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  • Nhibernate Fluent domain Object with Id(x => x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned not saveable

    - by urpcor
    Hi there, I am using for some legacy db the corresponding domainclasses with mappings. Now the Ids of the entities are calculated by some stored Procedure in the DB which gives back the Id for the new row.(Its legacy, I cant change this) Now I create the new entity , set the Id and Call Save. But nothing happens. no exeption. Even NH Profiler does not say a bit. its as the Save call does nothing. I expect that NH thinks that the record is already in the db because its got an Id already. But I am using Id(x = x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned() and intetionally the Session.Save(object) method. I am confused. I saw so many samples there it worked. does any body have any ideas about it? public class Appendix { public virtual int id { get; set; } public virtual AppendixHierarchy AppendixHierachy { get; set; } public virtual byte[] appendix { get; set; } } public class AppendixMap : ClassMap<Appendix> { public AppendixMap () { WithTable("appendix"); Id(x => x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned(); References(x => x.AppendixHierachy).ColumnName("appendixHierarchyId"); Map(x => x.appendix); } }

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  • Microsoft JScript runtime error Object doesn't support this property or method

    - by Darxval
    So i am trying to call this function in my javascript but it gives me the error of "Microsoft JScript runtime error Object doesn't support this property or method" and i cant figure out why. It is occuring when trying to call hmacObj.getHMAC. This is from the jsSHA website: http://jssha.sourceforge.net/ to use the hmac-sha1 algorithm encryption. Thank you! hmacObj = new jsSHA(signature_base_string,"HEX"); signature = hmacObj.getHMAC("hgkghk","HEX","SHA-1","HEX"); Above this i have copied the code from sha.js snippet: function jsSHA(srcString, inputFormat) { /* * Configurable variables. Defaults typically work */ jsSHA.charSize = 8; // Number of Bits Per character (8 for ASCII, 16 for Unicode) jsSHA.b64pad = ""; // base-64 pad character. "=" for strict RFC compliance jsSHA.hexCase = 0; // hex output format. 0 - lowercase; 1 - uppercase var sha1 = null; var sha224 = null; The function it is calling (inside of the jsSHA function) (snippet) this.getHMAC = function (key, inputFormat, variant, outputFormat) { var formatFunc = null; var keyToUse = null; var blockByteSize = null; var blockBitSize = null; var keyWithIPad = []; var keyWithOPad = []; var lastArrayIndex = null; var retVal = null; var keyBinLen = null; var hashBitSize = null; // Validate the output format selection switch (outputFormat) { case "HEX": formatFunc = binb2hex; break; case "B64": formatFunc = binb2b64; break; default: return "FORMAT NOT RECOGNIZED"; }

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  • Import CSV to class structure as the user defines

    - by Assimilater
    I have a contact manager program and I would like to offer the feature to import csv files. The problem is that different data sources order the fields in different ways. I thought of programming an interface for the user to tell it the field order and how to handle exceptions. Here is an example line in one of many possible field orders: "ID#","Name","Rank","Address1","Address2","City","State","Country","Zip","Phone#","Email","Join Date","Sponsor ID","Sponsor Name" "Z1234","Call, Anson","STU","1234 E. 6578 S.","","Somecity","TX","United States","012345","000-000-0000","[email protected]","5/24/2010","z12343","Quantum Independence" Notice that in one data field "Name" there is a comma to separate last name and first name and in another there is not. My plan is to have a line for each field (ie ID, Name, City etc.) and a statement "import to" and list box with options like: Don't Import, BusinessJoin Date, First Name, Zip and the program recognizes those as properties of an object... I'd also like the user to be able to record preset field orders so they can re-use them for csv files from the same download source. Then I also need it to check if a record all ready exists (is there a record for Anson Call all ready?) and allow the user to tell it what to do if there is a record (ie mailing address may have changes, so if that field is filled overwrite it, or this mailing address is invalid, leave the current data untouched for this person, overwrite the rest). While I'm capable of coding this...i'm not very excited about it and I'm wondering if there's a tool or set of tools out there to all ready perform most of this functionality... I hope this makes sense...

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  • merging two tables, while applying aggregates on the duplicates (max,min and sum)

    - by cloudraven
    I have a table (let's call it log) with a few millions of records. Among the fields I have Id, Count, FirstHit, LastHit. Id - The record id Count - number of times this Id has been reported FirstHit - earliest timestamp with which this Id was reported LastHit - latest timestamp with which this Id was reported This table only has one record for any given Id Everyday I get into another table (let's call it feed) with around half a million records with these fields among many others: Id Timestamp - Entry date and time. This table can have many records for the same id What I want to do is to update log in the following way. Count - log count value, plus the count() of records for that id found in feed FirstHit - the earliest of the current value in log or the minimum value in feed for that id LastHit - the latest of the current value in log or the maximum value in feed for that id. It should be noticed that many of the ids in feed are already in log. The simple thing that worked is to create a temporary table and insert into it the union of both as in Select Id, Min(Timestamp) As FirstHit, MAX(Timestamp) as LastHit, Count(*) as Count FROM feed GROUP BY Id UNION ALL Select Id, FirstHit,LastHit,Count FROM log; From that temporary table I do a select that aggregates Min(firsthit), max(lasthit) and sum(Count) Select Id, Min(FirstHit),Max(LastHit),Sum(Count) FROM @temp GROUP BY Id; and that gives me the end result. I could then delete everything from log and replace it with everything with temp, or craft an update for the common records and insert the new ones. However, I think both are highly inefficient. Is there a more efficient way of doing this. Perhaps doing the update in place in the log table?

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  • PHP Check slave status without mysql_connect timeout issues

    - by Jonathon
    I have a web-app that has a master mysql db and four slave dbs. I want to handle all (or almost all) read-only (SELECT) queries from the slaves. Our load-balancer sends the user to one of the slave machines automatically, since they are also running Apache/PHP and serving webpages. I am using an include file to setup the connection to the databases, such as: //for master server (i.e. - UPDATE/INSERT/DELETE statements) $Host = "10.0.0.x"; $User = "xx"; $Password = "xx"; $Link = mysql_connect( $Host, $User, $Password ); if( !$Link ) ) { die( "Master database is currently unavailable. Please try again later." ); } //this connection can be used for READ-ONLY (i.e. - SELECT statements) on the localhost $Host_Local = "localhost"; $User_Local = "xx"; $Password_Local = "xx"; $Link_Local = mysql_connect( $Host_Local, $User_Local, $Password_Local ); //fail back to master if slave db is down if( !$Link_Local ) ) { $Link_Local = mysql_connect( $Host, $User, $Password ); } I then use $Link for all update queries and $Link_Local as the connection for SELECT statements. Everything works fine until the slave server database goes down. If the local db is down, the $Link_Local = mysql_connect() call takes at least 30 seconds before it gives up on trying to connect to the localhost and returns back to the script. This causes a huge backlog of page serves and basically shuts down the system (due to the extremely slow response time). Does anyone know of a better way to handle connections to slave servers via PHP? Or, is there some kind of timeout function that could be used to stop the mysql_connect call after 2-3 seconds? Thanks for the help. I searched the other mysql_connect threads, but didn't see any that addressed this issue.

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  • Accurately and securely measure the time spent viewing a web page

    - by balpha
    Suppose the following: You have a web page that presents a simple game to a user (e.g. a quiz, a puzzle, etc). The user solves the puzzle, submits the result, and you want to measure as precisely as possible how long they took to solve it. Assume it's quite simple, so we're talking seconds, not hours. Also assume JavaScript is required anyway, so there's no need to think of JS-disabled browsers. Finally, assume we don't want to use anything like Flash, Silverlight, or the like. I can think of several techniques: Simply take the time between the points when the data was sent from the server and when the submission arrives. Since this is exclusively server-side, there's no chance for cheating. However, issues like network latency and page rendering time might make this unfair for users with slow computers / browsers / internet connections. On the first request, just send the page without the actual game data. When everything is loaded so far, retrieve the game data through an AJAX call and populate it into the page. This is similar to 1., but reduces some of the caveats introduced through time spent on overhead. Have the time measured on the client side using JavaScript and submitted alongside with the solution. This would theoretically be the most accurate, but it introduces the possibility of cheating, because you're relying on client data. Use the request time headers of a "ready to play" AJAX call and the result submission request. Same caveat as 3., as it is still client data. A combination of server side and client side measuring with some kind of plausibility analysis. I can't think of a good way, but maybe you can. Thoughts? Other ideas?

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  • Stored Procedure: Reducing Table Data

    - by SumGuy
    Hi Guys, A simple question about Stored Procedures. I have one stored procedure collecting a whole bunch of data in a table. I then call this procedure from within another stored procedure. I can copy the data into a new table created in the calling procedure but as far as I can see the tables have to be identical. Is this right? Or is there a way to insert only the data I want? For example.... I have one procedure which returns this: SELECT @batch as Batch, @Count as Qty, pd.Location, cast(pd.GL as decimal(10,3)) as [Length], cast(pd.GW as decimal(10,3)) as Width, cast(pd.GT as decimal(10,3)) as Thickness FROM propertydata pd GROUP BY pd.Location, pd.GL, pd.GW, pd.GT I then call this procedure but only want the following data: DECLARE @BatchTable TABLE ( Batch varchar(50), [Length] decimal(10,3), Width decimal(10,3), Thickness decimal(10,3), ) INSERT @BatchTable (Batch, [Length], Width, Thickness) EXEC dbo.batch_drawings_NEW @batch So in the second command I don't want the Qty and Location values. However the code above keeps returning the error: "Insert Error: Column name or number of supplied values does not match table"

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  • Compiler turning a string& into a basic_string<>&

    - by Shtong
    Hello I'm coming back to C++ after long years spent on other technologies and i'm stuck on some weird behavior when calling some methods taking std::string as parameters : An example of call : LocalNodeConfiguration *LocalNodeConfiguration::ReadFromFile(std::string & path) { // ... throw configuration_file_error(string("Configuration file empty"), path); // ... } When I compile I get this (I cropped file names for readability) : /usr/bin/g++ -g -I/home/shtong/Dev/OmegaNoc/build -I/usr/share/include/boost-1.41.0 -o CMakeFiles/OmegaNocInternals.dir/configuration/localNodeConfiguration.cxx.o -c /home/shtong/Dev/OmegaNoc/source/configuration/localNodeConfiguration.cxx .../localNodeConfiguration.cxx: In static member function ‘static OmegaNoc::LocalNodeConfiguration* OmegaNoc::LocalNodeConfiguration::ReadFromFile(std::string&)’: .../localNodeConfiguration.cxx:72: error: no matching function for call to ‘OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(std::string, std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> >&)’ .../configurationManager.hxx:25: note: candidates are: OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(std::string&, std::string&) .../configurationManager.hxx:22: note: OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(const OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error&) So as I understand it, the compiler is considering that my path parameter turned into a basic_string at some point, thus not finding the constructor overload I want to use. But I don't really get why this transformation happened. Some search on the net suggested me to use g++ but I was already using it. So any other advice would be appreciated :) Thanks

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  • C++ - Basic WinAPI question

    - by HardCoder1986
    Hello! I am now working on a some sort of a game engine and I had an idea to put everything engine-related into a static library and then link it to my actual problem. Right now I achieved it and actually link that library and every functions seem to work fine, except those, which are windows-related. I have a chunk of code in my library that looks like this: hWnd = CreateWindow(className, "Name", WS_OVERLAPPED | WS_CAPTION | WS_EX_TOPMOST, 0, 0, 800, 600, NULL, NULL, GetModuleHandle(NULL), this); if (hWnd) { ShowWindow(hWnd, SW_NORMAL); UpdateWindow(hWnd); } else { MessageBox(NULL, "Internal program error", "Error", MB_OK | MB_ICONERROR); return; } When this code was not in the library, but in the actual project, it worked fine, created the window and everything was ok. Right now (when I'm linking to my library that contains this code) CreateWindow(...) call returns NULL and GetLastError() returns "Operation succesfully completed" (wtf?). Could anybody help me with this? Is it possible to create a window and display it using a static library call and why could my code fail? Thank you.

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  • Access is denied. Javascript error on request to secured page

    - by ihorko
    On SomePage.aspx page by javascript (XMLHttpRequest) I call SecuredPage.aspx used next code: var httpRequest = GetXmlHttp(); var url = "https://myhost.com/SecuredPage.aspx"; var params = "param1=" + document.getElementById('param1').value + "&param2=" + document.getElementById('param2').value; httpRequest.open("POST", url, true); httpRequest.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); httpRequest.onreadystatechange = function() { //Call a function when the state changes. if (httpRequest.readyState == 4 && httpRequest.status == 200) { alert(httpRequest.responseText); } } httpRequest.send(params); // HERE ACCESS IS DENIED //--------------------------------------------- function GetXmlHttp() { var xmlhttp = false; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); } else if (window.ActiveXObject) // code for IE { try { xmlhttp = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) { try { xmlhttp = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } catch (E) { xmlhttp = false; } } } return xmlhttp; } It throws Access is denied error. if send to http (http://myhost.com/SecuredPage.aspx), it works fine. How is it possible to resolve that problem. Thanks!

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  • How do I change the viewport of a window in win32?

    - by Colen
    Hi, I have a window with child windows inside in it. The child windows take up about 1000 pixels of vertical space. However, our users don't always have 1000 pixels of vertical space available - they might have as little as 500 or 600 pixels. I want to be able to display this window at a size of 500 pixels high, and have the user "scroll" up and down the window to see the full contents. The window should always be 500 pixels high, but the view within it should change. Assume I can add a scroll bar somewhere so the user can choose which part of the window he wants to see. Windows will normally paint the window contents from height 0 to height 500; how do I tell it instead to "paint from height 250 to height 750", for example? I know that I can set the viewport with functions like SetViewportOrgEx etc, but those functions require a device context - when do I call them if I want them to be "permanent"? Do I call them when I get the WM_PAINT message from windows? Or at some other time? And which functions from that family do I want to use? Thanks.

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  • Drools - Doing Complex Stuff inside a Rule Condition or Consequence

    - by mfcabrera
    Hello, In my company we are planning to use Drools a BRE for couple of projects. Now we trying to define some best-practices. My question is what should be and shouldn't be done inside a Rule Condition/Consequence. Given that we can write Java directly or call methods (for example From a Global object in the Working Memory). Example. Given a Rule that evaluates a generic Object (e.g. Person) have property set to true. Now, that specific propertie can only be defined for that Object going to the database and fetching that info. So we have two ways of implementing that: Alternative A: Go to the database and fetch the object property (true/false, a code) Insert the Object in the working memory Evaluate the rule Alternative B: Insert a Global Object that has a method that connects to the database and check for the property for the given object. Insert the Object to eval in Working Memory In the rule, call the Global Object and perform the access to the database Which of those is considered better? I really like A, but sometimes B is more straightforward, however what would happen if something like a Exception from the Database is raised? I have seen the alternative B implemented in the Drools 5.0 Book from Packt Publishing,however they are doing a mocking and they don't talk about the actual implications of going to the database at all. Thank you,

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  • unexpected behaviour of object stored in web service Session

    - by draconis
    Hi. I'm using Session variables inside a web service to maintain state between successive method calls by an external application called QBWC. I set this up by decorating my web service methods with this attribute: [WebMethod(EnableSession = true)] I'm using the Session variable to store an instance of a custom object called QueueManager. The QueueManager has a property called ChangeQueue which looks like this: [Serializable] public class QueueManager { ... public Queue<QBChange> ChangeQueue { get; set; } ... where QBChange is a custom business object belonging to my web service. Now, every time I get a call to a method in my web service, I use this code to retrieve my QueueManager object and access my queue: QueueManager qm = (QueueManager)Session[ticket]; then I remove an object from the queue, using qm.dequeue() and then I save the modified query manager object (modified because it contains one less object in the queue) back to the Session variable, like so: Session[ticket] = qm; ready for the next web service method call using the same ticket. Now here's the thing: if I comment out this last line //Session[ticket] = qm; , then the web service behaves exactly the same way, reducing the size of the queue between method calls. Now why is that? The web service seems to be updating a class contained in serialized form in a Session variable without being asked to. Why would it do that? When I deserialize my Queuemanager object, does the qm variable hold a reference to the serialized object inside the Session[ticket] variable?? This seems very unlikely.

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  • Am I doing AS3 reference cleanup correctly?

    - by Ólafur Waage
    In one frame of my fla file (let's call it frame 2), I load a few xml files, then send that data into a class that is initialized in that frame, this class creates a few timers and listeners. Then when this class is done doing it's work. I call a dispatchEvent and move to frame 3. This frame does some things as well, it's initialized and creates a few event listeners and timers. When it's done, I move to frame 2 again. This is supposed to repeat as often as I need so I need to clean up the references correctly and I'm wondering if I'm doing it correctly. For sprites I do this. world.removeChild(Background); // world is the parent stage Background = null; For instances of other classes I do this. Players[i].cleanUp(world); // do any cleanup within the instanced class world.removeChild(PlayersSelect[i]); For event listeners I do this. if(Background != null) { Background.removeEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, deSelectPlayer); } For timers I do this. if(Timeout != null) { Timeout.stop(); Timeout.removeEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER, queueHandler); Timeout.removeEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER_COMPLETE, queueCompleted); Timeout = null; } And for library images I do this if(_libImage!= null) { s.removeChild(Images._libImage); // s is the stage _libImage= null; } And for the class itself in the main timeline, I do this Frame2.removeEventListener("Done", IAmDone); Frame2.cleanUp(); // the cleanup() does all the stuff above Frame2= null; Even if I do all this, when I get to frame 2 for the 2nd time, it runs for 1-2 seconds and then I get a lot of null reference errors because the cleanup function is called prematurely. Am I doing the cleanup correctly? What can cause events to fire prematurely?

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  • Jquery Ajax + PHP

    - by Kris.Mitchell
    I am having problems with jQuery Ajax and PHP I have my php file set up to echo the data I am gathering from a mysql database. I have verified that the database is returning something and that the string at the end of the function actually contains data. What is happening though, is that it looks like the php echo is happening before the ajax call, causing the php data to be displayed at the top of the page, and not below in proper div. I think it might have something to do with timing of the ajax and the php call, but I am not sure. So, why is the data not getting caught by the .ajax and thrown into the div? Thanks for the help! jQuery $(document).ready(function() { $.ajax({ url: "../database_functions.php", type: "GET", data: "cat=jw&sub=pi&sort=no", cache: false, success: function (html) { alert("Success!"); $('#product-list').html(html); } }); }); PHP echo "Hello World";

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  • Problem with function calls [javascript]

    - by Samuel
    <script language="javascript"> function toggle(id) { alert('call'); if (document.getElementById(id).style.display == "none") { alert('now visible'); document.getElementById(id).style.display = ""; } else { alert('now invisible'); document.getElementById(id).style.display = "none"; } } </script> </head> <body onload="toggle('image1');alert('test_body');toggle('image2')"> <script language="javascript"> alert('test_pre_function'); toggle('image1'); alert('test_after_function'); toggle('image2'); </script> Looks like a lot of code but it's pretty simple so i think most of you won't have troubles with it. toggle() should toggle the display status of divs containing images. When the user enters the site the divs should hide, when everything is loaded the divs should show up. (onload) Strangely enough, the funtion in the body (not in the body tag) only work half, i get and alert 'test_pre_function' and i get an alert 'call' (out of the function), but that's it. The code in the body tag runs just fine. I find this weird because it's supposed to do exactly the same twice and one time it runs, another time not, so i guess i must have made some stupid mistake. Thanks for any help!

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  • How would a user stay logged in to a REST-based website?

    - by unforgiven3
    A year or so ago I asked this question: Can you help me understand this? “Common REST Mistakes: Sessions are irrelevant”. My question was essentially this: Okay, I get that HTTP authentication is done automatically on every message - but how? Is the username/password sent with every request? Doesn't that just increase attack surface area? I feel like I'm missing part of the puzzle. The answers I received made perfect sense in the context of a mobile (iPhone, Android, WP7) app - when talking to a REST service, the app would just send user credentials along with each request. That worked great for me. But now, I would like to better understand how one would secure a REST-like website, like StackOverflow itself or something like Reddit. How would things work if it was a user logged in via a web browser instead of logged in via an iPhone app? What happens when a user logs in? Are the credentials saved in the browser somehow? How would the browser know what credentials to send with subsequent REST requests? What if it's a JavaScript call to a webservice? How would the JavaScript call include user credentials? I'll be quite frank: my understanding of security when it comes to websites is pretty limited. I enjoyed working with REST services from an app perspective, but now I want to try and build a website that is based on REST principles, and I'm finding myself to be pretty lost. If there is anything in the above question that is unclear that you'd like me to clarify, please leave a comment and I'll address it.

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  • SQL Server 2008 Stored Proc suddenly returns -1

    - by aaginor
    I use the following stored procedure from my SQL Server 2008 database to return a value to my C#-Program ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[getArticleBelongsToCatsCount] @id int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @result int; set @result = (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM art_in_cat WHERE child_id = @id); return @result; END I use a SQLCommand-Object to call this Stored Procedure public int ExecuteNonQuery() { try { return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (Exception e) { Logger.instance.ErrorRoutine(e, "Text: " + _command.CommandText); return -1; } } Till recently, everything works fine. All of a sudden, the stored procedure returned -1. At first, I suspected, that the ExecuteNonQuery-Command would have caused and Exception, but when stepping through the function, it shows that no Exception is thrown and the return value comes directly from return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); I checked following parameters and they were as expected: - Connection object was set to the correct database with correct access values - the parameter for the SP was there and contained the right type, direction and value Then I checked the SP via SQLManager, I used the same value for the parameter like the one for which my C# brings -1 as result (btw. I checked some more parameter values in my C' program and they ALL returned -1) but in the manager, the SP returns the correct value. It looks like the call from my C# prog is somehow bugged, but as I don't get any error (it's just the -1 from the SP), I have no idea, where to look for a solution.

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  • Parsing large txt files in ruby taking a lot of time?

    - by hershey92
    below is the code to download a txt file from internet approx 9000 lines and populate the database, I have tried a lot but it takes a lot of time more than 7 minutes. I am using win 7 64 bit and ruby 1.9.3. Is there a way to do it faster ?? require 'open-uri' require 'dbi' dbh = DBI.connect("DBI:Mysql:mfmodel:localhost","root","") #file = open('http://www.amfiindia.com/spages/NAV0.txt') file = File.open('test.txt','r') lines = file.lines 2.times { lines.next } curSubType = '' curType = '' curCompName = '' lines.each do |line| line.strip! if line[-1] == ')' curType,curSubType = line.split('(') curSubType.chop! elsif line[-4..-1] == 'Fund' curCompName = line.split(" Mutual Fund")[0] elsif line == '' next else sCode,isin_div,isin_re,sName,nav,rePrice,salePrice,date = line.split(';') sCode = Integer(sCode) sth = dbh.prepare "call mfmodel.populate(?,?,?,?,?,?,?)" sth.execute curCompName,curSubType,curType,sCode,isin_div,isin_re,sName end end dbh.do "commit" dbh.disconnect file.close 106799;-;-;HDFC ARBITRAGE FUND RETAIL PLAN DIVIDEND OPTION;10.352;10.3;10.352;29-Jun-2012 This is the format of data to be inserted in the table. Now there are 8000 such lines and how can I do an insert by combining all that and call the procedure just once. Also, does mysql support arrays and iteration to do such a thing inside the routine. Please give your suggestions.Thanks.

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  • Entity Framework does not map 2 columns from a SqlQuery calling a stored procedure

    - by user1783530
    I'm using Code First and am trying to call a stored procedure and have it map to one of my classes. I created a stored procedure, BOMComponentChild, that returns details of a Component with information of its hierarchy in PartsPath and MyPath. I have a class for the output of this stored procedure. I'm having an issue where everything except the two columns, PartsPath and MyPath, are being mapped correctly with these two properties ending up as Nothing. I searched around and from my understanding the mapping bypasses any Entity Framework name mapping and uses column name to property name. The names are the same and I'm not sure why it is only these two columns. The last part of the stored procedure is: SELECT t.ParentID ,t.ComponentID ,c.PartNumber ,t.PartsPath ,t.MyPath ,t.Layer ,c.[Description] ,loc.LocationID ,loc.LocationName ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierID IS NULL THEN 1 ELSE sup.SupplierID END AS SupplierID ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierName IS NULL THEN 'Scinomix' ELSE sup.SupplierName END AS SupplierName ,c.Active ,c.QA ,c.IsAssembly ,c.IsPurchasable ,c.IsMachined ,t.QtyRequired ,t.TotalQty FROM BuildProducts t INNER JOIN [dbo].[BOMComponent] c ON c.ComponentID = t.ComponentID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[BOMSupplier] bsup ON bsup.ComponentID = t.ComponentID AND bsup.IsDefault = 1 LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupSupplier] sup ON sup.SupplierID = bsup.SupplierID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupLocation] loc ON loc.LocationID = c.LocationID WHERE (@IsAssembly IS NULL OR IsAssembly = @IsAssembly) ORDER BY t.MyPath and the class it maps to is: Public Class BOMComponentChild Public Property ParentID As Nullable(Of Integer) Public Property ComponentID As Integer Public Property PartNumber As String Public Property MyPath As String Public Property PartsPath As String Public Property Layer As Integer Public Property Description As String Public Property LocationID As Integer Public Property LocationName As String Public Property SupplierID As Integer Public Property SupplierName As String Public Property Active As Boolean Public Property QA As Boolean Public Property IsAssembly As Boolean Public Property IsPurchasable As Boolean Public Property IsMachined As Boolean Public Property QtyRequired As Integer Public Property TotalQty As Integer Public Property Children As IDictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) = New Dictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) End Class I am trying to call it like this: Me.Database.SqlQuery(Of BOMComponentChild)("EXEC [BOMComponentChild] @ComponentID, @PathPrefix, @IsAssembly", params).ToList() When I run the stored procedure in management studio, the columns are correct and not null. I just can't figure out why these won't map as they are the important information in the stored procedure. The types for PartsPath and MyPath are varchar(50).

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  • incorrect height in Chrome when "-webkit-appearance: none" and value="" on <input> tag

    - by Avi Steiner
    In Chrome v17.0.963.79 on Windows 7, I seem to be having an inexplicable problem when applying the -webkit-appearance: none style to an <input> tag. The problem is as follows: I have a stylesheet, let's call it potatofoot.css, which consists of the code .tbl { display: table; } .tblRow { display: table-row; } .tblCell { display: table-cell; } input { -webkit-appearance: none; }? and I have an html file, let's call it blech.html, which contains the code <div class="tbl"> <div class="tblRow"> <label class="tblCell">Name</label> <input type="text" class="tblCell" value="I'M NOT EMPTY! OH, YEAH!"> </div><!--end tblRow--> </div><!--end tbl--> This displays fine (see this jsfiddle). But when I empty the value attribute, as in this jsfiddle, the entire table grows from a height of 26px to a height of 31px, the label moves to the bottom, and the input stays at the top. However, if I remove -webkit-appearance: none;, everything shows up the same with and without out the value attribute being filled. What's going on?

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  • Domain validates but won't save

    - by marko
    I have the following setup. Class, say, Car that has a CarPart (belongsTo=[car:Car]). When I'm creating a Car I also want to create som default CarParts, so I do def car = new Car(bla bla bla) def part = new CarPart(car:car) Now, when I do car.validate() or part.validate() it seems fine. But when I do if(car.save && part.save() I get this exception: 2012-03-24 14:02:21,943 [http-8080-4] ERROR util.JDBCExceptionReporter - Batch entry 0 insert into car_part (version, car_id, id) values ('0', '297', '298') was aborted. Call getNextException to see the cause. 2012-03-24 14:02:21,943 [http-8080-4] ERROR util.JDBCExceptionReporter - ERROR: value too long for type character varying(6) 2012-03-24 14:02:21,943 [http-8080-4] ERROR events.PatchedDefaultFlushEventListener - Could not synchronize database state with session org.hibernate.exception.DataException: Could not execute JDBC batch update Stacktrace follows: java.sql.BatchUpdateException: Batch entry 0 insert into car_part (version, deal_id, id) values ('0', '297', '298') was aborted. Call getNextException to see the cause. at org.postgresql.jdbc2.AbstractJdbc2Statement$BatchResultHandler.handleError(AbstractJdbc2Statement.java:2621) at org.postgresql.core.v3.QueryExecutorImpl.processResults(QueryExecutorImpl.java:1837) at org.postgresql.core.v3.QueryExecutorImpl.execute(QueryExecutorImpl.java:407) at org.postgresql.jdbc2.AbstractJdbc2Statement.executeBatch(AbstractJdbc2Statement.java:2754) at $Proxy20.flush(Unknown Source) at ristretto.DealController$_closure5.doCall(DealController.groovy:109) at ristretto.DealController$_closure5.doCall(DealController.groovy) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:722) Any ideas?

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  • how to convert video from one format to another using php

    - by Meena
    hi i want to include the vedio download option in my webpage. I am using ffmpeg, but it seems to work very slow. Is there is any other way to do this or how to spead up the ffmpeg. i am using this code to get the frames from the vedio. to convert the vedio $call="ffmpeg -i ".$_SESSION['video_to_convert']." -vcodec libvpx -r 30 -b ".$quality." -acodec libvorbis -ab 128000 -ar ".$audio." -ac 2 -s ".$size." ".$converted_vids.$name.".".$type." -y 2> log/".$name.".txt"; $convert = (popen("start /b ".$call, "r")); pclose($convert); to get the frame from the vedio exec("ffmpeg -vframes 1 -ss ".$time_in_seconds." -i $converted_vids video_images.jpg -y 2>); but this code does not generate any error its loading continously.

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  • Pass arguments to a parameter class object

    - by David R
    This is undoubtedly a simple question. I used to do this before, but it's been around 10 years since I worked in C++ so I can't remember properly and I can't get a simple constructor call working. The idea is that instead of parsing the args in main, main would create an object specifically designed to parse the arguments and return them as required. So: Parameters params = new Parameters(argc, argv) then I can call things like params.getfile() Only problem is I'm getting a complier error in Visual Studio 2008 and I'm sure this is simple, but I think my mind is just too rusty. What I've got so far is really basic: In the main: #include "stdafx.h" #include "Parameters.h" int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { Parameters params = new Parameters(argc, argv); return 0; } Then in the Parameters header: #pragma once class Parameters { public: Parameters(int, _TCHAR*[]); ~Parameters(void); }; Finally in the Parameters class: include "Stdafx.h" #include "Parameters.h" Parameters::Parameters(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { } Parameters::~Parameters(void) { } I would appreciate if anyone could see where my ageing mind has missed the really obvious. Thanks in advance.

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  • Is locking on the requested object a bad idea?

    - by Quick Joe Smith
    Most advice on thread safety involves some variation of the following pattern: public class Thing { private static readonly object padlock = new object(); private string stuff, andNonsense; public string Stuff { get { lock (Thing.padlock) { if (this.stuff == null) this.stuff = "Threadsafe!"; } return this.stuff; } } public string AndNonsense { get { lock (Thing.padlock) { if (this.andNonsense == null) this.andNonsense = "Also threadsafe!"; } return this.andNonsense; } } // Rest of class... } In cases where the get operations are expensive and unrelated, a single locking object is unsuitable because a call to Stuff would block all calls to AndNonsense, degrading performance. And rather than create a lock object for each call, wouldn't it be better to acquire the lock on the member itself (assuming it is not something that implements SyncRoot or somesuch for that purpose? For example: public string Stuff { get { lock (this.stuff) { // Pretend that this is a very expensive operation. if (this.stuff == null) this.stuff = "Still threadsafe and good?"; } return this.stuff; } } Strangely, I have never seen this approach recommended or warned against. Am I missing something obvious?

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