object oriented database - Page 278

Database access through collections

- by Mike

Hi All, I have an 3 tiered application where I need to get database results and populated the UI. I have a MessagesCollection class that deals with messages. I load my user from the database. On the instantiation of a user (ie. new User()), a MessageCollection Messages = new MessageCollection(this) is performed. Message collection accepts a user as a parameter. User user = user.LoadUser("bob"); I want to get the messages for Bob. user.Messages.GetUnreadMessages(); GetUnreadMessages calls my Business Data provider which in turn calls the data access layer. The Business data provider returns List. My question is - I am not sure what the best practice is here - If I have a collection of messages in an array inside the MessagesCollection class, I could implement ICollection to provide GetEnumerator() and ability to traverse the messages. But what happens if the messages change and the the user has old messages loaded? What about big message collections? What if my user had 10,000 unread messages? I don't think accessing the database and returning 10,000 Message objects would be efficient.

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RIA Services for transmitting non DB object-graph

- by Mike Gates

I have been getting into RIA services because I thought it would simplify dealing with the services layer of web applications I wish to build. I see lots of examples out there showing how to create DomainService classes which expose and consume entities that have some kind of relational database backing, and therefore have foreign-key relationships. However, I would like to know how to expose and consume normal object graphs...objects that contain references to eachother but don't have foreign keys. For example, say I want a service operation called "GetFolderInformation(string pathToFolder)". I want this to return a custom object called "FolderInformation" structured with: - string Name - IEnumerable<FileInformation> Files I cannot get this to work because it seems that RIA wants to deal with entities that have foreign key relationships. Why? Why can't the serializer just see my object references and recreate that in the proxy on the other side? Data exists behind service layers that doesn't necessarily have foreign key relationships...like folder/file for example. EDIT: I realized I hadn't asked my question! My question is, is there a way to do what I am trying to do?

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Connecting Error to Remote Oracle XE database using ASP.NET

- by imsatasia

Hello, I have installed Oracle XE on my Development machine and it is working fine. Then I installed Oracle XE client on my Test machine which is also working fine and I can access Development PC database from Browser. Now, I want to create an ASP.Net application which can access that Oracle XE database. I tried it too, but it always shows me an error on my TEST machine to connect database to the Development Machine using ASP.Net. Here is my code for ASP.Net application: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string connectionString = GetConnectionString(); OracleConnection connection = new OracleConnection(connectionString); connection.Open(); Label1.Text = "State: " + connection.State; Label1.Text = "ConnectionString: " + connection.ConnectionString; OracleCommand command = connection.CreateCommand(); string sql = "SELECT * FROM Users"; command.CommandText = sql; OracleDataReader reader = command.ExecuteReader(); while (reader.Read()) { string myField = (string)reader["nID"]; Console.WriteLine(myField); } } static private string GetConnectionString() { // To avoid storing the connection string in your code, // you can retrieve it from a configuration file. return "User Id=System;Password=admin;Data Source=(DESCRIPTION=" + "(ADDRESS=(PROTOCOL=TCP)(HOST=myServerAddress)(PORT=1521))" + "(CONNECT_DATA=(SERVICE_NAME=)));"; }

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Does XPath will return a object other than String

- by Kalyan

I have map xml as below. I can retrieve a value using XPath but can I retrieve object instead?. For example I want Map object to be retured if I say /list/* . Is it possible to retrieve as object. <list> <map> <val name="obj_type">USER</val> <val name="ret_name">user</val> <list name="attributes"> <map> <val name="obj_type">USER_ID</val> <val name="ret_name">userID</val> </map> <map> <val name="obj_type"> USER_UsernamePasswordCredential </val> <list name="attributes"> <map> <val name="obj_type">UNP_Username</val> <val name="ret_name">UserName</val> </map> <map> <val name="obj_type">UNP_Password</val> <val name="ret_name">Password</val> </map> </list> </map> </list> </map> </list>

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Setting nested object to null when selected option has empty value

- by Javi

Hello, I have a Class which models a User and another which models his country. Something like this: public class User{ private Country country; //other attributes and getter/setters } public class Country{ private Integer id; private String name; //other attributes and getter/setters } I have a Spring form where I have a combobox so the user can select his country or can select the undefined option to indicate he doen't want to provide this information. So I have something like this: <form:select path="country"> <form:option value="">-Select one-</form:option> <form:options items="${countries}" itemLabel="name" itemValue="id"/> </form:select> In my controller I get the autopopulated object with the user information and I want to have country set to null when the "-Select one-" option has been selected. So I have set a initBinder with a custom editor like this: @InitBinder protected void initBinder(WebDataBinder binder) throws ServletException { binder.registerCustomEditor(Country.class, "country", new CustomCountryEditor()); } and my editor do something like this: public class CustomCountryEditor(){ @Override public String getAsText() { //I return the Id of the country } @Override public void setAsText(String str) { //I search in the database for a country with id = new Integer(str) //and set country to that value //or I set country to null in case str == null } } When I submit the form it works because when I have country set to null when I have selected "-Select one-" option or the instance of the country selected. The problem is that when I load the form I have a method like the following one to load the user information. @ModelAttribute("user") public User getUser(){ //loads user from database } The object I get from getUser() has country set to a specific country (not a null value), but in the combobox is not selected any option. I've debugged the application and the CustomCountryEditor works good when setting and getting the text, thoughgetAsText method is called for every item in the list "countries" not only for the "country" field. Any idea? Is there a better way to set null the country object when I select no country option in the combobox? Thanks

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JS: capture a static snapshot of an object at a point in time with a method

- by Barney

I have a JS object I use to store DOM info for easy reference in an elaborate GUI. It starts like this: var dom = { m:{ old:{}, page:{x:0,y:0}, view:{x:0,y:0}, update:function(){ this.old = this; this.page.x = $(window).width(); this.page.y = $(window).height(); this.view.x = $(document).width(); this.view.y = window.innerHeight || $(window).height(); } I call the function on window resize: $(window).resize(function(){dom.m.update()}); The problem is with dom.m.old. I would have thought that by calling it in the dom.m.update() method before the new values for the other properties are assigned, at any point in time dom.m.old would contain a snapshot of the dom.m object as of the last update – but instead, it's always identical to dom.m. I've just got a pointless recursion method. Why isn't this working? How can I get a static snapshot of the object that won't update without being specifically told to? Comments explaining how I shouldn't even want to be doing anything remotely like this in the first place are very welcome :)

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[Cocoa] Binding CoreData Managed Object to NSTextFieldCell subclass

- by ndg

I have an NSTableView which has its first column set to contain a custom NSTextFieldCell. My custom NSTextFieldCell needs to allow the user to edit a "desc" property within my Managed Object but to also display an "info" string that it contains (which is not editable). To achieve this, I followed this tutorial. In a nutshell, the tutorial suggests editing your Managed Objects generated subclass to create and pass a dictionary of its contents to your NSTableColumn via bindings. This works well for read-only NSCell implementations, but I'm looking to subclass NSTextFieldCell to allow the user to edit the "desc" property of my Managed Object. To do this, I followed one of the articles comments, which suggests subclassing NSFormatter to explicitly state which Managed Object property you would like the NSTextFieldCell to edit. Here's the suggested implementation: @implementation TRTableDescFormatter - (BOOL)getObjectValue:(id *)anObject forString:(NSString *)string errorDescription:(NSString **)error { if (anObject != nil){ *anObject = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:string forKey:@"desc"]; return YES; } return NO; } - (NSString *)stringForObjectValue:(id)anObject { if (![anObject isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) return nil; return [anObject valueForKey:@"desc"]; } - (NSAttributedString*)attributedStringForObjectValue:(id)anObject withDefaultAttributes:(NSDictionary *)attrs { if (![anObject isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) return nil; NSAttributedString *anAttributedString = [[NSAttributedString alloc] initWithString: [anObject valueForKey:@"desc"]]; return anAttributedString; } @end I assign the NSFormatter subclass to my cell in my NSTextFieldCell subclass, like so: - (void)awakeFromNib { TRTableDescFormatter *formatter = [[[TRTableDescFormatter alloc] init] autorelease]; [self setFormatter:formatter]; } This seems to work, but is extremely patch. On occasion, clicking to edit a row will cause its value to nullify. On other occasions, the value you enter on one row will populate other rows within the table. I've been doing a lot of reading on this subject and would really like to get to the bottom of this. What's more frustrating is that my NSTextFieldCell is rendering exactly how I would like it to. This editing issue is my last obstacle! If anyone can help, that would be greatly appreciated.

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Javascript Object.Watch for all browsers?

- by SeanW

Hey all, I was looking for an easy way to monitor an object or variable for changes, and I found Object.Watch that's supported in Mozilla browsers, but not IE. So I started searching around to see if anyone had written some sort of equivalent. About the only thing I've found has been a jQuery plugin (http://plugins.jquery.com/files/jquery-watch.js.txt), but I'm not sure if that's the best way to go. I certainly use jQuery in most of my projects, so I'm not worried about the jQuery aspect... Anyway, the question: can someone show me a working example of that jQuery plugin? I'm having problems making it work... Or, does anyone know of any better alternatives that would work cross browser? Thanks! Update after answers: Thanks everyone for the responses! I tried out the code posted here: http://webreflection.blogspot.com/2009/01/internet-explorer-object-watch.html But I couldn't seem to make it work with IE. The code below works fine in FireFox, but does nothing in IE. In Firefox, each time watcher.status is changed, the document.write in watcher.watch is called and you can see the output on the page. In IE, that doesn't happen, but I can see that watcher.status is updating the value, because the last document.write shows the correct value (in both IE and FF). But, if the callback function isn't called, then that's kind of pointless... :) Am I missing something? var options = {'status': 'no status'}, watcher = createWatcher(options); watcher.watch("status", function(prop, oldValue, newValue) { document.write("old: " + oldValue + ", new: " + newValue + "<br>"); return newValue; }); watcher.status = 'asdf'; watcher.status = '1234'; document.write(watcher.status + "<br>");

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Object suddenly missing from HttpServletRequest

- by Jeune

I print a list directly in the servlet using the print writer and the list prints. When I try to put in the jsp however the list doesn't print whether I use JSTL or scriptlets. I tried to test in JSTL and scriptlet if the object is null and turns out that it is! Why does this happen and how can I fix this? Servlet code that works for (Artist artist:artists){ resp.getWriter().println(artist.getName()); } Servlet code that puts object in the request public void doGet(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp) throws IOException { ApplicationContext ctx = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext("com/helloworld/beans/helloworld-context.xml"); ArtistDao artistDao = (ArtistDao) ctx.getBean("artistDao"); List<Artist> artists = null; try { artists = artistDao.getAll(); } catch (SQLException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } req.setAttribute("artists", artists); try { req.getRequestDispatcher("index.jsp").forward(req, resp); } catch (ServletException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } scriptlet code that suddenly finds the object null <% List<Artist> artists = (List<Artist>) request.getAttribute("artists"); if (artists == null) { out.println("artists null"); } else { for (Artist artist: artists){ out.println(artist.getName()); } } %> Even the jstl code seems to agree <c:if test="${artists eq null}"> Artists are null </c:if> <c:forEach var="artist" items="${artists}"> ${artist.name} </c:forEach> For my app I am using weblogic, spring 2.5.6 and ibatis.

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PHP (CodeIgniter) Pass Object Through Session

- by FranticPedantic

I am using PHP5 and CodeIgniter and I am trying to implement a single-sign on feature with facebook (although I don't think that facebook is relevant to the question). I am somewhat of a novice with PHP and definitely one with CodeIgniter, so if you think my approach is just completely off telling me that would be helpful too. So here is in short what I am doing: //Controller 1 $this->load->plugin("facebook"); $facebook = new Facebook(array ( 'appId' => $fbconfig['appid'], 'secret' => $fbconfig['secret'], 'cookie' => true, ) ); $fbsession = $facebook->getSession(); //works fine $this->session->set_userdata('facebook', serialize($facebook); Now I would like to grab that facebook object in a different controller. //Controller 2 $facebook = unserialize($this->session->userdata('facebook')); $fbsession = $facebook->getSession(); Produces the error: Call to undefined method getSession. So I look up more about serialization and think that maybe it just doesn't know what the facebook object's attributes are. So I add in a $this->load->plugin('facebook'); To controller 2 as well and I get a "Cannot redeclare class facebook." I am strongly suspecting that I am misunderstanding sessions here. Do I have to somehow tell PHP what kind of object it is? Thanks for the help.

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.Net Remoting: Serialize Object and implementation

- by flogo

Hi, In my scenario there is a client-side assembly that contains a class (Task). This class implements an interface (ITask) that is known on the server. I'm trying to send a Task object from client to server without copying the assembly of the client manually to the server. If I just serialize the task object, the server obviously complains about the missing assembly. I then tried to serialze typeof(Task).Assembly but could not derserialize it on the server. Next I tried to File.ReadAllBytes(typeof(Task).Assembly.Location) and saved it to a temporary file on the server, which threw an exception on Assembly.LoadFrom(@".\temporary.dll"); Why am I doing this? Java RMI has a neat feature to request the implementation of an object that is received through remoting but is stil "unkown" (this JVM doesn't have the *.class file). This can be used for a compute server that just knows the interface of a "task" containing a run() method and downloads the implementation of this method on demand. This way the server doesn't have to be changed for new tasks. I'm trying to achieve something like this in .Net.

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My 3D object (opengl es) is disappearing behind the iPhone camera view

- by KLC

I have an augmented reality iPhone app that I am converting from Core Animation to OpenGL ES 1.1. I have added code that has been modified from the Apple OpenGL template. My problem is that my 3D object , when translating along the negative Z-axis (away from the user), appears to disappear into the camera view, until its completely gone. I have experimented with several solutions, but to no avail. What I have determined: Using the 3D icosahedron from Jeff Lamarche's blog here, the object starts it at 0,0,0 and then translates with decreasing z coordinates. By the time the z value reaches -2.0f, the object is gone. It appears as if it is disappearing behind the camera view. This is how I set my frustrum & viewport (unchanged from Apple's code) glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); size = zNear * tanf(DEGREES_TO_RADIANS(fieldOfView) / 2.0); //Grab the size of the screen CGRect rect = self.bounds; glFrustumf(-size, size, -size / (rect.size.width / rect.size.height), size / (rect.size.width / rect.size.height), zNear, zFar); glViewport(0, 0, rect.size.width, rect.size.height); glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); glLoadIdentity(); What I have tried: The camera view is the main view and several other views are added to it as subviews, including the openGLView. I have commented those views out for test purposes. I have applied CATransforms to move the openGLView in the z direction -500 and +500, and done the same to the camera view. I have also changed the zFar in the above code to 1.0f, and it still disappears at z position of -2.0, which doesn't make sense (shouldn't it disappear at z=1.0?) My experimentation has got me more confused than when I started ( which usually means I am missing a key piece, but I can't figure out what). Thanks for your help.

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RestSharp post object to WCF

- by steve

Im having an issue posting an object to my wcf rest webservice. On the WCF side I have the following: [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "", Method = "POST")] public void Create(myObject object) { //save some stuff to the db } When im debugging this never gets hit - it does however get hit when I remove the parameter so im guessing ive done something wrong on the restSharp side of things. Heres my code for that part: var client = new RestClient(ApiBaseUri); var request = new RestRequest(Method.POST); request.RequestFormat = DataFormat.Xml; request.AddBody(myObject); var response = client.Execute(request); Am I doing this wrong? How can the WCF side see my object? What way should I be making the reqest? Or should I be handling it differently WCF side? Things ive tried: request.AddObject(myObject); and request.AddBody(request.XmlSerialise.serialise(myObject)); Any help and understanding in what could possibly be wrong would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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Injecting correct object graph using StructureMap in Queue of different Objects

- by davy

I have a queuing service that has to inject a different dependency graph depending on the type of object in the queue. I'm using Structure Map. So, if the object in the queue is TypeA the concrete classes for TypeA are used and if it's TypeB, the concrete classes for TypeB are used. I'd like to avoid code in the queue like: if (typeA) { // setup TypeA graph } else if (typeB) { // setup TypeB graph } Within the graph, I also have a generic classes such as an IReader(ISomething, ISpomethingElse) where IReader is generic but needs to inject the correct ISomething and ISomethingElse for the type. ISomething will also have dependencies and so on. Currently I create a TypeA or TypeB object and inject a generic Processor class using StructureMap into it and then pass a factory manually inject a TypeA or TypeB factory into a method like: Processor.Process(new TypeAFactory) // perhaps I should have an abstract factory... However, because the factory then creates the generic IReader mentioned above, I end up manually injecting all the TypeA or TypeB classes fro there on. I hope enough of this makes sense. I am new to StructureMap and was hoping somebody could point me in the right direction here for a flexible and elegant solution. Thanks

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No JSON object could be decoded - RPC POST call

- by user1307067

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property names are different from original Object in the silverlight

- by kwon

Following is part of service layer which is provided by WCF service : [Serializable] public class WaitInfo { private string roomName; private string pName; private string tagNo; public string RoomName { get { return roomName; } set { this.roomName = value; } } public string PName { get { return pName; } set { this.pName = value; } } public string TagNo { get { return tagNo; } set { this.tagNo = value; } } } public class Service1 : IService1 { public List<WaitInfo> GetWaitingList() { MyDBDataContext db = new MyDBDataContext(); var query = from w in db.WAIT_INFOs select new WaitInfo { TagNo = w.PATIENT_INFO.TAG_NO, RoomName= w.ROOM_INFO.ROOM_NAME, PName= w.PATIENT_INFO.P_NAME }; List<WaitInfo> result = query.ToList(); return result; } And following is codebehind part of UI layer which is provided by Silverlight public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); Service1Client s = new Service1Client(); s.GetWaitingListCompleted += new EventHandler<GetWaitingListByCompletedEventArgs>( s_GetWaitingListCompleted); s.GetWaitingListAsync(); } void s_GetWaitingListCompleted(object sender, RadControlsSilverlightApplication1.ServiceReference2.GetWaitingListByCompletedEventArgs e) { GridDataGrid.ItemsSource = e.Result; } And following is xaml code in Silverlight page <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <data:DataGrid x:Name="GridDataGrid"></data:DataGrid> </Grid> Is is very simple code, however what I am thinking weird is property name of object at "e.Result" in the code behind page. In the service layer, although properties' names are surely "RoomName, PName, TagNo", in the silverlight properties' names are "roomName, pName, tagNo" which are private variable name of the WaitingList Object. Did I something wrong? Thanks in advance.

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Mysql Database Question about Large Columns

- by murat

Hi, I have a table that has 100.000 rows, and soon it will be doubled. The size of the database is currently 5 gb and most of them goes to one particular column, which is a text column for PDF files. We expect to have 20-30 GB or maybe 50 gb database after couple of month and this system will be used frequently. I have couple of questions regarding with this setup 1-) We are using innodb on every table, including users table etc. Is it better to use myisam on this table, where we store text version of the PDF files? (from memory usage /performance perspective) 2-) We use Sphinx for searching, however the data must be retrieved for highlighting. Highlighting is done via sphinx API but still we need to retrieve 10 rows in order to send it to Sphinx again. This 10 rows may allocate 50 mb memory, which is quite large. So I am planning to split these PDF files into chunks of 5 pages in the database, so these 100.000 rows will be around 3-4 million rows and couple of month later, instead of having 300.000-350.000 rows, we'll have 10 million rows to store text version of these PDF files. However, we will retrieve less pages, so again instead of retrieving 400 pages to send Sphinx for highlighting, we can retrieve 5 pages and it will have a big impact on the performance. Currently, when we search a term and retrieve PDF files that have more than 100 pages, the execution time is 0.3-0.35 seconds, however if we retrieve PDF files that have less than 5 pages, the execution time reduces to 0.06 seconds, and it also uses less memory. Do you think, this is a good trade-off? We will have million of rows instead of having 100k-200k rows but it will save memory and improve the performance. Is it a good approach to solve this problem and do you have any ideas how to overcome this problem? The text version of the data is used only for indexing and highlighting. So, we are very flexible. Thanks,

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SSIS - Bulk Update at Database Field Level

- by Adam

Hello, Here's our mission: Receive files from clients. Each file contains anywhere from 1 to 1,000,000 records. Records are loaded to a staging area and business-rule validation is applied. Valid records are then pumped into an OLTP database in a batch fashion, with the following rules: If record does not exist (we have a key, so this isn't an issue), create it. If record exists, optionally update each database field. The decision is made based on one of 3 factors...I don't believe it's important what those factors are. Our main problem is finding an efficient method of optionally updating the data at a field level. This is applicable across ~12 different database tables, with anywhere from 10 to 150 fields in each table (original DB design leaves much to be desired, but it is what it is). Our first attempt has been to introduce a table that mirrors the staging environment (1 field in staging for each system field) and contains a masking flag. The value of the masking flag represents the 3 factors. We've then put an UPDATE similar to... UPDATE OLTPTable1 SET Field1 = CASE WHEN Mask.Field1 = 0 THEN Staging.Field1 WHEN Mask.Field1 = 1 THEN COALESCE( Staging.Field1 , OLTPTable1.Field1 ) WHEN Mask.Field1 = 2 THEN COALESCE( OLTPTable1.Field1 , Staging.Field1 ) ... As you can imagine, the performance is rather horrendous. Has anyone tackled a similar requirement? We're a MS shop using a Windows Service to launch SSIS packages that handle the data processing. Unfortunately, we're pretty much novices at this stuff.

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Database and logic layer for ASP.NET MVC application

- by Ismail

I'm going to start a new project which is going to be small initially but may grow to big over the years. I'm strongly convinced that I'm going to use ASP.NET MVC with jQuery for UI. I want to go for MySQL as database for some reasons but worried on few things. I've a good years of experience working on SQL Server databases and on one project I've had a bad experience creating and managing stored procedures on MySQL database. I'm totally new to Linq but I see that it is easier to use once you are familiar with it. First thing is that accessing data should be easy. So I thought I should use MySQL to Linq but somewhere I read that it is not directly supported but MySQL .NET connector adds support for EntityFramework. I don't know what are the pros and cons of it. I would love if I can implement repository pattern as it allows to apply filter in logic layer rather than in data access layer. Will it be possible if I use Entity Framework? I'm not clear on how I should go about all this or I should just forget every thing and directly use SQL to Linq on SQL Server. I'm also concerned about the performance. Someone told me that if we use Entity framework it fetches lot of data and then filter it. Is that right? So questions basically are - Is MySQL to Linq possible? If yes where can I get more details on it? Pros and cons of using EntityFramework with MySQL? Will it be easy to access data using EntityFramework with MySQL? Will I be able to implement repository patter which allows applying filter in logic layer rather than data access layer (when I use EntityFramework with MySQL) Does it fetches hell lot of data from database and then apply filter on it? If it sounds too many questions from my side in that case, if you can just let me know what you will do (with a considerable reason) in this situation as an experienced person in this area, that should answer my question.

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PDO Database Connections Problem

- by Metropolis

Hey Everyone, Over a year ago I created my own database classes which use PDO, and handle all preparing, executing, and closing connections. These classes have been working great up until now. There are two different database severs I am grabbing from, MySQL, and MS SQL Express. I am retrieving an employee id from the MySQL server and using it to get that employees information from the MS SQL server. There are about 11k records coming from the MySQL server and my program is only making it through 1200 before crashing with an error like the following. Connection failed (odbc:Driver=FreeTDS;Servername=MSSQLExpress;Database=SMDINC) Class (PDOException) SQLSTATE[08001] SQLDriverConnect: 0 [unixODBC][FreeTDS][SQL Server]Unable to connect to data source It seems like the program is not able to connect to the data source, but it is running the exact same query about 30 times before this and having no problem. Also, I have thoroughly checked all of the data coming into the query and it all looks fine. I believe the issue may be that there are to many connections being created, but I have tried to close all connections in many different places, and nothing seems to be fixing the problem. Any debugging help, or suggestions would be appreciated! Craig Metrolis

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ASP.NET catching controls from html generated from the database

- by Drahcir

I have a set of websites that basically do the exact same thing in terms of functionality, the only thing that varies is the css and how the html is laid out. Is there a way to generate the html from a database (ie retreiving the html from a table) and then catching the controls (like buttons, textboxes etc) from the code behind? UPDATE: Here is an example of what I want to acheive: <html> <div id="generatedContent" runat="server">  <div> This is a textbox <input id="tb1" runat="server" type="text" /> This is a button <input type="submit" id="btn1" runat="server" value="My Button" /> </div> </div> </html> This is the code behind var tb1 = new HtmlControls.HtmlInputText(); tb1 = FindControl("tb1"); var btn1 = new New HtmlControls.HtmlInputSubmit(); btn1 = FindControl("btn1"); Now obviously since the html has been generated from the database (ie after the page has already been initialised) the FindControl method will return null.

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Database nesting layout confusion

- by arzon

I'm no expert in databases and a beginner in Rails, so here goes something which kinda confuses me... Assuming I have three classes as a sample (note that no effort has been made to address any possible Rails reserved words issue in the sample). class File < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :records, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :records, :allow_destroy => true end class Record < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :file has_many :users, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :users, :allow_destroy => true end class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :record end Upon entering records, the database contents will appear as such. My issue is that if there are a lot of Files for the same Record, there will be duplicate record names. This will also be true if there will be multiple Records for the same user in the the Users table. I was wondering if there is a better way than this so as to have one or more files point to a single Record entry and one or more Records will point to a single User. BTW, the File names are unique. Files table: id name 1 name1 2 name2 3 name3 4 name4 Records table: id file_id record_name record_type 1 1 ForDaisy1 ... 2 2 ForDonald1 ... 3 3 ForDonald2 ... 4 4 ForDaisy1 ... Users table: id record_id username 1 1 Daisy 2 2 Donald 3 3 Donald 4 4 Daisy Is there any way to optimize the database to prevent duplication of entries, or this should really the correct and proper behavior. I spread out the database into different tables to be able to easily add new columns in the future.

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How to make += operator keep the object reference?

- by orloffm

Say, I have a class: class M { public int val; And also a + operator inside it: public static M operator +(M a, M b) { M c = new M(); c.val = a.val + b.val; return c; } } And I've got a List of the objects of the class: List<M> ms = new List(); M obj = new M(); obj.val = 5; ms.Add(obj); Some other object: M addie = new M(); addie.val = 3; I can do this: ms[0] += addie; and it surely works as I expect - the value in the list is changed. But if I want to do M fromList = ms[0]; fromList += addie; it doesn't change the value in ms for obvious reasons. But intuitively I expect ms[0] to also change after that. Really, I pick the object from the list and then I increase it's value with some other object. So, since I held a reference to ms[0] in fromList before addition, I want still to hold it in fromList after performing it. Are there any ways to achieve that?

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CakePHP: Missing database table

- by Justin

I have a CakePHP application that is running fine locally. I uploaded it to a production server and the first page that uses a database connection gives the "Missing Database Table" error. When I look at the controller dump, it's complaining about the first table. I've tried a variety of things to fix this problem, with no luck: I've confirmed that at the command line I can login with the given MySQL credentials in database.php I've confirmed this table exists I've tried using the MySQL root credentials (temporarily) to see if the problem lies with permissions of the user. The same error appeared. My debug level is currently set to 3 I've deleted the entire contents of /app/tmp/cache I've set 777 permissions on /app/tmp* I've confirmed that I can run DESCRIBE commands at the commant line MySQL when logged in with the MySQL credentials used by by the application I've verified that the CakePHP log file only contains the error I'm setting in the browser window. I've tried all the suggestions I could find in similar postings on SO I've Googled around and didn't find any other ideas I think I've eliminating the obvious problems and my research isn't turning anything up. I feel like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas?

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How can I get the user object from a service in Symfony2

- by pogo

My site is using a third party service for authentication as well as other bits of functionality so I have setup a service that does all the API calls for me and it's this service that I need to be able to access the user object. I've tried injecting the security.context service into my API service but I get a ServiceCircularReferenceException because my user authentication provider references the API service (it has to in order to authenticate the user). So I get a chain of security.context -> authentication provider -> user provider -> API service -> security.context I'm struggling to this of another way of getting the user object and I can't see any obvious way of splitting up this chain. My configs are all defined in config.yml, here are the relevant bits myapp.database: class: Pogo\MyAppBundle\Service\DatabaseService arguments: siteid: %siteid% entityManager: "@doctrine.orm.entity_manager" myapp.apiservice: class: Pogo\MyAppBundle\Service\TicketingService arguments: entityManager: "@myapp.database" myapp.user_provider: class: Pogo\MyAppBundle\Service\APIUserProvider arguments: entityManager: "@myapp.database" ticketingAdapter: "@myapp.apiservice" securityContext: "@security.context" myapp.authenticationprovider: class: Pogo\MyAppBundle\Service\APIAuthenticationProvider arguments: userChecker: "@security.user_checker" encoderFactory: "@security.encoder_factory" userProvider: "@myapp.user_provider" myapp.user_provider is the service that I've defined as my user provider service in security.yml which I presume is how it's being referenced by security.context

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