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  • Name for method that takes a string value and returns DBNull.Value || string

    - by David Murdoch
    I got tired of writing the following code: /* Commenting out irrelevant parts public string MiddleName; public void Save(){ SqlCommand = new SqlCommand(); // blah blah...boring INSERT statement with params etc go here. */ if(MiddleName==null){ myCmd.Parameters.Add("@MiddleName", DBNull.Value); } else{ myCmd.Parameters.Add("@MiddleName", MiddleName); } /* // more boring code to save to DB. }*/ So, I wrote this: public static object DBNullValueorStringIfNotNull(string value) { object o; if (value == null) { o = DBNull.Value; } else { o = value; } return o; } // which would be called like: myCmd.Parameters.Add("@MiddleName", DBNullValueorStringIfNotNull(MiddleName)); If this is a good way to go about doing this then what would you suggest as the method name? DBNullValueorStringIfNotNull is a bit verbose and confusing. I'm also open to ways to alleviate this problem entirely. I'd LOVE to do this: myCmd.Parameters.Add("@MiddleName", MiddleName==null ? DBNull.Value : MiddleName); but that won't work. I've got C# 3.5 and SQL Server 2005 at my disposal if it matters.

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  • Strange XCode debugger behavior with UITableView datasource

    - by Tarfa
    Hey guys. I've got a perplexing issue. In my subclassed UITableViewController my datasource methods lose their tableview reference depending on lines of code I put inside the method. For example, in this code block: - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { // Return the number of sections. return 3; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { // Return the number of rows in the section. return 5; } // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { id i = tableView; static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Configure the cell... return cell; } the "id i = tableView;" causes the tableview to become nil (0x0) -- and it causes it to be nil before I ever start stepping into the method. If I insert an assignment statement above the "id i = tableview;" statement: CGFloat x = 5.0; id i = tableView; then tableview retains its pointer (i.e. is not nil) if I place the breakpoint after the "id i = tableView;" line. In other words, the breakpoint must be set after the "id i = tableView"; assignment in order for tableView to retain its pointer. If the breakpoint is set before the assignment is made and I just hang at that breakpoint for a bit then after a couple of seconds the console logs this error message: Assertion failed: (cls), function getName, file /SourceCache/objc4_Sim/objc4-427.5/runtime/objc-runtime-new.mm, line 3990. Although the code works when I don't step through the method, I need my debugger to work! It makes programming kind of challenging when your debugging tools become your enemy. Anyone know what the cause and solution are? Thanks.

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  • Clustered index - multi-part vs single-part index and effects of inserts/deletes

    - by Anssssss
    This question is about what happens with the reorganizing of data in a clustered index when an insert is done. I assume that it should be more expensive to do inserts on a table which has a clustered index than one that does not because reorganizing the data in a clustered index involves changing the physical layout of the data on the disk. I'm not sure how to phrase my question except through an example I came across at work. Assume there is a table (Junk) and there are two queries that are done on the table, the first query searches by Name and the second query searches by Name and Something. As I'm working on the database I discovered that the table has been created with two indexes, one to support each query, like so: --drop table Junk1 CREATE TABLE Junk1 ( Name char(5), Something char(5), WhoCares int ) CREATE CLUSTERED INDEX IX_Name ON Junk1 ( Name ) CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX_Name_Something ON Junk1 ( Name, Something ) Now when I looked at the two indexes, it seems that IX_Name is redundant since IX_Name_Something can be used by any query that desires to search by Name. So I would eliminate IX_Name and make IX_Name_Something the clustered index instead: --drop table Junk2 CREATE TABLE Junk2 ( Name char(5), Something char(5), WhoCares int ) CREATE CLUSTERED INDEX IX_Name_Something ON Junk2 ( Name, Something ) Someone suggested that the first indexing scheme should be kept since it would result in more efficient inserts/deletes (assume that there is no need to worry about updates for Name and Something). Would that make sense? I think the second indexing method would be better since it means one less index needs to be maintained. I would appreciate any insight into this specific example or directing me to more info on maintenance of clustered indexes.

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  • Stored procedure woes ... inserting binary ...

    - by Wardy
    Ok so I have this storedproc in my SQL 2008 database (works in 2005 too / used to) ... CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[SetBinaryContent] @Ref nvarchar(50), @Content varbinary(MAX), @ObjectID uniqueidentifier AS BEGIN DELETE ObjectContent WHERE ObjectId = @ObjectID AND Ref = @Ref IF DATALENGTH(@Content) > 5 BEGIN INSERT INTO ObjectContent (Ref,BinaryContent,ObjectId) VALUES (@Ref,@Content,@ObjectId) END UPDATE Objects SET [Status] = 1 WHERE ID = @ObjectID END Relatively simple, I take a byte array in C# and chuck it in @Content i then give it a guid and string for the other params and off we go. ... Great, it used to work ... but it don't anymore ... so erm ... What's wrong with this stored proc? I've stepped through my C# code thinking I screwed up somehow in that but it definately adds the params and gives them the correct values so what would cause the server to just stop executing this storedproc correctly? When called this proc executes but nothing changes in the db ... no new records are added to the ObjectContent table. Weird huh ...

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  • How to preserve order of temp table rows when inner joined with another table?

    - by Triynko
    Does an SQL Server "join" preserve any kind of row order consistently (i.e. that of the left table or that of the right table)? Psuedocode: create table #p (personid bigint); foreach (id in personid_list) insert into #p (personid) values (id) select id from users inner join #p on users.personid = #p.id Suppose I have a list of IDs that correspond to person entries. Each of those IDs may correspond to zero or more user accounts (since each person can have multiple accounts). To quickly select columns from the users table, I populate a temp table with person ids, then inner join it with the users table. I'm looking for an efficient way to ensure that the order of the results in the join matches the order of the ids as they were inserted into the temp table, so that the user list that's returned is in the same order as the person list as it was entered. I've considered the following alternatives: using "#p inner join users", in case the left table's order is preserved using "#p left join users where id is not null", in case a left join preserves order and the inner join doesn't using "create table (rownum int, personid bigint)", inserting an incrementing row number as the temp table is populated, so the results can be ordered by rownum in the join using an SQL Server equivalent of the "order by order of [tablename]" clause available in DB2 I'm currently using option 3, and it works... but I hate the idea of using an order by clause for something that's already ordered. I just don't know if the temp table preserves the order in which the rows were inserted or how the join operates and what order the results come out in.

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  • User control always crashes Visual Studio

    - by NickAldwin
    I'm trying to open a user control in one of our projects. It was created, I believe, in VS 2003, and the project has been converted to VS2008. I can view the code fine, but when I try to load the designer view, VS stops responding and I have to close it with the task manager. I have tried leaving it running for several minutes, but it does not do anything. I ran "devenv /log" but didn't see anything unusual in the log. I can't find a specific error message anywhere. Any idea what the problem might be? Is there a lightweight editing mode I might be able to use or something? The reason I need to have a look at the visual representation of this control is to decide where to insert some new components. I've tried googling it and searching SO, but either I don't know what to search or there is nothing out there about this. Any help is appreciated. (The strangest thing is that the user control seems to load fine in another project which references, but VS crashes as soon as I even so much as click on it in that project.)

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  • Long running operations (threads) in a web (asp.net) environment

    - by rrejc
    I have an asp.net (mvc) web site. As the part of the functions I will have to support some long running operations, for example: Initiated from user: User can upload (xml) file to the server. On the server I need to extract file, do some manipulation (insert into the db) etc... This can take from one minute to ten minutes (or even more - depends on file size). Of course I don't want to block the request when the import is running , but I want to redirect user to some progress page where he will have a chance to watch the status, errors or even cancel the import. This operation will not be frequently used, but it may happen that two users at the same time will try to import the data. It would be nice to run the imports in parallel. At the beginning I was thinking to create a new thread in the iis (controller action) and run the import in a new thread. But I am not sure if this is a good idea (to create working threads on a web server). Should I use windows services or any other approach? Initiated from system: - I will have to periodically update lucene index with the new data. - I will have to send mass emails (in the future). Should I implement this as a job in the site and run the job via Quartz.net or should I also create a windows service or something? What are the best practices when it comes to running site "jobs"? Thanks!

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  • MySQL Normalization stored procedure performance

    - by srkiNZ84
    Hi, I've written a stored procedure in MySQL to take values currently in a table and to "Normalize" them. This means that for each value passed to the stored procedure, it checks whether the value is already in the table. If it is, then it stores the id of that row in a variable. If the value is not in the table, it stores the newly inserted value's id. The stored procedure then takes the id's and inserts them into a table which is equivalent to the original de-normailized table, but this table is fully normalized and consists of mainly foreign keys. My problem with this design is that the stored procedure takes approximately 10ms or so to return, which is too long when you're trying to work through some 10million records. My suspicion is that the performance is to do with the way in which I'm doing the inserts. i.e. INSERT INTO TableA (first_value) VALUES (argument_from_sp) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE id=LAST_INSERT_ID(id); SET @TableAId = LAST_INSERT_ID(); The "ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE" is a bit of a hack, due to the fact that on a duplicate key I don't want to update anything but rather just return the id value of the row. If you miss this step though, the LAST_INSERT_ID() function returns the wrong value when you're trying to run the "SET ..." statement. Does anyone know of a better way to do this in MySQL? Thank you

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  • Opaque tenant identification with SQL Server & NHibernate

    - by Anton Gogolev
    Howdy! We're developing a nowadays-fashionable multi-tenanted SaaS app (shared database, shared schema), and there's one thing I don't like about it: public class Domain : BusinessObject { public virtual long TenantID { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } } The TenantID is driving me nuts, as it has to be accounted for almost everywhere, and it's a hassle from security standpoint: what happens if a malicious API user changes TenantID to some other value and will mix things up. What I want to do is to get rid of this TenantID in our domain objects altogether, and to have either NHibernate or SQL Server deal with it. From what I've already read on the Internets, this can be done with CONTEXT_INFO (here's a NHibernatebased implementation), NHibernate filters, SQL Views and with combination thereof. Now, my requirements are as follows: Remove any mentions of TenantID from domain objects ...but have SQL Server insert it where appropriate (I guess this is achieved with default constraints) ...and obviously provide support for filtering based on this criteria, so that customers will never see each other's data If possible, avoid SQL Server views. Have a solution which plays nicely with NHibernate, SQL Servers' MARS and general nature of SaaS apps being highly concurrent What are your thoughts on that?

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  • FluentNHibernate, getting 1 column from another table

    - by puffpio
    We're using FluentNHibernate and we have run into a problem where our object model requires data from two tables like so: public class MyModel { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual int FooId { get; set; } public virtual string FooName { get; set; } } Where there is a MyModel table that has Id, Name, and FooId as a foreign key into the Foo table. The Foo tables contains Id and FooName. This problem is very similar to another post here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1896645/nhibernate-join-tables-and-get-single-column-from-other-table but I am trying to figure out how to do it with FluentNHibernate. I can make the Id, Name, and FooId very easily..but mapping FooName I am having trouble with. This is my class map: public class MyModelClassMap : ClassMap<MyModel> { public MyModelClassMap() { this.Id(a => a.Id).Column("AccountId").GeneratedBy.Identity(); this.Map(a => a.Name); this.Map(a => a.FooId); // my attempt to map FooName but it doesn't work this.Join("Foo", join => join.KeyColumn("FooId").Map(a => a.FooName)); } } with that mapping I get this error: The element 'class' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2' has invalid child element 'join' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2'. List of possible elements expected: 'joined-subclass, loader, sql-insert, sql-update, sql-delete, filter, resultset, query, sql-query' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2'. any ideas?

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  • problem when cloning jQuery UI datepicker

    - by h3
    I have a div in which there is a datepicker. I use something like this to clone it: mydiv = $('#someDiv'); // works fine so far mydiv.find('input.datefield').datepicker(); // clone without the events and insert newDiv = myDiv.clone(false).insertAfter(myDiv); // datepicker won't re-init if this class is present newDiv.find('.hadDatepicker').removeClass('hadDatepicker'); // reinitialize datepicker newDiv.find('input.datefield').datepicker(); This is a stripped down version of my code. It works and the calendar shows up as expected where it is expected .. but when a date is clicked, the previous datepicker's value gets updated.. (the one from which it was cloned). I've tried to destroy the (inexisting) instance before like this: newDiv.find('input.datefield').datepicker('destroy').datepicker(); No luck .. I've checked how it keeps track of instances and manually cleared the data like this: newDiv.find('input.datefield').data('datepicker', false).datepicker('destroy').datepicker(); Still no luck. What I don't understand is that only the date selection behavior is buggy, everything else works as expected. I really don't know what else to check now ..

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  • Can I delay the keyup event for jquery?

    - by Paul
    I'm using the rottentomatoes movie API in conjunction with twitter's typeahead plugin using bootstrap 2.0. I've been able to integerate the API but the issue I'm having is that after every keyup event the API gets called. This is all fine and dandy but I would rather make the call after a small pause allowing the user to type in several characters first. Here is my current code that calls the API after a keyup event: var autocomplete = $('#searchinput').typeahead() .on('keyup', function(ev){ ev.stopPropagation(); ev.preventDefault(); //filter out up/down, tab, enter, and escape keys if( $.inArray(ev.keyCode,[40,38,9,13,27]) === -1 ){ var self = $(this); //set typeahead source to empty self.data('typeahead').source = []; //active used so we aren't triggering duplicate keyup events if( !self.data('active') && self.val().length > 0){ self.data('active', true); //Do data request. Insert your own API logic here. $.getJSON("http://api.rottentomatoes.com/api/public/v1.0/movies.json?callback=?&apikey=MY_API_KEY&page_limit=5",{ q: encodeURI($(this).val()) }, function(data) { //set this to true when your callback executes self.data('active',true); //Filter out your own parameters. Populate them into an array, since this is what typeahead's source requires var arr = [], i=0; var movies = data.movies; $.each(movies, function(index, movie) { arr[i] = movie.title i++; }); //set your results into the typehead's source self.data('typeahead').source = arr; //trigger keyup on the typeahead to make it search self.trigger('keyup'); //All done, set to false to prepare for the next remote query. self.data('active', false); }); } } }); Is it possible to set a small delay and avoid calling the API after every keyup?

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  • PHP error problem.

    - by TaG
    I get the following error on line 8: Undefined index: real_name which is $privacy_policy = mysqli_real_escape_string($mysqli, $_POST['privacy_policy']); I was wondering how can I fix this problem? Here is the PHP. if (isset($_POST['submitted'])) { $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"SELECT users.* FROM users WHERE user_id=3"); $privacy_policy = mysqli_real_escape_string($mysqli, $_POST['privacy_policy']); if (mysqli_num_rows($dbc) == 0) { $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"INSERT INTO users (user_id, privacy_policy) VALUES ('$user_id', '$privacy_policy')"); } if ($dbc == TRUE) { $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"UPDATE users SET privacy_policy = '$privacy_policy' WHERE user_id = '$user_id'"); echo '<p class="changes-saved">Your changes have been saved!</p>'; } if (!$dbc) { print mysqli_error($mysqli); return; } } Here is the HTML. <form method="post" action="index.php"> <fieldset> <ul> <li><input type="checkbox" name="privacy_policy" id="privacy_policy" value="yes" <?php if (isset($_POST['privacy_policy'])) { echo 'checked="checked"'; } else if($privacy_policy == "yes") { echo 'checked="checked"'; } ?> /></li> <li><input type="submit" name="submit" value="Save Changes" class="save-button" /> <input type="hidden" name="submitted" value="true" /> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Preview Changes" class="preview-changes-button" /></li> </ul> </fieldset> </form>

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  • Inserting bits into byte

    - by JB_SO
    I was looking at an example of reading bits from a byte and the implementation looked simple and easy to understand. I was wondering if anyone has a similar example of how to insert bits into a byte or byte array, that is easier to understand and also implement like the example below. Here is the example I found of reading bits from a byte (http://bytes.com/topic/c-sharp/answers/505085-reading-bits-byte-file): static int GetBits3(byte b, int offset, int count) { return (b >> offset) & ((1 << count) - 1); } Here is what i'm trying to do....and this is my current implementation.....just a little confused with the bit-masking/shifting, etc, that's why I'm trying to find out if there is an easier way to do what i'm doing BYTE Msg[2]; Msg_Id = 3; Msg_Event = 1; Msg_Ready = 2; Msg[0] = ( ( Msg_Event << 4 ) & 0xF0 ) | ( Msg_Id & 0x0F ) ; Msg[1] = Msg_Ready & 0x0F; //MsgReady & Unused Thanks for your help!

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  • How to upload files and store them in a server local path when MS SQL SERVER allows remote connectio

    - by user193655
    I am developing a win32 windows application with Delphi and MS SQL Server. it works fine in LAN but I am trying to add the support for SQL Server remote connections (= working with a DB that can be accessed with an external IP, as described in this article: http://support.microsoft.com/default.aspx?scid=kb;EN-US;914277). Basically I have a Table in DB where I keep the DocumentID, the document description and the Document path (like \FILESERVER\MyApplicationDocuments\45.zip). Of course \FILESERVER is a local (LAN) path for the server but not for the client (as I am now trying to add the support for remote connections). So I need a way to access \FILESERVER even if of course I cannot see it in LAN. I found the following T-SQL code snippet that is perfect for the "download trick": SELECT BulkColumn as MyFile FROM OPENROWSET(BULK '\FILESERVER\MyApplicationDocuments\45.zip' , SINGLE_BLOB) AS X With the code above I can download a file on the client. But how to upload it? I need an "Uppload trick" to be able to insert new files, but also to delete or replace existing files. Can anyone suggest? If a trick is not available could you suggest an alternative? Like an extended stored procedure or calling some .net assembly from the server.

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  • Synchronizing Access to a member of the ASP.NET session

    - by Sam
    I'm building a Javascript application and eash user has an individual UserSession. The application makes a bunch of Ajax calls. Each Ajax call needs access to a single UserSession object for the user. Each Ajax call needs a UserSession object. Data in the UserSession object is unique to each user. Originally, during each Ajax call I would create a new UserSession object and it's data members were stored in the ASP.NET Session. However, I found that the UserSession object was being instantiated a lot. To minimize the construction of the UserSession object, I wrapped it in a Singleton pattern and sychronized access to it. I believe that the synchronization is happening application wide, however I only need it to happen per user. I saw a post here that says the ASP.NET cache is synchronized, however the time between creating the object and inserting it into the cache another Thread could start construction it's another object and insert it into the cache. Here is the way I'm currently synchronizing access to the object. Is there a better way than using "lock"... should be be locking on the HttpContext.Session object? private static object SessionLock = new object(); public static WebSession GetSession { get { lock (SessionLock) { try { var context = HttpContext.Current; WebSession result = null; if (context.Session["MySession"] == null) { result = new WebSession(context); context.Session["MySession"] = result; } else { result = (WebSession)context.Session["MySession"]; } return result; } catch (Exception ex) { ex.Handle(); return null; } } } }

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  • replace a random word of a string with a random replacement

    - by tpickett
    I am developing a script that takes an article, searches the article for a "keyword" and then randomly replaces that keyword with an anchor link. I have the script working as it should, however I need to be able to have an array of "replacements" for the function to loop through and insert at the random location. So the first random position would get anchor link #1. The second random position would get anchor link #2. The third random position would get anchor link #3. etc... I found half of the answer to my question here: PHP replace a random word of a string public function replace_random ($str, $search, $replace, $n) { // Get all occurences of $search and their offsets within the string $count = preg_match_all('/\b'.preg_quote($search, '/').'\b/', $str, $matches, PREG_OFFSET_CAPTURE); // Get string length information so we can account for replacement strings that are of a different length to the search string $searchLen = strlen($search); $diff = strlen($replace) - $searchLen; $offset = 0; // Loop $n random matches and replace them, if $n < 1 || $n > $count, replace all matches $toReplace = ($n < 1 || $n > $count) ? array_keys($matches[0]) : (array) array_rand($matches[0], $n); foreach ($toReplace as $match) { $str = substr($str, 0, $matches[0][$match][1] + $offset).$replace.substr($str, $matches[0][$match][1] + $searchLen + $offset); $offset += $diff; } return $str; } So my question is, How can i alter this function to accept an array for the $replace variable?

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  • The instruction at "0x7c910a19" referenced memory at "oxffffffff". The memory could not be "read"

    - by ClareBear
    Hello guys/girls The instruction at "0x7c910a19" referenced memory at "oxffffffff". The memory could not be "read" I have a small issue, I receive the error above before the .vbs terminates. I don't know why this error is thrown. Below is the process of the .vbs file: Call ImportTransactions() Call UpdateTransactions() Function ImportTransactions() Dim objConnection, objCommand, objRecordset, strOracle Dim strSQL, objRecordsetInsert Set objConnection = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") objConnection.Open "DSN=*****;UID=*****;PWD==*****;" Set objCommand = CreateObject("ADODB.Command") Set objRecordset = CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") strOracle = "SELECT query here from Oracle database" objCommand.CommandText = strOracle objCommand.CommandType = 1 objCommand.CommandTimeout = 0 Set objCommand.ActiveConnection = objConnection objRecordset.cursorType = 0 objRecordset.cursorlocation = 3 objRecordset.Open objCommand, , 1, 3 If objRecordset.EOF = False Then Do Until objRecordset.EOF = True strSQL = "INSERT query here into SQL database" strSQL = Query(strSQL) Call RunSQL(strSQL, objRecordsetInsert, False, conTimeOut, conServer, conDatabase, conUsername, conPassword) objRecordset.MoveNext Loop End If objRecordset.Close() Set objRecordset = Nothing Set objRecordsetInsert = Nothing End Function Function UpdateTransactions() Dim strSQLUpdateVAT, strSQLUpdateCodes Dim objRecordsetVAT, objRecordsetUpdateCodes strSQLUpdateVAT = "UPDATE query here SET [value:costing output] = ([value:costing output] * -1)" Call RunSQL(strSQLUpdateVAT, objRecordsetVAT, False, conTimeOut, conServer, conDatabase, conUsername, conPassword) strSQLUpdateCodes = "UPDATE query here SET [value:costing output] = ([value:costing output] * -1) different WHERE clause" Call RunSQL(strSQLUpdateCodes, objRecordsetUpdateCodes, False, conTimeOut, conServer, conDatabase, conUsername, conPassword) Set objRecordsetVAT = Nothing Set objRecordsetUpdateCodes = Nothing End Function UDPATE: If I exit the function after I open the connection (see below) it still causes the same error. Function ImportTransactions() Dim objConnection, objCommand, objRecordset, strOracle Dim strSQL, objRecordsetInsert Set objConnection = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") objConnection.Open "DSN=*****;UID=*****;PWD==*****;" Set objCommand = CreateObject("ADODB.Command") Set objRecordset = CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") Exit Function End Function It does both the import and update and seems to throw this error after. Thanks in advance for any help, Clare

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  • document.write Not working when loading external Javascript source

    - by jadent
    I'm trying to load an external JavaScript file dynamically into an HTML element to preview an ad tag. The script loads and executes but the script contains "document.write" which has an issue executing properly but there are no errors. <html> <head> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/2.0.3/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { source = 'http://ib.adnxs.com/ttj?id=555281'; // DOM Insert Approach // ----------------------------------- var script = document.createElement('script'); script.setAttribute('type', 'text/javascript'); script.setAttribute('src', source); document.body.appendChild(script); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> I can get it to work if If i move the the source to the same domain for testing If the script was modified to use document.createElement and appendChild instead of document.write like the code above. I don't have the ability to modify the script since it being generated and hosted by a 3rd party. Does anyone know why the document.write will not work correctly? And is there a way to get around this? Thanks for the help!

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  • Python unittest (using SQLAlchemy) does not write/update database?

    - by Jerry
    Hi, I am puzzled at why my Python unittest runs perfectly fine without actually updating the database. I can even see the SQL statements from SQLAlchemy and step through the newly created user object's email -- ...INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...954c INSERT INTO users (user_id, user_name, email, ...) VALUES (%(user_id)s, %(user_name)s, %(email)s, ...) ...INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...954c {'user_id': u'4cfdafe3f46544e1b4ad0c7fccdbe24a', 'email': u'[email protected]', ...} > .../tests/unit_tests/test_signup.py(127)test_signup_success() -> user = user_q.filter_by(user_name='test').first() (Pdb) n ...INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...954c SELECT users.user_id AS users_user_id, ... FROM users WHERE users.user_name = %(user_name_1)s LIMIT 1 OFFSET 0 ...INFO sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...954c {'user_name_1': 'test'} > .../tests/unit_tests/test_signup.py(128)test_signup_success() -> self.assertTrue(isinstance(user, model.User)) (Pdb) user <pweb.models.User object at 0x9c95b0c> (Pdb) user.email u'[email protected]' Yet at the same time when I login to the test database, I do not see the new record there. Is it some feature from Python/unittest/SQLAlchemy/Pyramid/PostgreSQL that I'm totally unaware of? Thanks. Jerry

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  • How to get MySQL database to appear on index.php

    - by Teddy Truong
    Hi, I have a submission form on my website (index.php) and I have the data(user submissions) being stored into a MySQL database. Right now, I have the user submitting a post and then the page directs them to an update.php which shows what they inputed. However, I want all of the data in the database in MySQL to be shown on the index.php. It's a lot like a comment system. User submits a post... and sees their post above the other submitted posts all on the same page. I think I'm missing AJAX... ? Here is the code for index.php <div align="center"> <p>&nbsp;</p> <h2 align="center" class="Title"><em><strong>REDACTED</strong></em></h2> <form id="form1" name="form1" method="post" action="update.php"> <hr /> <label><br /> <form action="update.php" method="post"> REDACTED: <input type="text" name="text" /> <input type="submit" /> </form> </label> </form> </div> On update.php I have this: ?php $text = $_POST['text']; $myString = "REDACTED"; mysql_connect ("db----.net", "-----3", "------------") or die ('Error: ' . mysql_error()); mysql_select_db ("-----------"); $query="INSERT INTO TextArea (ID, text) VALUES ('NULL', '".$text."')"; mysql_query($query) or die ('Error updating database'); echo " $myString "," $text "; ?> Thanks a lot!

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  • Google Spreadsheet API problem: memory exceeded

    - by Robbert
    Hi guys, Don't know if anyone has experience with the Google Spreadsheets API or the Zend_GData classes but it's worth a go: When I try to insert a value in a 750 row spreadsheet, it takes ages and then throws an error that my memory limit (which is 128 MB!) was exceeded. I also got this when querying all records of this spreadsheet but this I can imaging because it's quite a lot of data. But why does this happen when inserting a row? That's not too complex, is it? Here's the code I used: public function insertIntoSpreadsheet($username, $password, $spreadSheetId, $data = array()) { $service = Zend_Gdata_Spreadsheets::AUTH_SERVICE_NAME; $client = Zend_Gdata_ClientLogin::getHttpClient($username, $password, $service); $client->setConfig(array( 'timeout' => 240 )); $service = new Zend_Gdata_Spreadsheets($client); if (count($data) == 0) { die("No valid data"); } try { $newEntry = $service->insertRow($data, $spreadSheetId); return true; } catch (Exception $e) { return false; } }

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  • Python creating a dictionary and swapping these into another file

    - by satsurae
    Hi all, I have two tab delimited .csv file. From one.csv I have created a dictionary which looks like: 'EB2430': ' "\t"idnD "\t"yjgV "\t"b4267 "\n', 'EB3128': ' "\t"yagE "\t\t"b0268 "\n', 'EB3945': ' "\t"maeB "\t"ypfF "\t"b2463 "\n', 'EB3944': ' "\t"eutS "\t"ypfE "\t"b2462 "\n', I would like to insert the value of the dictionary into the second.csv file which looks like: "EB2430" 36.81 364 222 4 72 430 101 461 1.00E-063 237 "EB3128" 26.04 169 108 6 42 206 17 172 6.00E-006 45.8 "EB3945" 20.6 233 162 6 106 333 33 247 6.00E-005 42.4 "EB3944" 19.07 367 284 6 1 355 1 366 2.00E-023 103 With a resultant output tab delimited: 'EB2430' idnD yjgV b4267 36.81 364 222 4 72 430 101 461 1.00E-063 237 'EB3128' yagE b0268 26.04 169 108 6 42 206 17 172 6.00E-006 45.8 'EB3945' maeB ypfF b2463 20.6 233 162 6 106 333 33 247 6.00E-005 42.4 'EB3944' eutS ypfE b2462 19.07 367 284 6 1 355 1 366 2.00E-023 103 Here is my code for creating the dictionary: f = open ("one.csv", "r") g = open ("second.csv", "r") eb = [] desc = [] di = {} for line in f: for row in f: eb.append(row[1:7]) desc.append(row[7:]) di = dict(zip(eb,desc)) Sorry for it being so long-winded!! I've not been programming for long. Cheers! Sat

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  • Meaning of Execute_priv on mysql.db table

    - by Ben Reisner
    I created user 'restriceduser' on my mysql server that is 'locked down'. The mysql.user table has a N for all priveledges for that account. The mysql.db table has Y for only Select, Insert, Update, Delete, Create, Drop; all other privileges are N for that account. I tried to create a stored procedure and then grant him access to run only that procedure, no others, but it does not work. The user receives: Error: execute command denied to user 'restricteduser'@'%' for routine 'mydb.functionname' The stored procedure: CREATE DEFINER = 'restriceduser'@'%' FUNCTION `functionname`(sIn MEDIUMTEXT, sformat MEDIUMTEXT) RETURNS int(11) NOT DETERMINISTIC CONTAINS SQL SQL SECURITY DEFINER COMMENT '' BEGIN .... END; The grant statement I tried: GRANT EXECUTE ON PROCEDURE mydb.functionname TO 'restricteduser'@'%'; I was able to work around by modifying his mysql.db entry with update mysql.db set execute_priv='Y' where user='restricteduser' This seems to be more then I want, because it opens up permissions for him to run any stored procedure in that database, while I only wanted him to have permissions to run the designated function. Does anyone see where my issue may lie?

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  • Fastest way to modify a decimal-keyed table in MySQL?

    - by javanix
    I am dealing with a MySQL table here that is keyed in a somewhat unfortunate way. Instead of using an auto increment table as a key, it uses a column of decimals to preserve order (presumably so its not too difficult to insert new rows while preserving a primary key and order). Before I go through and redo this table to something more sane, I need to figure out how to rekey it without breaking everything. What I would like to do is something that takes a list of doubles (the current keys) and outputs a list of integers (which can be cast down to doubles for rekeying). For example, input {1.00, 2.00, 2.50, 2.60, 3.00} would give output {1, 2, 3, 4, 5). Since this is a database, I also need to be able to update the rows nicely: UPDATE table SET `key`='3.00' WHERE `key`='2.50'; Can anyone think of a speedy algorithm to do this? My current thought is to read all of the doubles into a vector, take the size of the vector, and output a new vector with values from 1 => doubleVector.size. This seems pretty slow, since you wouldn't want to read every value into the vector if, for instance, only the last n/100 elements needed to be modified. I think there is probably something I can do in place, since only values after the first non-integer double need to be modified, but I can't for the life of me figure anything out that would let me update in place as well. For instance, setting 2.60 to 3.00 the first time you see 2.50 in the original key list would result in an error, since the key value 3.00 is already used for the table.

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