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• Getting entitlement warning while building an Ad Hoc Distribution Bundle for an Iphone App.

  - by nefsu

  I followed Apple's instructions on how to create an Ad Hoc Distrubution bundle but I keep getting what appears to be a fatal Warning during the build process. As per the instructions, I set the signing identity to my distribution profile at the target (instead of the project), created my Entitlement.plist file and unchecked get-task-allow, linked this file to my target and run the build in distribution for device mode. When I do that, the build completes successful but only after giving the following warning. [WARN]CodeSign warning: entitlements are not applicable for product type 'Application' in SDK 'Device - iPhone OS 3.1.2'; ignoring... The last step in the build is the CodeSign and I've noticed that although it ran without errors, it's missing the --entitlement command line option that is given on the official apple instruction guide. Here is my CodeSign line /usr/bin/codesign -f -s "iPhone Distribution: My Name" --resource-rules=/Volumes/Data/projects/xcode/MyAppName/build/Distribution-iphoneos/MyAppName.app/ResourceRules.plist /Volumes/Data/projects/xcode/MyAppName/build/Distribution-iphoneos/MyAppName.app And here is apple's screen shot of what's expected. Can someone please help me figure out if this is something I'm doing wrong because much to my dismay even the dev forum at apple has very little information on this CodeSign warning.

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• Issue Querying LDAP DirectoryEntry in ASP.NET

  - by davemackey

  I have users login to my application via Active Directory and then pull from their AD information to garner information about that user like so: Dim ID as FormsIdentity = DirectCast(User.Identity, FormsIdentity) Dim ticket as FormsAuthenticationTicket = ID.Ticket Dim adDirectory as New DirectoryEntry("LDAP://DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com") Dim adTicketID as String = ticket.Name.Substring(0, 5) Session("people_id") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("employeeID").Value Session("person_name") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("displayName").Value Now, I want to be able to impersonate other users...so that I can "test" the application as them, so I added a textbox and a button to the page and when the button is clicked the text is assigned to a session variable like so: Session("impersonate_user") = TextBox1.Text When the page reloads I check to see if Session("impersonate_user") has a value other than "" and then attempt to query Active Directory using this session variable like so: If CStr(Session("impersonate_user")) <> "" Then Dim adDirectory as New DirectoryEntry(LDAP://DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com") Dim adTicketID as String = CStr(Session("impersonate_user")) Session("people_id") = adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("employeeID").Value Session("person_name")= adDirectory.Children.Find("CN=" & adTicketID).Properties("displayName").Value Else [use the actual ticket.name to get this info.] End If But this doesn't work. Instead, it throws an error on the first Session line stating, "DirectoryServicesCOMException was unhandled by user code There is no such object on the server." Why? I know I'm giving it a valid username! Is something strange happening in the casting of the session? The code is essentially the same between each method except that in one method rather than pulling from ticket.Name I pull from a session variable for the login I'll be looking up with AD.

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• SWFUpload Authentication

  - by durilai

  I am using SWFUpload to do file uploading in a ASP.NET MVC 1.0 website. It is working fine, but I am not able to authenticate the upload method. The HttpContext.User.Identity.Name returns an empty string. I am assuming this is because the Flash movie is making the post. I am also using the wrapper provided here: http://blog.codeville.net/2008/11/24/jquery-ajax-uploader-plugin-with-progress-bar/. The controller action below gets fired, but as mentiond above the user object is not passed. Any help is appreciated! View HTML <form enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post" action="/Media/Upload/Photo"> <input type="file" id="userPhoto_Photo" name="userPhoto_Photo" /> </form> Javascript $(function() { $("#userPhoto").makeAsyncUploader({ upload_url: '/Media/Upload', flash_url: '<%= Url.Content("~/Content/Flash/swfUpload-2.2.0.1.swf") %>', file_size_limit: '1 MB', file_types: '*.jpg; *.png; *.gif', button_action: SWFUpload.BUTTON_ACTION.SELECT_FILE, button_width: 210, button_height: 35, button_image_url: '<%= Url.Content("~/Content/Images/UploadPhoto.png") %>', button_text: '', button_cursor: SWFUpload.CURSOR.HAND, button_window_mode: SWFUpload.WINDOW_MODE.TRANSPARENT }); }); Controller Action [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Upload() { if (Request.Files.Count == 1) { //Upload work } return RedirectToAction("Index", "Profile"); }

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• JSF/Seam - new component instance on submit?

  - by purecharger

  And my confusion with JSF continues. This is a continuation of a question asked yesterday, but I feel it warrants a new question. I have a single seam component that expects a URL parameter to be injected for retrieving a List<String> from a method. This works perfectly on the first navigation to the page. The List is used to display many different selectOneRadio groups that populate a <h:form/>. Now on the submit, I cannot get the URL parameter to be injected or otherwise set on the component! Adding <h:inputHidden/> causes FacesExceptions to be thrown. Then I tried setting the List as an instance variable on the object, and when the subsequent call is made on the submit (which I also do not understand why that is done) I check to see if the variable is non-null: if it isn't, return it. Now I found that a new instance of the component is created on submit!!! getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@5fd98420 #### This is when submit is clicked getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@22aacbce The component has the following annotations: Stateful @Scope(ScopeType.CONVERSATION) @Name("bean") @Restrict("#{identity.loggedIn}") Can someone explain why there is a new instance of the component created? I'm really not quite sure how to go about handling this. I thought the hidden parameter would work, because that is how I would do it with straight HTML, and I'm a little surprised that its not working for JSF/Seam.

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• Linq-to-SQL: How to shape the data with group by?

  - by Cheeso

  I have an example database, it contains tables for Movies, People and Credits. The Movie table contains a Title and an Id. The People table contains a Name and an Id. The Credits table relates Movies to the People that worked on those Movies, in a particular role. The table looks like this: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Credits] ( [Id] [int] IDENTITY (1, 1) NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, [PersonId] [int] NOT NULL FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES People(Id), [MovieId] [int] NOT NULL FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES Movies(Id), [Role] [char] (1) NULL In this simple example, the [Role] column is a single character, by my convention either 'A' to indicate the person was an actor on that particular movie, or 'D' for director. I'd like to perform a query on a particular person that returns the person's name, plus a list of all the movies the person has worked on, and the roles in those movies. If I were to serialize it to json, it might look like this: { "name" : "Clint Eastwood", "movies" : [ { "title": "Unforgiven", "roles": ["actor", "director"] }, { "title": "Sands of Iwo Jima", "roles": ["director"] }, { "title": "Dirty Harry", "roles": ["actor"] }, ... ] } How can I write a LINQ-to-SQL query that shapes the output like that? I'm having trouble doing it efficiently. if I use this query: int personId = 10007; var persons = from p in db.People where p.Id == personId select new { name = p.Name, movies = (from m in db.Movies join c in db.Credits on m.Id equals c.MovieId where (c.PersonId == personId) select new { title = m.Title, role = (c.Role=="D"?"director":"actor") }) }; I get something like this: { "name" : "Clint Eastwood", "movies" : [ { "title": "Unforgiven", "role": "actor" }, { "title": "Unforgiven", "role": "director" }, { "title": "Sands of Iwo Jima", "role": "director" }, { "title": "Dirty Harry", "role": "actor" }, ... ] } ...but as you can see there's a duplicate of each movie for which Eastwood played multiple roles. How can I shape the output the way I want?

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• Designing secure consumer blackberry application

  - by Kiran Kuppa

  I am evaluating a requirement for a consumer blackberry application that places high premium on security of user's data. Seems like it is an insurance company. Here are my ideas on how I could go about it. I am sure this would be useful for others who are looking for similar stuff Force the user to use device password. (I am guessing that this would be possible - though not checked it yet). Application can request notifications when the device is about to be locked and just after it has been unlocked. Encryption of application specific data can be managed at those times. Application data would be encrypted with user's password. User's credentials would be encrypted with device password. Remote backup of the data could be done over HTTPS (any better ideas are appreciated) Questions: What if the user forgets his device password. If the user forgets his application password, what is the best and secure way to reset the password? If the user losses the phone, remote backup must be done and the application data must be cleaned up. I have some ideas on how to achieve (3) and shall share them. There must be an off-line verification of the user's identity and the administrator must provide a channel using which the user must be able to send command to the device to perform the wiping of application data. The idea is that the user is ALWAYS in control of his data. Without the user's consent, even the admin must not be able to do activities such as cleaning up the data. In the above scheme of things, it appears as if the user's password need not be sent over the air to server. Am I correct? Thanks, --Kiran Kumar

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• Zend: Fetching row from session db table after generating session id

  - by Nux

  Hi, I'm trying to update the session table used by Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable directly after authenticating the user and writing the session to the DB. But I can neither update nor fetch the newly inserted row, even though the session id I use to check (Zend_Session::getId()) is valid and the row is indeed inserted into the table. Upon fetching all session ids (on the same request) the one I newly inserted is missing from the results. It does appear in the results if I fetch it with something else. I've checked whether it is a problem with transactions and that does not seem to be the problem - there is no active transaction when I'm fetching the results. I've also tried fetching a few seconds after writing using sleep(), which doesn't help. $auth->getStorage()->write($ident); //sleep(1) $update = $this->db->update('session', array('uid' => $ident->user_id), 'id='.$this->db->quote(Zend_Session::getId())); $qload = 'SELECT id FROM session'; $load = $this->db->fetchAll($qload); echo $qload; print_r($load); $update fails. $load doesn't contain the row that was written with $auth-getStorage()-write($identity). $qload does contain the correct query - copying it to somewhere else leads to the expected result, that is the inserted row is included in the results. Database used is MySQL - InnoDB. If someone knows how to directly fix this (i.e. on the same request, not doing something like updating after redirecting to another page) without modifying Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable: Thank you very much!

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• Adding a custom subview (created in a xib) to a view controller's view - What am I doing wrong

  - by Fran

  I've created a view in a xib (with an activity indicator, a progress view and a label). Then I've created .h/.m files: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface MyCustomView : UIView { IBOutlet UIActivityIndicatorView *actIndicator; IBOutlet UIProgressView *progressBar; IBOutlet UILabel *statusMsg; } @end #import "MyCustomView.h" @implementation MyCustomView - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if ((self = [super initWithFrame:frame])) { // Initialization code } return self; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end In IB, I set the file's owner and view identity to MyCustomView and connect the IBOutlet to the File's owner In MyViewController.m, I've: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; UIView *subView = [[MyCustomView alloc] initWithFrame:myTableView.frame]; [subView setBackgroundColor:[UIColor colorWithRed:0.0 green:0.0 blue:0.0 alpha:0.5]]; [myTableView addSubview:subView]; [subView release]; } When I run the app, the view is added, but I can't see the label, the progress bar and the activity indicator. What am I doing wrong?

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• deadlock because of foreign key?

  - by George2

  Hello everyone, I am using SQL Server 2008 Enterprise. I met with deadlock in the following store procedure, but because of my fault, I did not record the deadlock graph. But now I can not reproduce deadlock issue. I want to have a postmortem to find the root cause of deadlock to avoid deadlock in the future. The deadlock happens on delete statement. For the delete statement, Param1 is a column of table FooTable, Param1 is a foreign key of another table (refers to another primary key clustered index column of the other table). There is no index on Param1 itself for table FooTable. FooTable has another column which is used as clustered primary key, but not Param1 column. Here is my guess why there is deadlock, and I want to let people review whether my analysis is correct? Since Param1 column has no index, there will be a table scan, and will acquire table level lock, because of foreign key, the delete operation will also need to check master table (e.g. to acquire lock on master table); Some operation on master table acquires master table lock, but want to acquire lock on FooTable; (1) and (2) cause cycle lock which makes deadlock happen. My analysis correct? Any reproduce scenario? create PROCEDURE [dbo].[FooProc] ( @Param1 int ,@Param2 int ,@Param3 int ) AS DELETE FooTable WHERE Param1 = @Param1 INSERT INTO FooTable ( Param1 ,Param2 ,Param3 ) VALUES ( @Param1 ,@Param2 ,@Param3 ) DECLARE @ID bigint SET @ID = ISNULL(@@Identity,-1) IF @ID > 0 BEGIN SELECT IdentityStr FROM FooTable WHERE ID = @ID END thanks in advance, George

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• SQL Server 2005, wide indexes, computed columns, and sargable queries

  - by luksan

  In my database, assume we have a table defined as follows: CREATE TABLE [Chemical]( [ChemicalId] int NOT NULL IDENTITY(1,1) PRIMARY KEY, [Name] nvarchar(max) NOT NULL, [Description] nvarchar(max) NULL ) The value for Name can be very large, so we must use nvarchar(max). Unfortunately, we want to create an index on this column, but nvarchar(max) is not supported inside an index. So we create the following computed column and associated index based upon it: ALTER TABLE [Chemical] ADD [Name_Indexable] AS LEFT([Name], 20) CREATE INDEX [IX_Name] ON [Chemical]([Name_Indexable]) INCLUDE([Name]) The index will not be unique but we can enforce uniqueness via a trigger. If we perform the following query, the execution plan results in a index scan, which is not what we want: SELECT [ChemicalId], [Name], [Description] FROM [Chemical] WHERE [Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-2-carboxylic acid, 4'',5-dihydroxy-2'',3-dimethyl-5'',6-bis[(1-oxo-2-propen-1-yl)oxy]-, methyl ester' However, if we modify the query to make it "sargable," then the execution plan results in an index seek, which is what we want: SELECT [ChemicalId], [Name], [Description] FROM [Chemical] WHERE [Indexable_Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-' AND [Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-2-carboxylic acid, 4'',5-dihydroxy-2'',3-dimethyl-5'',6-bis[(1-oxo-2-propen-1-yl)oxy]-, methyl ester' Is this a good solution if we control the format of all queries executed against the database via our middle tier? Is there a better way? Is this a major kludge? Should we be using full-text indexing?

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• Validate domain against LDAP?

  - by lucian.jp

  I have a procedure to get the name of the logged user show on the site. I get it this way : var winIdentity = (WindowsIdentity) HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; if (winIdentity != null) { string domainUser = winIdentity.Name.Replace(@"\", "/"); string domain = winIdentity.Name.Split('\\')[0]; string user = winIdentity.Name.Split('\\')[1]; var myDe = new DirectoryEntry(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["LDAP"].ConnectionString, ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["LDAPCredentials"].Split(';')[0], ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["LDAPCredentials"].Split(';')[1]); var deSearcher = new DirectorySearcher(myDe) {Filter = "(&(sAMAccountName=" + user + "))"}; SearchResult result = deSearcher.FindOne(); if (result != null) { DirectoryEntry userDe = result.GetDirectoryEntry(); lblNameAD.Text = string.Format(lblNameAD.Text, userDe.Properties["givenName"].Value, userDe.Properties["sn"].Value); } else { var adEntry = new DirectoryEntry("WinNT://" + domainUser); string fullname = adEntry.Properties["FullName"].Value.ToString(); lblNameAD.Text = string.Format(lblNameAD.Text, !string.IsNullOrEmpty(fullname) ? fullname : user, null); } } Probleme id that if I have a local useraccount with the same username that one from LDAP, it passes the check and return the name. EX: local\MyUser domain\MyUser Both return the name from AD even if the one from local isn't a domain account. It would be perfect if I could search in LDAP for domainuser, but it seems I can't. I also tried to restrict the DC with the DirectorySearcher but the domain name is "domain", but I only have "dc=dom" and "dc=com" and no DC for full domain name.

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• Google App Engine JDO error caused by GregorianCalendar ?

  - by Frank

  My class looks like this : import javax.jdo.annotations.IdGeneratorStrategy; import javax.jdo.annotations.IdentityType; import javax.jdo.annotations.PersistenceCapable; import javax.jdo.annotations.Persistent; import javax.jdo.annotations.PrimaryKey; @PersistenceCapable(identityType=IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class Contact_Info implements Serializable { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy=IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) Long Id; public static final long serialVersionUID=26362862L; @Persistent String Contact_Id=""; @Persistent GregorianCalendar Date_1; public Contact_Info() { } public void setId(Long value) { Id=value; } public Long getId() { return Id; } public void setContact_Id(String value) { Contact_Id=value; } public String getContact_Id() { return Contact_Id; } public void setDate_1(GregorianCalendar value) { Date_1=value; } public GregorianCalendar getDate_1() { return Date_1; } public String toString() { return Contact_Id; } } When it's run, I got the following error : java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException org.datanucleus.store.appengine.EntityUtils.getPropertyName(EntityUtils.java:62) org.datanucleus.store.appengine.DatastoreFieldManager.storeObjectField(DatastoreFieldManager.java:839) org.datanucleus.state.AbstractStateManager.providedObjectField(AbstractStateManager.java:1037) PayPal_Monitor.Contact_Info.jdoProvideField(Contact_Info.java) PayPal_Monitor.Contact_Info.jdoProvideFields(Contact_Info.java) org.datanucleus.state.JDOStateManagerImpl.provideFields(JDOStateManagerImpl.java:2715) org.datanucleus.store.appengine.DatastorePersistenceHandler.insertPreProcess(DatastorePersistenceHandler.java:341) org.datanucleus.store.appengine.DatastorePersistenceHandler.insertObjects(DatastorePersistenceHandler.java:251) If I take out the "GregorianCalendar Date_1", it works correctly, what should I do to fix it ? I do need the date in it. Frank

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• Get email address from OpenID provider (Janrain openid library)

  - by Moak

  When signing in to stackoverflow with google I get this message Stackoverflow.com is asking for some information from your Google Account [email protected] • Email address: [email protected] However on my site I can log in with openid but I can't ask for the email address. I get this message You are signing in to example.com with your Google Account [email protected] Also I'm finding it hard to know at what step I need to ask for it, here's some code where I think that step should be built into. /** * Authenticates the given OpenId identity. * Defined by Zend_Auth_Adapter_Interface. * * @throws Zend_Auth_Adapter_Exception If answering the authentication query is impossible * @return Zend_Auth_Result */ public function authenticate() { $id = $this->_id; $consumer = new Auth_OpenID_Consumer($this->_storage); if (!empty($id)) { $authRequest = $consumer->begin($id); if (is_null($authRequest)) { return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, $id, array("Authentication failed", 'Unknown error')); } if (Auth_OpenID::isFailure($authRequest)) { return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, $id, array("Authentication failed", "Could not redirect to server: " . $authRequest->message)); } $redirectUrl = $authRequest->redirectUrl($this->_root, $this->_returnTo); if (Auth_OpenID::isFailure($redirectUrl)) { return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, $id, array("Authentication failed", $redirectUrl->message)); } Zend_OpenId::redirect($redirectUrl); } else { $response = $consumer->complete(Zend_OpenId::selfUrl()); switch($response->status) { case Auth_OpenID_CANCEL: case Auth_OpenID_FAILURE: return new Zend_Auth_Result( Zend_Auth_Result::FAILURE, null, array("Authentication failed. " . @$response->message)); break; case Auth_OpenID_SUCCESS: return $this->_constructSuccessfulResult($response); break; } } } It seems like such an obvious thing but I'm having a hard time googling and combing through the code just to find this. Thanks!

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• Value objects in DDD - Why immutable?

  - by Hobbes

  I don't get why value objects in DDD should be immutable, nor do I see how this is easily done. (I'm focusing on C# and Entity Framework, if that matters.) For example, let's consider the classic Address value object. If you needed to change "123 Main St" to "123 Main Street", why should I need to construct a whole new object instead of saying myCustomer.Address.AddressLine1 = "123 Main Street"? (Even if Entity Framework supported structs, this would still be a problem, wouldn't it?) I understand (I think) the idea that value objects don't have an identity and are part of a domain object, but can someone explain why immutability is a Good Thing? EDIT: My final question here really should be "Can someone explain why immutability is a Good Thing as applied to Value Objects?" Sorry for the confusion! EDIT: To clairfy, I am not asking about CLR value types (vs reference types). I'm asking about the higher level DDD concept of Value Objects. For example, here is a hack-ish way to implement immutable value types for Entity Framework: http://rogeralsing.com/2009/05/21/entity-framework-4-immutable-value-objects. Basically, he just makes all setters private. Why go through the trouble of doing this?

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• [hibernate - jpa] @CollectionOfElements without create the apposite table

  - by blow

  Hi all. I have this: Municipality class @Entity public class Municipality implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Long id; private String country; private String province; private String name; @Column(name="cod_catasto") private String codCatastale; private String cap; @CollectionOfElements private List<Address> addressList; public Municipality() { } ... Address class @Embeddable public class Address implements Serializable { @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.LAZY) @Cascade(CascadeType.SAVE_UPDATE) private Municipality municipality; @Column(length=45) private String address; public Address() { } ... Address is embedded in another class Person. When i save an instance of Person, hibernate create 3 tables: PERSON, MUNICIPALITY and MUNICIPALITY_ADDRESSLIST. MUNICIPALITY_ADDRESSLIST contains 2 fields: MUNICIPALITY_ID (FK) and STREET. I don't want this table, i only want the ID of table MUNICIPALITY into table PERSON(that embeds Address), what should i do? I tried to add @JoinTable in Municipality entity like this: @CollectionOfElements @JoinTable(name="person") private List<Address> addressList; It partially worked, but i cant choose the column name of table PERSON that contains ID of the table MUNICIPALITY, it is, by hibernate choose, simply "MUNICIPALITY_ID"... Thbaks.

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• Error while updating Database record with Entity Framework on ASP.NET MVC Page

  - by Rupa

  Hi I have an ASP.NET Page that updates registered User Address Details for a selected record. Below is the Update method that i am calling from Controller. When i am calling ApplyPropertyChanges method, I am getting the below error. Did anyone run into the same error while updating the record with Entity Framework. Appreciate your responses. Error Message: The existing object in the ObjectContext is in the Added state. Changes can only be applied when the existing object is in an unchanged or modified state. My Update Method Code: [HttpPost] public bool UpdateAddressDetail([Bind(Prefix = "RegUser")] AddressDetail regUserAddress, FormCollection formData) { regUserAddress.AD_Id = 3; regUserAddress.LastUpdated = HttpContext.User.Identity.Name; regUserAddress.UpdatedOn = DateTime.Now; regUserAddress.AddressType = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).AddressType ?? "Primary"; regUserAddress.Phone = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).Phone; regUserAddress.Country = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).AddressType ?? "USA"; miEntity.ApplyPropertyChanges(regUserAddress.EntityKey.EntitySetName, regUserAddress); miEntity.SaveChanges(); return true; }

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• Windows Mobile : How to bind dropdown's selectedvalue to a column in table A and the list data to a

  - by Rob

  Hi, I am trying to learn the basics of Windows Mobile development against SQL CE and have come across a basic problem. I have two tables. One called Customers that stores customer info and has an identity column called ID as the primary key. The other table is called Orders which has a column called CustomerID (the FK constraint is present). I have added a DataSet to the project that contains both tables and have autogenerated the edit/view forms. This has produced a text control for the CustomerID column in the Order table for the new/edit form and I deleted it and replaced it with a dropdown list. Then, using the 'Advanced' databinding options (in Properties) I set the datasource of the list to the Customers table setting the value to the ID field and the text to the CustomerName field. I then set the SelectedValue of the list box to the CustomerID field of the Orders dataset. So far so good. When I run the app in the emulator and view the 'New' form for Orders the Customer dropdown is indeed populated with a list of customer names and I can select one and happily create a new order successfully. This is confirmed when I see the order appear in the Orders Grid form. However, when I then click on the order in the grid and then select 'Edit' the order loads but the dropdown always shows the first customer in the list and doesn't seem to bind the SelectedValue to the Orders dataset CustomerID field. Now I am an ASP.NET guy and normally hand craft the DAL and it's binding to the UI so I'm not entirely sure where to look to investigate what is going wrong here as this is all generated code. I am sure it is something very trivial but any pointers would be appreciated. My gut feeling is that the SelectedValue and the Customers.CustomerID values do not match for some reason? Many thanks, Rob.

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• Global.asax parser errors when deploying MVC 1 application to remote server.

  - by mannish

  So we're having some issues deploying an ASP.NET MVC app to a client site. Basically when we try to test the app from localhost, we get the dreaded Global.asax parser error indicating it could not load the application global. Research indicates there are basically 4 possible reasons for this exception we're seeing: The solution hasn't been built. This clearly isn't the case since we can deploy it here and it runs fine on any machine we deploy to AND we had to build and publish the darn thing to deploy it anyway. The Global.asax namespace inheritance does not match the application global code file. Again we double checked this and since it runs just fine here that can't be the issue. Miscellaneous non-descript IIS/VS.NET mischief. Basically something get's wonky in IIS or VS.NET and the web server won't behave correctly for this application. We've done cleans and rebuilds, we've deleted virtual dir and recreated, and performed all of the IIS munging that we've found elsewhere online. Various combinations of IIS bounces, server reboots, virtual dir/application recreation, etc. Code level permissions issue. We've verified full trust in machine/web config in the framework directory, we've set .NET trust to full in IIS, we've granted Everyone full control on the directories just to hit it with the security hammer, etc. etc. The pertinent detials: Windows Server 2008 x64 IIS 7, 32 bit compatible app pool (app was written on 32 bit OS compiled for any cpu) App pool identity set to NetworkService Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 1.0 XCopy deployment We deployed another read-only app just fine. The significant difference in this app is the use of NHibernate and Log4Net which require full trust. Additionally, the actual project name of the web project differs from the default namespace however the Inherits namespace in Global.asax and the Global.asax.cs files match so this shouldn't be an issue. Anybody have any bright ideas? We're officially down to just the dim ones.

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• Bilinear interpolation - DirectX vs. GDI+

  - by holtavolt

  I have a C# app for which I've written GDI+ code that uses Bitmap/TextureBrush rendering to present 2D images, which can have various image processing functions applied. This code is a new path in an application that mimics existing DX9 code, and they share a common library to perform all vector and matrix (e.g. ViewToWorld/WorldToView) operations. My test bed consists of DX9 output images that I compare against the output of the new GDI+ code. A simple test case that renders to a viewport that matches the Bitmap dimensions (i.e. no zoom or pan) does match pixel-perfect (no binary diff) - but as soon as the image is zoomed up (magnified), I get very minor differences in 5-10% of the pixels. The magnitude of the difference is 1 (occasionally 2)/256. I suspect this is due to interpolation differences. Question: For a DX9 ortho projection (and identity world space), with a camera perpendicular and centered on a textured quad, is it reasonable to expect DirectX.Direct3D.TextureFilter.Linear to generate identical output to a GDI+ TextureBrush filled rectangle/polygon when using the System.Drawing.Drawing2D.InterpolationMode.Bilinear setting? For this (magnification) case, the DX9 code is using this (MinFilter,MipFilter set similarly): Device.SetSamplerState(0, SamplerStageStates.MagFilter, (int)TextureFilter.Linear); and the GDI+ path is using: g.InterpolationMode = InterpolationMode.Bilinear; I thought that "Bilinear Interpolation" was a fairly specific filter definition, but then I noticed that there is another option in GDI+ for "HighQualityBilinear" (which I've tried, with no difference - which makes sense given the description of "added prefiltering for shrinking") Followup Question: Is it reasonable to expect pixel-perfect output matching between DirectX and GDI+ (assuming all external coordinates passed in are equal)? If not, why not? Finally, there are a number of other APIs I could be using (Direct2D, WPF, GDI, etc.) - and this question generally applies to comparing the output of "equivalent" bilinear interpolated output images across any two of these. Thanks!

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• Adding a minimum display time for Silverlight splash screen.

  - by David

  When hosting a silverlight application on a webpage it is possible to use the splashscreensource parameter to specify a simple Silverlight 1.0 (xaml+javascript) control to be displayed while the real xap file is downloaded, and which can receive notification of the downloads progress through onSourceDownloadProgressChanged. If the xap file is in cache, the splash screen is not shown (and if the download only takes 1 second, the splash screen will only be shown for 1 second). I know this is not best practice in general, but I am looking for a way to specify a minimum display time for the splash screen - even if the xap cached or the download is fast, the splash screen would remain up for at least, let's say, 5 seconds (for example to show a required legal disclaimer, corporate identity mark or other bug). I do want to do it in the splash screen exclusively (rather then in the main xap) as I want it to be clean and uninterupted (for example a sound bug) and shown to the user as soon as they open the page, rather then after the download (which could take anywhere from 1 to 20+ seconds). I'd prefer not to accomplish this with preloading - replacing the splash screen with a full Silverlight xap application (with it's own loading screen), which then programmably loads and displays the full xap after a minimum wait time.

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• Passing a URL as a URL parameter

  - by Andrea

  I am implementing OpenId login in a CakePHP application. At a certain point, I need to redirect to another action, while preserving the information about the OpenId identity, which is itself a URL (with GET parameters), for instance https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=31g2iy321i3y1idh43q7tyYgdsjhd863Es How do I pass this data? The first attempt would be function openid() { ... $this->redirect(array('controller' => 'users', 'action' => 'openid_create', $openid)); } but the obvious problem is that this completely messes up the way CakePHP parses URL parameters. I'd need to do either of the following: 1) encode the URL in a CakePHP friendly manner for passing it, and decoding it after that, or 2) pass the URL as a POST parameter but I don't know how to do this. EDIT: In response to comments, I should be more clear. I am using the OpenId component, and I have a working OpenId implementation. What I need to do is to link OpenId with an existing user system. When a new user logs in via OpenId, I ask for more details, and then create a new user with this data. The problem is that I have to keep the OpenId URL throughout this process.

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• Is Google the only OpenID provider that requires "identifier_select"?

  - by Skrat

  I am developing an OpenID consumer in PHP and am using the fantastic LightOpenID library (http://gitorious.org/lightopenid). Basing my code off of that found in the example client script I have successfully created a consumer. However, I've run across a snag: Google requires the openid.identity and openid.claimed_id to be set to "http://specs.openid.net/auth/2.0/identifier_select" (see here). If I do that it works but other providers (i.e. AOL) don't. Here are my questions: Is Google a corner case –– is it the only OpenID provider where identifier_select is required, contrary to the OpenID specs? Is there a shortcoming in the LightOpenID library? Is my understanding of how OpenID works incorrect? If Google is not the only provider that requires identifier_select are there a finite number of them which I'll just hardcode in, or is there someway to determine this through the OpenID spec? I'm new to the internals of OpenID so I wouldn't be surprised if this is a dumb question. I haven't been able to find any info on this subject after scouring the Internet.

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• How to assign a table view controller to a table view on iPhone?

  - by Tattat

  I have a CharTableController, View and TableView on my IB. The CharTableController is using "CharTableController" in class identity. And this is how I implemented in the .h, and I want use the "CharTableController" to control the table only: @interface CharTableController : UITableViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource>{ // IBOutlet UILabel *debugLabel; NSArray *listData; } //@property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UILabel *debugLabel; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSArray *listData; @end It is the .m: #import "CharTableController.h" @implementation CharTableController @synthesize listData; - (void)viewDidLoad { //NSLog(@"bulll"); // [debugLabel setText:@"success"]; NSArray *array = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"A", @"B", @"C", @"D", @"E", nil]; self.listData = array; [array release]; [super viewDidLoad]; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return [self.listData count]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *SimpleTableIdentifier = @"SimpleTableIdentifier"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier: SimpleTableIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:SimpleTableIdentifier] autorelease]; NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; cell.textLabel.text = [listData objectAtIndex:row]; } return cell; } @end In the IB, I already assign the CharTableController's view to Table View in IB. And Table View is under the View, in IB. After I run the program, I can see the table view, but I can't see any char in the table view, why? What's wrong with my code? thz.

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• Discriminator based on joined property

  - by Andrew

  Suppose I have this relationship: abstract class Base { int Id; int JoinedId; ... } class Joined { int Id; int Discriminator; ... } class Sub1 : Base { ... } class Sub2 : Base { ... } for the following tables: table Base ( Id int, JoinedId int, ... ) table Joined ( Id int, Discriminator int, ... ) I would like to set up a table-per-hierarchy inheritance mapping for the Base, Sub1, Sub2 relationships, but using the Disciminator property from the Joined class as the discriminator. Here's the general idea for the mapping file: <class name="Base" table="Base"> <id name="Id"><generator class="identity"/></id> <discriminator /> <!-- ??? or <join> or <many-to-one>? --> <subclass name="Sub1" discriminator-value="1">...</subclass> <subclass name="Sub2" discriminator-value="2">...</subclass> </class> Is there any way of accomplishing something like this with the <discriminator>, <join>, or <many-to-one>? NHiberante seems to assume the discriminator is a column on the given table (which makes sense to me.. I know this is unorthodox). Thanks.

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• How to use generic (NSObject) controller with subviews of a UIViewController?

  - by wanderlust

  I have a UIViewController that is loading several subviews at different times based on user interaction. I originally built all of these subviews in code, with no nib files. Now I am moving to nib files with custom UIView subclasses. Some of these subviews display static data, and I am using loadNibNamed:owner:options: to load them into the view controller. Others contain controls that I need to access. I (sort of) understand the reasons Apple says to use one view controller per screen of content, using generic controller objects (NSObjects) to manage subsections of a screen. So I need a view controller, a generic controller, a view class and a nib. How do I put this all together? My working assumptions and subsequent questions: I will associate the view class with the nib in the 'class identity' drop down in IB. The view controller will coordinate overall screen interactions. When necessary, it will create an instance of the generic controller. Does the generic controller load the nib? How? Do I define the outlets and actions in that view class, or should they be in the generic controller? How do I pass messages between the view controller and the generic controller? If anyone can point me to some sample code using a controller in this way, it will go a long way to helping me understand. None of the books or stackoverflow posts I've read have quite hit the spot yet.

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