built-in sum is insufficient for my needs. Here's my funtion: bool example(Zorba* aZorba) { XQuery_t lQuery = aZorba-compileQuery( "for $i in fn:doc('/tmp/products.xml')//time" "let $sum := xs:integer($i)" " return $sum" ); DynamicContext* lCtx = lQuery-getDynamicContext(); lCtx-setContextItemAsDocument("temp_measurements.xml", lDocStream); try { std::cout << lQuery << std::endl; } catch (DynamicException& e) { std::cerr << e.getDescription() << std::endl; return false; } catch (StaticException& f){ std::cerr << f.getDescription() << f.getErrorCodeAsString(f.getErrorCode()) << std::endl; return false; } } It's called with an appropriate main(). If I comment out the line that starts "let $sum..." then this works in that it returns the time values as a series of integers like this: 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3.... Input file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"? <temps <temp <time0</time <lat0</lat <long0</long <value0</value </temp <temp <time1</time <lat0</lat <long1</long <value0</value </temp ...

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  • JQGrid and JQuery Autocomplete

    - by Neff
    When implementing JQGrid 4.3.0, Jquery 1.6.2, and JQuery UI 1.8.16 Ive come across an issue with the Inline edit. When the inline edit is activated, some of the elements get assigned an auto complete. When the inline edit is canceld or saved, the auto complete does not always go away (selecting text by double clicking it then hitting delete, then hitting escape to exit row edit). Leaving the auto complete controls in edit mode when the row is no longer considered in edit mode. Perhaps you can tell me if there is a problem with the initialization or if I you are aware of an event post-"afterrestorefunc" that the fields can be returned to their "original" state. Original state being displayed as data in the JQGrid row. I've tried removing the DOM after row close, .remove() and .empty(): ... "afterrestorefunc": function(){ $('.ui-autocomplete-input').remove(); } ... but that causes other issues, such as the jqgrid is not able to find the cell when serializing the row for data or edit, and requires a refresh of the page, not just jqgrid, to be able to once again see the data from that row. Auto complete functionality for the element is created on the double click of the row: function CreateCustomSearchElement(value, options, selectiontype) { ... var el; el = document.createElement("input"); ... $(el).autocomplete({ source: function (request, response) { $.ajax({ url: '<%=ResolveUrl("~/Services/AutoCompleteService.asmx/GetAutoCompleteResponse") %>', data: "{ 'prefixText': '" + request.term + "', 'contextKey': '" + options.name + "'}", dataType: "json", type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", success: function (data) { response($.map(data.d, function (item) { return { label: Trim(item), value: Trim(item), searchVal: Trim(item) } })) } }); }, select: function (e, item) { //Select is on the event of selection where the value and label have already been determined. }, minLength: 1, change: function (event, ui) { //if the active element was not the search button //... } }).keyup(function (e) { if (e.keyCode == 8 || e.keyCode == 46) { //If the user hits backspace or delete, check the value of the textbox before setting the searchValue //... } }).keydown(function (e) { //if keycode is enter key and there is a value, you need to validate the data through select or change(onblur) if (e.keyCode == '13' && ($(el).val())) { return false; } if (e.keyCode == '220') { return false } }); } Other Sources: http://www.trirand.com/jqgridwiki/doku.php?id=wiki:inline_editing http://api.jqueryui.com/autocomplete/ Update: I tried only creating the autocomplete when the element was focused, and removing it when onblur. That did not resolve the issue either. It seems to just need the autocomplete dropdown to be triggered.

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  • Problem getting correct parameters for C# P/Invoke call to C++ dll

    - by Jim Jones
    Trying to Interop a functionality from the Outside In API from Oracle. Have the following function: SCCERR EXOpenExport {VTHDOC hDoc, VTDWORD dwOutputId, VTDWORD dwSpecType, VTLPVOID pSpec, VTDWORD dwFlags, VTSYSPARAM dwReserved, VTLPVOID pCallbackFunc, VTSYSPARAM dwCallbackData, VTLPHEXPORT phExport); From the header files I reduced the parameters to: typedef VTSYSPARAM VTHDOC, VTLPHDOC * typedef DWORD_PTR VTSYSPARAM typedef unsigned long DWORD_PTR typedef unsigned long VTDWORD typedef VTVOID* VTLPVOID #define VTVOID void typedef VTHDOC VTHEXPORT, *VTLPEXPORT These are for 32 bit windows Going through the header files, the example programs, and the documentation I found: 1. That pSpec could be a pointer to a buffer or NULL, so I set it to a IntPtr.Zero (documentation). 2. That dwFlags and dwReserved according to the documentation "Must be set by the developer to 0". 3. That pCallbackFunc can be set to NULL if I don't want to handle callbacks. 4. That the last two are based on structs that I wrote C# wrappers for using the [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)]. Then instatiated an instance and generated the parameters by first creating a IntPtr with Marshal.AllocHGlobal(Marshal.SizeOf(instance)), then getting the address value which is passed as a uint for dwCallbackData and a IntPtr for phExport. The final parameter list is as follows: 1. phDoc as a IntPtr which was loaded with an address by the DAOpenDocument function called before. 2. dwOutputId as uint set to 1535 which represents FI_JPEGFIF 3. dwSpecType as int set to 2 which represents IOTYPE_ANSIPATH 4. pSpec as an IntPtr.Zero where the output will be written 5. dwFlags as uint set to 0 as directed 6. dwReserved as uint set to 0 as directed 7. pCallbackFunc as IntPtr set to NULL as I will handle results 8. dwCallBackDate as uint the address of a buffer for a struct 9. phExport as IntPtr to another struct buffer still get an undefined error from the API. Meaning that the call returns a 961 which is not defined in any of the header files. In the past I have gotten this when my choice of parameter types are incorrect. I started out using Interop Assistant which was helpful in learning how many of the parameter types get translated. It is however limited by how well I am able to glean the correct native type from the header files. For example the hDoc parameter used in the preceding function was defined as a non-filesytem handle, so attempted to use Marshal to create a handle, then used an IntPtr, and finally it turned out to be an int (actually it was &phDoc used here). So is there a more scientific way of doing this, other than trial and error? Jim

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  • Wordpress: how to call a plugin function with an ajax call?

    - by Bee
    I'm writing a Wordpress MU plugin, it includes a link with each post and I want to use ajax to call one of the plugin functions when the user clicks on this link, and then dynamically update the link-text with output from that function. I'm stuck with the ajax query. I've got this complicated, clearly hack-ish, way to do it, but it is not quite working. What is the 'correct' or 'wordpress' way to include ajax functionality in a plugin? (My current hack code is below. When I click the generate link I don't get the same output I get in the wp page as when I go directly to sample-ajax.php in my browser.) I've got my code[1] set up as follows: mu-plugins/sample.php: <?php /* Plugin Name: Sample Plugin */ if (!class_exists("SamplePlugin")) { class SamplePlugin { function SamplePlugin() {} function addHeaderCode() { echo '<link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" href="'.get_bloginfo('wpurl'). '/wp-content/mu-plugins/sample/sample.css" />\n'; wp_enqueue_script('sample-ajax', get_bloginfo('wpurl') . '/wp-content/mu-plugins/sample/sample-ajax.js.php', array('jquery'), '1.0'); } // adds the link to post content. function addLink($content = '') { $content .= "<span class='foobar clicked'><a href='#'>click</a></span>"; return $content; } function doAjax() { // echo "<a href='#'>AJAX!</a>"; } } } if (class_exists("SamplePlugin")) { $sample_plugin = new SamplePlugin(); } if (isset($sample_plugin)) { add_action('wp_head',array(&$sample_plugin,'addHeaderCode'),1); add_filter('the_content', array(&$sample_plugin, 'addLink')); } mu-plugins/sample/sample-ajax.js.php: <?php if (!function_exists('add_action')) { require_once("../../../wp-config.php"); } ?> jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery(".foobar").bind("click", function() { var aref = this; jQuery(this).toggleClass('clicked'); jQuery.ajax({ url: "http://mysite/wp-content/mu-plugins/sample/sample-ajax.php", success: function(value) { jQuery(aref).html(value); } }); }); }); mu-plugins/sample/sample-ajax.php: <?php if (!function_exists('add_action')) { require_once("../../../wp-config.php"); } if (isset($sample_plugin)) { $sample_plugin->doAjax(); } else { echo "unset"; } ?> [1] Note: The following tutorial got me this far, but I'm stumped at this point. http://www.devlounge.net/articles/using-ajax-with-your-wordpress-plugin

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  • Detect Client Computer name when an RDP session is open

    - by Ubiquitous Che
    Hey all, My manager has pointed out to me a few nifty things that one of our accounting applications can do because it can load different settings based on the machine name of the host and the machine name of the client when the package is opened in an RDP session. We want to provide similar functionality in one of my company's applications. I've found out on this site how to detect if I'm in an RDP session, but I'm having trouble finding information anywhere on how to detect the name of the client computer. Any pointers in the right direction would be great. I'm coding in C# for .NET 3.5 EDIT The sample code I cobbled together from the advice below - it should be enough for anyone who has a use for the WTSQuerySessionInformation to get a feel for what's going on. Note that this isn't necessarily the best way of doing it - just a starting point that I've found useful. When I run this locally, I get boring, expected answers. When I run it on our local office server in an RDP session, I see my own computer name in the WTSClientName property. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace TerminalServicesTest { class Program { const int WTS_CURRENT_SESSION = -1; static readonly IntPtr WTS_CURRENT_SERVER_HANDLE = IntPtr.Zero; static void Main(string[] args) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); uint byteCount; foreach (WTS_INFO_CLASS item in Enum.GetValues(typeof(WTS_INFO_CLASS))) { Program.WTSQuerySessionInformation( WTS_CURRENT_SERVER_HANDLE, WTS_CURRENT_SESSION, item, out sb, out byteCount); Console.WriteLine("{0}({1}): {2}", item.ToString(), byteCount, sb); } Console.WriteLine(); Console.WriteLine("Press any key to exit..."); Console.ReadKey(); } [DllImport("Wtsapi32.dll")] public static extern bool WTSQuerySessionInformation( IntPtr hServer, int sessionId, WTS_INFO_CLASS wtsInfoClass, out StringBuilder ppBuffer, out uint pBytesReturned); } enum WTS_INFO_CLASS { WTSInitialProgram = 0, WTSApplicationName = 1, WTSWorkingDirectory = 2, WTSOEMId = 3, WTSSessionId = 4, WTSUserName = 5, WTSWinStationName = 6, WTSDomainName = 7, WTSConnectState = 8, WTSClientBuildNumber = 9, WTSClientName = 10, WTSClientDirectory = 11, WTSClientProductId = 12, WTSClientHardwareId = 13, WTSClientAddress = 14, WTSClientDisplay = 15, WTSClientProtocolType = 16, WTSIdleTime = 17, WTSLogonTime = 18, WTSIncomingBytes = 19, WTSOutgoingBytes = 20, WTSIncomingFrames = 21, WTSOutgoingFrames = 22, WTSClientInfo = 23, WTSSessionInfo = 24, WTSSessionInfoEx = 25, WTSConfigInfo = 26, WTSValidationInfo = 27, WTSSessionAddressV4 = 28, WTSIsRemoteSession = 29 } }

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  • How to merge an improperly created "branch" that isn't really a branch (wasn't created by an svn cop

    - by MatrixFrog
    I'm working on a team with lots of people who are pretty unfamiliar with the concepts of version control systems, and are just kind of doing whatever seems to work, by trial and error. Someone created a "branch" from the trunk that is not ancestrally related to the trunk. My guess is it went something like this: They created a folder in branches. They checked out all the code from the trunk to somewhere on their desktop. They added all that code to the newly created folder as though it was a bunch of brand new files. So the repository isn't aware that all that code is actually just a copy of the trunk. When I look at the history of that branch in TortoiseSVN, and uncheck the "Stop on copy/rename" box, there is no revision that has the trunk (or any other path) under the "Copy from path" column. Then they made lots of changes on their "branch". Meanwhile, others were making lots of changes on the trunk. We tried to do a merge and of course it doesn't work. Because, the trunk and the fake branch are not ancestrally related. I can see only two ways to resolve this: Go through the logs on the "branch", look at every change that was made, and manually apply each change to the trunk. Go through the logs on the trunk, look at every change that was made between revision 540 (when the "branch" was created) and HEAD, and manually apply each change to the "branch". This involves 7 revisions one way or 11 revisions the other way, so neither one is really that terrible. But is there any way to cause the repository to "realize" that the branch really IS ancestrally related even though it was created incorrectly, so that we can take advantage of the built-in merging functionality in Eclipse/TortoiseSVN? (You may be wondering: Why did your company hire these people and allow them to access the SVN repository without making sure they knew how to use it properly first?! We didn't -- this is a school assignment, which is a collaboration between two different classes -- the ones in the lower class were given a very quick hand-wavey "overview" of SVN which didn't really teach them anything. I've asked everyone in the group to please PLEASE read the svn book, and I'll make sure we (the slightly more experienced half of the team) keep a close eye on the repository to ensure this doesn't happen again.)

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  • Defining where on the page the flowdocument I am printing will 'start' and 'end'

    - by Sagi1981
    Dear community. I am almost done with implementing a printing functionality, but I am having trouble getting the last hurdle done with. My problem is, that I am printing some reports, consisting of a header (with information about the person the report is about), a footer (with a page number) and the content in the middle, which is a FlowDocument. Since the flowdocuments can be fairly long, It is very possible that they will span multiple pages. My approach is to make a custom FlowDocumentPaginator which derives from DocumentPaginator. In there i define my header and my footer. However, when I print my page, the flowdocument and my header and footer are on top of eachother. So my question is plain and simple - how do I define from where and to where the flowdocument part on the pages will be placed? here is the code from my custommade Paginator: public class HeaderedFlowDocumentPaginator : DocumentPaginator { private DocumentPaginator flowDocumentpaginator; public HeaderedFlowDocumentPaginator(FlowDocument document) { flowDocumentpaginator = ((IDocumentPaginatorSource) document).DocumentPaginator; } public override bool IsPageCountValid { get { return flowDocumentpaginator.IsPageCountValid; } } public override int PageCount { get { return flowDocumentpaginator.PageCount; } } public override Size PageSize { get { return flowDocumentpaginator.PageSize; } set { flowDocumentpaginator.PageSize = value; } } public override IDocumentPaginatorSource Source { get { return flowDocumentpaginator.Source; } } public override DocumentPage GetPage(int pageNumber) { DocumentPage page = flowDocumentpaginator.GetPage(pageNumber); ContainerVisual newVisual = new ContainerVisual(); newVisual.Children.Add(page.Visual); DrawingVisual header = new DrawingVisual(); using (DrawingContext dc = header.RenderOpen()) { //Header data } newVisual.Children.Add(header); DrawingVisual footer = new DrawingVisual(); using (DrawingContext dc = footer.RenderOpen()) { Typeface typeface = new Typeface("Trebuchet MS"); FormattedText text = new FormattedText("Page " + (pageNumber + 1).ToString(), CultureInfo.CurrentCulture, FlowDirection.LeftToRight, typeface, 14, Brushes.Black); dc.DrawText(text, new Point(page.Size.Width - 100, page.Size.Height-30)); } newVisual.Children.Add(footer); DocumentPage newPage = new DocumentPage(newVisual); return newPage; } } And here is the printdialogue call: private void btnPrint_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { try { PrintDialog printDialog = new PrintDialog(); if (printDialog.ShowDialog() == true) { FlowDocument fd = new FlowDocument(); MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(ASCIIEncoding.Default.GetBytes(<My string of text - RTF formatted>)); TextRange tr = new TextRange(fd.ContentStart, fd.ContentEnd); tr.Load(stream, DataFormats.Rtf); stream.Close(); fd.ColumnWidth = printDialog.PrintableAreaWidth; HeaderedFlowDocumentPaginator paginator = new HeaderedFlowDocumentPaginator(fd); printDialog.PrintDocument(paginator, "myReport"); } } catch (Exception ex) { //Handle } }

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  • reCaptcha issue with Spring MVC

    - by skip
    Hi I've been trying to integrate reCaptcha with my application built on Spring framework, but I am getting this error: org.springframework.web.bind.MissingServletRequestParameterException: Required String parameter 'recaptcha_challenge_field' is not present Could someone help me understand that why am I getting this error. I've got both recaptcha_challenge_field and recaptcha_response_field parameters bound to the User domain object. Could anybody help me understand what am I missing? Thanks Here is the code of the controller I am using, all I am trying to do is register a user with reCaptcha functionality but what I am getting is a http status 400 with the error org.springframework.web.bind.MissingServletRequestParameterException: Required String parameter 'recaptcha_challenge_field' is not present: UserManagementController.java @Controller public class UserManagementController { private static final String RECAPTCHA_HTML = "reCaptchaHtml"; @Autowired private UserService userService; @Autowired private ReCaptcha reCaptcha; @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET, value="/addNewUser.do") public ModelAndView addNewUser() { User user = new User(); String html = reCaptcha.createRecaptchaHtml(null, null); ModelMap modelMap = new ModelMap(); modelMap.put("user", user); modelMap.put(RECAPTCHA_HTML, html); return new ModelAndView("/addNewUser", modelMap); } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST, value="/addNewUser.do") public String addNewUser(@Valid User user, BindingResult result, @RequestParam("recaptcha_challenge_field") String challenge, @RequestParam("recaptcha_response_field") String response, HttpServletRequest request, Model model) { verifyBinding(result); String remoteAddr = request.getRemoteAddr(); ReCaptchaResponse reCaptchaResponse = reCaptcha.checkAnswer(remoteAddr, challenge, response); if (!reCaptchaResponse.isValid()) { result.rejectValue("captcha", "errors.badCaptcha"); } model.addAttribute("user", user); if (result.hasErrors()) { result.reject("form.problems"); return "addNewUser"; } return "redirect:showContent.do"; } @InitBinder public void initBinder(WebDataBinder binder) { binder.setAllowedFields(new String[] { "firstName", "lastName", "email", "username", "password", "recaptcha_challenge_field", "recaptcha_response_field" }); } private void verifyBinding(BindingResult result) { String[] suppressedFields = result.getSuppressedFields(); if (suppressedFields.length > 0) { throw new RuntimeException("You've attempted to bind fields that haven't been allowed in initBinder(): " + StringUtils.join(suppressedFields, ", ")); } } } Here is the addNewUser.jsp element on the form page for the above controller: <tr> <td>Please prove you're a person</td> <td>${reCaptchaHtml}</td> <td><form:errors path="captcha" cssStyle="color:red"></form:errors></td> </tr> Could you help me understand what am I missing here? Thanks for reply.

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  • Is the Scala 2.8 collections library a case of "the longest suicide note in history" ?

    - by oxbow_lakes
    First note the inflammatory subject title is a quotation made about the manifesto of a UK political party in the early 1980s. This question is subjective but it is a genuine question, I've made it CW and I'd like some opinions on the matter. Despite whatever my wife and coworkers keep telling me, I don't think I'm an idiot: I have a good degree in mathematics from the University of Oxford and I've been programming commercially for almost 12 years and in Scala for about a year (also commercially). I have just started to look at the Scala collections library re-implementation which is coming in the imminent 2.8 release. Those familiar with the library from 2.7 will notice that the library, from a usage perspective, has changed little. For example... > List("Paris", "London").map(_.length) res0: List[Int] List(5, 6) ...would work in either versions. The library is eminently useable: in fact it's fantastic. However, those previously unfamiliar with Scala and poking around to get a feel for the language now have to make sense of method signatures like: def map[B, That](f: A => B)(implicit bf: CanBuildFrom[Repr, B, That]): That For such simple functionality, this is a daunting signature and one which I find myself struggling to understand. Not that I think Scala was ever likely to be the next Java (or /C/C++/C#) - I don't believe its creators were aiming it at that market - but I think it is/was certainly feasible for Scala to become the next Ruby or Python (i.e. to gain a significant commercial user-base) Is this going to put people off coming to Scala? Is this going to give Scala a bad name in the commercial world as an academic plaything that only dedicated PhD students can understand? Are CTOs and heads of software going to get scared off? Was the library re-design a sensible idea? If you're using Scala commercially, are you worried about this? Are you planning to adopt 2.8 immediately or wait to see what happens? Steve Yegge once attacked Scala (mistakenly in my opinion) for what he saw as its overcomplicated type-system. I worry that someone is going to have a field day spreading fud with this API (similarly to how Josh Bloch scared the JCP out of adding closures to Java). Note - I should be clear that, whilst I believe that Josh Bloch was influential in the rejection of the BGGA closures proposal, I don't ascribe this to anything other than his honestly-held beliefs that the proposal represented a mistake.

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  • Android popup style activity which sits on top of any other apps

    - by RenegadeAndy
    What I want to create is a popup style application. I have a service in the background - something arrives on the queue and i want an activity to start to inform the user - very very similar to the functionality of SMSPopup app. So I have the code where something arrives on the queue and it calls my activity. However for some reason the activity always shows on top of the originally started activity instead of just appearing on the main desktop of the android device. As an example: I have the main activity which is shown when the application is run I have the service which checks queue I have a popup activity. When i start the main activity it starts the service - I can now close this. I then have something on the queue and it creates the popup activity which launches the main activity with the popup on top of it :S How do I stop this and have it behave as i want... The popup class is : package com.andy.tabletsms.work; import com.andy.tabletsms.tablet.R; import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Context; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.Gravity; import android.view.LayoutInflater; import android.view.View; import android.view.View.OnClickListener; import android.view.ViewGroup; import android.widget.Button; import android.widget.PopupWindow; import android.widget.TextView; import android.widget.Toast; public class SMSPopup extends Activity implements OnClickListener{ public static String msg; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle bundle){ super.onCreate(bundle); // Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), msg, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); this.setContentView(R.layout.popup); TextView tv = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.txtLbl); Intent intent = getIntent(); if (intent != null){ Bundle bb = intent.getExtras(); if (bb != null){ msg = bb.getString("com.andy.tabletsms.message"); } } if(msg == null){ msg = "LOLOLOL"; } tv.setText(msg); Button b = (Button)findViewById(R.id.closeBtn); b.setOnClickListener(this); } @Override public void onClick(View v) { this.finish(); } } and I call the activity from a broadcast receiver which checks the queue every 30 seconds or so : if(main.msgs.size()0){ Intent testActivityIntent = new Intent(context.getApplicationContext(), com.andy.tabletsms.work.SMSPopup.class); testActivityIntent.putExtra("com.andy.tabletsms.message", main.msgs.get(0)); testActivityIntent.addFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); context.startActivity(testActivityIntent); } The layout is here : http://pastebin.com/F25u6wdM

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  • Static Javascript files not loaded in Express app

    - by Dave Long
    I have an express app that has a bunch of static javascript files that aren't being loaded even though they are registered in my app.js file. Even public scripts (like jQuery: http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.6.3/jquery.min.js) aren't processing. I can see the script tags in the generated html, but none of the functionality runs and I can't see the files loading in the web inspector. Here is the code that I have: app.js var express = require('express') var app = module.exports = express.createServer(); // Configuration var port = process.env.PORT || 3000; app.configure(function(){ app.set('views', __dirname + '/views'); app.set('view engine', 'jade'); app.use(express.bodyParser()); app.use(express.methodOverride()); app.use(app.router); app.use(express.static(__dirname + '/public')); }); app.configure('development', function(){ app.use(express.errorHandler({ dumpExceptions: true, showStack: true })); }); app.configure('production', function(){ app.use(express.errorHandler()); }); // Routes app.get('/manage/new', function(req, res){ res.render('manage/new', { title: 'Create a new widget' }); }) app.listen(port); console.log("Express server listening on port %d in %s mode", app.address().port, app.settings.env); /views/manage/layout.jade !!! 5 html(lang="en") head title= title link(rel="stylesheet", href="/stylesheets/demo.css") link(rel="stylesheet", href="/stylesheets/jquery.qtip.css") script(type="text/javascript", href="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.6.3/jquery.min.js") body!= body script(type="text/javascript", href="/javascripts/jquery.formalize.js") script(type="text/javascript", href="/javascripts/jquery.form.js") script(type="text/javascript", href="/javascripts/jquery.qtip.js") script(type="text/javascript", href="/javascripts/formToWizard.js") script(type="text/javascript", href="/javascripts/widget.js") /views/manage/new.jade h1= title div(style="float:left;") form(action="/manage/generate", method="post", enctype="multipart/form-data", name="create-widget") .errors fieldset legend Band / Album Information fieldset legend Social Networks fieldset legend Download All of my javascript files are stored in /public/javascripts and all of my static CSS files are being served up just fine. I'm not sure what I've done wrong.

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  • How to fire server-side methods with jQuery

    - by Nasser Hajloo
    I have a large application and I'm going to enabling short-cut key for it. I'd find 2 JQuery plug-ins (demo plug-in 1 - Demo plug-in 2) that do this for me. you can find both of them in this post in StackOverFlow My application is a completed one and I'm goining to add some functionality to it so I don't want towrite code again. So as a short-cut is just catching a key combination, I'm wonder how can I call the server methods which a short-cut key should fire? So How to use either of these plug-ins, by just calling the methods I'd written before? Actually How to fire Server methods with Jquery? You can also find a good article here, by Dave Ward Update: here is the scenario. When User press CTRL+Del the GridView1_OnDeleteCommand so I have this protected void grdDocumentRows_DeleteCommand(object source, System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataGridCommandEventArgs e) { try { DeleteRow(grdDocumentRows.DataKeys[e.Item.ItemIndex].ToString()); clearControls(); cmdSaveTrans.Text = Hajloo.Portal.Common.Constants.Accounting.Documents.InsertClickText; btnDelete.Visible = false; grdDocumentRows.EditItemIndex = -1; BindGrid(); } catch (Exception ex) { Page.AddMessage(GetLocalResourceObject("AProblemAccuredTryAgain").ToString(), MessageControl.TypeEnum.Error); } } private void BindGrid() { RefreshPage(); grdDocumentRows.DataSource = ((DataSet)Session[Hajloo.Portal.Common.Constants.Accounting.Session.AccDocument]).Tables[AccDocument.TRANSACTIONS_TABLE]; grdDocumentRows.DataBind(); } private void RefreshPage() { Creditors = (decimal)((AccDocument)Session[Hajloo.Portal.Common.Constants.Accounting.Session.AccDocument]).Tables[AccDocument.ACCDOCUMENT_TABLE].Rows[0][AccDocument.ACCDOCUMENT_CREDITORS_SUM_FIELD]; Debtors = (decimal)((AccDocument)Session[Hajloo.Portal.Common.Constants.Accounting.Session.AccDocument]).Tables[AccDocument.ACCDOCUMENT_TABLE].Rows[0][AccDocument.ACCDOCUMENT_DEBTORS_SUM_FIELD]; if ((Creditors - Debtors) != 0) labBalance.InnerText = GetLocalResourceObject("Differentiate").ToString() + "?" + (Creditors - Debtors).ToString(Hajloo.Portal.Common.Constants.Common.Documents.CF) + "?"; else labBalance.InnerText = GetLocalResourceObject("Balance").ToString(); lblSumDebit.Text = Debtors.ToString(Hajloo.Portal.Common.Constants.Common.Documents.CF); lblSumCredit.Text = Creditors.ToString(Hajloo.Portal.Common.Constants.Common.Documents.CF); if (grdDocumentRows.EditItemIndex == -1) clearControls(); } Th other scenario are the same. How to enable short-cut for these kind of code (using session , NHibernate, etc)

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  • Calculations in a table of data

    - by Christian W
    I have a table of data with survey results, and I want to do certain calculations on this data. The datastructure is somewhat like this: ____________________________________________________________________________________ | group |individual | key | key | key | | | |subkey|subkey|subkey|subkey|subkey|subkey|subkey|subkey|subkey| | | |q|q|q |q |q |q|q|q |q|q|q |q |q |q|q|q |q|q|q |q |q |q|q|q | |-------|-----------|-|-|--|--|---|-|-|--|-|-|--|--|---|-|-|--|-|-|--|--|---|-|-|--| | 1 | 0001 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 | | 1 | 0002 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 | | 1 | 0003 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 | | 2 | 0004 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 | | 2 | 0005 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 | | 3 | 0006 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 | | 4 | 0007 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 |1|7|5 |1 |3 |1|4|1 | ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ Excuse my poor ascii skills... So, every individual belongs to a group, and has answered some questions. These questions are always grouped in keys and subkeys. Is there any simple method to calculate averages, deviations and similar based on the groupings. Something like public float getAverage(int key, int individual); float avg = getAverage(5,7); I think what I'm asking is what would be the best way to structure the data in C# to make it as easy as possible to work with? I have started making classes for every entity, but I got confused somewhere and something stopped working. So before I continue along this path, I was wondering if there are any other, better, ways of doing this? (Every individual can also have describing variables, like agegroup and such, but that's not important for the base functionality.) Our current solution does all calculations inline in the queries when requesting the data from the database. This works, but it's slow and the number of queries equals questions * individuals + keys * individuals, which could be alot if individual queries. Any suggestions?

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