Search Results

Search found 8367 results on 335 pages for 'temporal difference'.

Page 278/335 | < Previous Page | 274 275 276 277 278 279 280 281 282 283 284 285  | Next Page >

  • WCF Service invalid with Silverlight

    - by Echilon
    I'm trying to get WCF working with Silverlight. I'm a total beginner to WCF but have written asmx services in the past. For some reason when I uncomment more than one method in my service Silverlight refuses to let me use it, saying it is invalid. My code is below if anyone could help. I'm using the Entity Framework if that makes a difference. [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Allowed)] public class MessageService {//: IMessageService { /// <summary> /// Sends a new message. /// </summary> /// <param name="recipientUsername">The recipient username.</param> /// <param name="subject">The subject.</param> /// <param name="messageBody">The message body.</param> [OperationContract] public void SendMessageByDetails(string recipientUsername, string subject, string messageBody) { MessageDAL.SendMessage(recipientUsername, subject, messageBody); } /// <summary> /// Sends a new message. /// </summary> /// <param name="msg">The message to send.</param> [OperationContract] public void SendMessage(Message msg) { MessageDAL.SendMessage(msg); } }

    Read the article

  • Enumerate all paths in a weighted graph from A to B where path length is between C1 and C2

    - by awmross
    Given two points A and B in a weighted graph, find all paths from A to B where the length of the path is between C1 and C2. Ideally, each vertex should only be visited once, although this is not a hard requirement. I supose I could use a heuristic to sort the results of the algorithm to weed out "silly" paths (e.g. a path that just visits the same two nodes over and over again) I can think of simple brute force algorithms, but are there any more sophisticed algorithms that will make this more efficient? I can imagine as the graph grows this could become expensive. In the application I am developing, A & B are actually the same point (i.e. the path must return to the start), if that makes any difference. Note that this is an engineering problem, not a computer science problem, so I can use an algorithm that is fast but not necessarily 100% accurate. i.e. it is ok if it returns most of the possible paths, or if most of the paths returned are within the given length range.

    Read the article

  • Calculate differences between rows while grouping with SQL

    - by Guido
    I have a postgresql table containing movements of different items (models) between warehouses. For example, the following record means that 5 units of model 1 have been sent form warehouse 1 to 2: source target model units ------ ------ ----- ----- 1 2 1 5 I am trying to build a SQL query to obtain the difference between units sent and received, grouped by models. Again with an example: source target model units ------ ------ ----- ----- 1 2 1 5 -- 5 sent from 1 to 2 1 2 2 1 2 1 1 2 -- 2 sent from 2 to 1 2 1 1 1 -- 1 more sent from 2 to 1 The result should be: source target model diff ------ ------ ----- ---- 1 2 1 2 -- 5 sent minus 3 received 1 2 2 1 I wonder if this is possible with a single SQL query. Here is the table creation script and some data, just in case anyone wants to try it: CREATE TEMP TABLE movements ( source INTEGER, target INTEGER, model INTEGER, units INTEGER ); insert into movements values (1,2,1,5); insert into movements values (1,2,2,1); insert into movements values (2,1,1,2); insert into movements values (2,1,1,1);

    Read the article

  • Why aren't my objects sorting with sortedArrayUsingDescriptors?

    - by clozach
    I expected the code below to return the objects in imageSet as a sorted array. Instead, there's no difference in the ordering before and after. NSSortDescriptor *descriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"imageID" ascending:YES]; NSSet *imageSet = collection.images; for (CBImage *image in imageSet) { NSLog(@"imageID in Set: %@",image.imageID); } NSArray *imageArray = [[imageSet allObjects] sortedArrayUsingDescriptors:(descriptor, nil)]; [descriptor release]; for (CBImage *image in imageArray) { NSLog(@"imageID in Array: %@",image.imageID); } Fwiw, CBImage is defined in my core data model. I don't know why sorting on managed objects would work any differently than on "regular" objects, but maybe it matters. As proof that @"imageID" should work as the key for the descriptor, here's what the two log loops above output for one of the sets I'm iterating through: 2010-05-05 00:49:52.876 Cover Browser[38678:207] imageID in Array: 360339 2010-05-05 00:49:52.876 Cover Browser[38678:207] imageID in Array: 360337 2010-05-05 00:49:52.877 Cover Browser[38678:207] imageID in Array: 360338 2010-05-05 00:49:52.878 Cover Browser[38678:207] imageID in Array: 360336 2010-05-05 00:49:52.879 Cover Browser[38678:207] imageID in Array: 360335 ... For extra credit, I'd love to get a general solution to troubleshooting NSSortDescriptor troubles (esp. if it also applies to troubleshooting NSPredicate). The functionality of these things seems totally opaque to me and consequently debugging takes forever.

    Read the article

  • TeamCity output artifacts not published to IIS7 folder

    - by clausas
    I am trying to set up TeamCity to build and deploy an ASP.NET MVC application. I have the setup running successfully on other servers using TeamCity 4.5, but the new server is running TeamCity 6, and I am having trouble getting it to work as expected. TeamCity manages to get the files from source control, and the project (Visual Studio Solution 2008 set to "Build") builds and outputs the necessary files as expected. The problem seems to be with my artifact paths, as the output files are not copied to the website folder. My solution consists of dozen projects, of which the "Web" project is the interesting one in this case. The build checkout directory is C:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\7da320cebf0ee541, and the "Web"-project is found in C:\TeamCity\buildAgent\work\7da320cebf0ee541\Web I have set up my build configuration with the following artifact paths (relative from checkout directory to the folder containing the website): Web/bin=>../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging/bin Web/Content=>../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging/Content Web/Views=>../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging/Views Web/Media=>../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging/Media Web/*.aspx=>../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging Web/*.asax=>../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging (I've tried with more ../ just in case, but it didn't make a difference). This is the output I get from the log [19:35:29]: Publishing artifacts (1s) [19:35:29]: [Publishing artifacts] Paths to publish: [Web/bin=../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging/bin, Web/Content=../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging/Content, Web/obj=../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging/obj, Web/Views=../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging/Views, Web/Media=../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging/Media, Web/.aspx=../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging, Web/.asax=../../../../inetpub/wwwroot/staging, teamcity-info.xml] [19:35:30]: [Publishing artifacts] Sending files [19:35:32]: Build finished Logs from some of the other servers running TeamCity 4.5 uses a different format, with a line for each of the artifacts being published, I'm not sure if this is relevant or only due to a different logging format. Everything seems to be working, but no files are put in my website folder after a build, am I missing something here? Any help will be much appreciated :)

    Read the article

  • problems doing the Django tutorial on Dreamhost using Passengers

    - by Pietro Speroni
    I have looked and I could not find this question before, and it surprises me. I am reasonably proficient in Python, and I used Dreamhost for a number of years. Now I would like to learn Django. They are finally supporting it using Passenger. Which I do not know what is. Following the instructions on Dreamhost I installed Django. Then I started following the tutorial 01. This went well, except that I could not start the server (this in the tutorial) since the code was live on dreamhost. At the time this did not seem to make any difference. Then when I went on the second part of the tutorial I had to access the admin site. And it worked well going to myurl/admin/ , as it should. But here the problems started. According to the tutorial (here) I have to add a file in the poll application and then restart the server. But I never started the server in the first place, my code is running live on the web... but when I add a file the website the admin acts as if it does not see it. Probably dreamhost has started its own server, and I don't know how to restart it. But I assume this is going to be a common problem when you run django on dreamhost. Every time you add a file you will have to tell the server to consider it. So what should I do to let the server know about it? Thanks, Pietro

    Read the article

  • Bulk insert of component collection in Hibernate?

    - by edbras
    I have the mapping as listed below. When I update a detached Categories item (that doesn't contain any Hibernate class as it comes from a dto converter) I notice that Hibernate will first delete ALL employer wages instances (the collection link) and then insert ALL employer wage entries ONE-BY-ONE :(... I understand that it has to delete and then insert all entries as it was completely detached. BUT, what I don't understand, why is Hibernate NOT inserting all the entries through bulk-insert?.. That is: inserting all the employer wage entries all in one SQL statement ? How can I tell Hibernate to use bulk-insert? (if possible). I tried playing with the following value but didn't see any difference: hibernate.jdbc.batch_size=30 My mapping snippet: <class name="com.sample.CategoriesDefault" table="dec_cats" > <id name="id" column="id" type="string" length="40" access="property"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <component name="incomeInfoMember" class="com.sample.IncomeInfoDefault"> <property name="hasWage" type="boolean" column="inMemWage"/> ... <component name="wage" class="com.sample.impl.WageDefault"> <property name="hasEmployerWage" type="boolean" column="inMemEmpWage"/> ... <set name="employerWages" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="false"> <key column="idCats" not-null="true" /> <one-to-many entity-name="mIWaEmp"/> </set> </component> </component> </class>

    Read the article

  • Personal Cache vs Memcache?

    - by Kerry
    I have a personal caching class, which can be seen here ( based off WordPress' ): http://pastie.org/988427 I recently learned about memcache and it said to memcache EVERYTHING: http://highscalability.com/blog/2010/5/17/7-lessons-learned-while-building-reddit-to-270-million-page.html My first thought was just to keep my class with the current functions and make it use memcache instead -- is there any downside to doing this? The main difference I see is that memcache stays on with the server from page to page, while mine is for 1 page load. The problem I see arising, and this is with any system, is that they're dynamic. They change all the time. Whether its search results, visible products, etc. etc. If it's all cached, won't the create a problem? Is there a way to handle this? Obviously if something is bringing back the same results everytime it would be cached, but that's why I was doing it on a per page load basis. I'm sure there is a way to handle this, or is the cache time usually set between 5 minutes and an hour?

    Read the article

  • When is it better to use a method versus a property for a class definition?

    - by ccomet
    Partially related to an earlier question of mine, I have a system in which I have to store complex data as a string. Instead of parsing these strings as all kinds of separate objects, I just created one class that contains all of those objects, and it has some parser logic that will encode all properties into strings, or decode a string to get those objects. That's all fine and good. This question is not about the parser itself, but about where I should house the logic for the parser. Is it a better choice to put it as a property, or as a method? In the case of a property, say public string DataAsString, the get accessor would house the logic to encode all of the data into a string, while the set accessor would decode the input value and set all of the data in the class instance. It seems convenient because the input/output is indeed a string. In the case of a method, one method would be Encode(), which returns the encoded string. Then, either the constructor itself would house the logic for the decoding a string and require the string argument, or I write a Decode(string str) method which is called separately. In either case, it would be using a method instead of a property. So, is there a functional difference between these paths, in terms of the actual running of the code? Or are they basically equivalent and it then boils down to a choice of personal preference or which one looks better? And in that kind of question... which would look cleaner anyway?

    Read the article

  • Hibernate database integrity with multiple java applications

    - by Austen
    We have 2 java web apps both are read/write and 3 standalone java read/write applications (one loads questions via email, one processes an xml feed, one sends email to subscribers) all use hibernate and share a common code base. The problem we have recently come across is that questions loaded via email sometimes overwrite questions created in one of the web apps. We originally thought this to be a caching issue. We've tried turning off the second level cache, but this doesn't make a difference. We are not explicitly opening and closing sessions, but rather let hibernate manage them via Util.getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(), which thinking about it, may actually be the issue. We'd rather not setup a clustered 2nd level cache at this stage as this creates another layer of complexity and we're more than happy with the level of performance we get from the app as a whole. So does implementing a open-session-in-view pattern in the web apps and manually managing the sessions in the standalone apps sound like it would fix this? Or any other suggestions/ideas please? <property name="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">org.hibernate.transaction.JDBCTransactionFactory</property> <property name="hibernate.current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">false</property>

    Read the article

  • loading custom view using loadNibNamed showing memory leaks

    - by user307550
    I have a number of custom table cells and views that I built using interface builder In interface builder, everything is set up similarly. There is a table cell and a couple other UILabels and a background image Object owner if the nib is NSObject Class for the table cell is the name of the class for my table cell Here is how I create the table cell in my code: SectionedSwitchTableCell *cell = nil; NSArray *nibs = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:kSectionedSwitchTableCellIdentifier owner:owner options:nil]; for(id currentObject in nibs) { if([currentObject isKindOfClass:[SectionedSwitchTableCell class]]) { cell = (SectionedSwitchTableCell *)currentObject; break; } } return cell; For my custom table headers I have this NSArray *nibs = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"CustomTableHeader" owner:self options:nil]; for(id currentObject in nibs) { if([currentObject isKindOfClass:[CustomTableHeader class]]) { return header } } In my .h and .m files for the custom view, I have IBOutlet, @property set up for everything except for the background image UIImageView. Everything that has the IBOutlet and @property are also @synthesized and released in the .m file. Leaks is showing that I have memory leaks with CALayer when I create these custom view objects. Am I doing something wrong here when I create these custom view objects? I'm kind of tearing my hair out trying to figure out where these leaks are coming from. As a side note, I have a UIImageView background image defined in these custom views but I didn't define properties and IBOutlets in my .h and .m files. Defining them doesn't make a difference when I run it through Leaks but just wanted to confirm if I'm doing the right thing. Any input would be super helpful. Thanks :)

    Read the article

  • New Rails deployment half working...not sure why?

    - by Meltemi
    I'm in the final stages of going round trip through the entire Rails cycle: development - test - production (on an external server). I'm very close...but seeing some errors with the production version and don't know enough about Rails' "magic" to troubleshoot it yet... all seems well and I can load my app by going to www.mydomain.com/rails and it seems to work...I can interact with my app and create new objects in my database. However, when I go to www.mydomain.com/rails/ (difference is the trailing slash) i get a webpage that just says "Index from public" on it?!? I don't know where that's coming from? index.html is long removed from public. this may or may not be related to why I can't access, say, the first record in one of my classes by calling its controller like so: www.mydomain.com/rails/mycontroller/1 . and yes, there are records in the database. anyway, something's askew. it works fine on development box. but, only half working on production server. anyone know what might be causing this? this app is running on the server box (not development) Installed Passenger on server to serve app via Apache modified my httpd.conf with Passenger's stuff (headache but finally got it to respond) loaded schema into the production database: rake db:schema:load RAILS_ENV=production

    Read the article

  • web.xml : URL mapping

    - by Devashish Dixit
    I have these two lines in my web.xml <url-pattern>/</url-pattern> : Index Servletand <url-pattern>/login</url-pattern> : Login Servlet but whem I open http://localhost:8084/login/, it goes to Index Servlet and when I open http://localhost:8084/login, it goes to Login Servlet. Is there any difference in http://localhost:8084/login/ and http://localhost:8084/login? My web.xml <servlet> <servlet-name>Index</servlet-name> <servlet-class>Index</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet> <servlet-name>Login</servlet-name> <servlet-class>Login</servlet-class> </servlet> and <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>Index</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>Login</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/login</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping>

    Read the article

  • MySQL table data transformation -- how can I dis-aggreate MySQL time data?

    - by lighthouse65
    We are coding for a MySQL data warehousing application that stores descriptive data (User ID, Work ID, Machine ID, Start and End Time columns in the first table below) associated with time and production quantity data (Output and Time columns in the first table below) upon which aggregate (SUM, COUNT, AVG) functions are applied. We now wish to dis-aggregate time data for another type of analysis. Our current data table design: +---------+---------+------------+---------------------+---------------------+--------+------+ | User ID | Work ID | Machine ID | Event Start Time | Event End Time | Output | Time | +---------+---------+------------+---------------------+---------------------+--------+------+ | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2008-01-24 16:19:15 | 2008-01-24 16:34:45 | 2120 | 930 | +---------+---------+------------+---------------------+---------------------+--------+------+ Reprocessing dis-aggregation that we would like to do would be to transform table content based on a granularity of minutes, rather than the current production event ("Event Start Time" and "Event End Time") granularity. The resulting reprocessing of existing table rows would look like: +---------+---------+------------+---------------------+--------+ | User ID | Work ID | Machine ID | Production Minute | Output | +---------+---------+------------+---------------------+--------+ | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:19 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:20 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:21 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:22 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:23 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:24 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:25 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:26 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:27 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:28 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:29 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:30 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:31 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:22 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:33 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:34 | 133 | +---------+---------+------------+---------------------+--------+ So the reprocessing would take an existing row of data created at the granularity of production event and modify the granularity to minutes, eliminating redundant (Event End Time, Time) columns while doing so. It assumes a constant rate of production and divides output by the difference in minutes plus one to populate the new table's Output column. I know this can be done in code...but can it be done entirely in a MySQL insert statement (or otherwise entirely in MySQL)? I am thinking of a INSERT ... INTO construction but keep getting stuck. An additional complexity is that there are hundreds of machines to include in the operation so there will be multiple rows (one for each machine) for each minute of the day. Any ideas would be much appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Width of li with two floats different in IE, correct in FF

    - by Nathan Loding
    I've worked out most of the kinks with my "lava-lamp" effect that I'm trying to create. Basically I want two curly braces (both are images) to wrap a list-item, then follow over to the next list-item. I always build in FF, then make exceptions for IE. I can't figure out what exception I need to make! I'm using an absolutely positioned li that contains two div's. The first div is floated left, the second is floated right. The width of the li is set to the width of the li it supposed to be wrapping. Thus creating the effect of the braces on the left and right sides of the text. It works beautifully in Firefox, but IE has two issues: The bottoms of the images are cut off. Sometimes they reappear when the animation ends, sometimes they don't. I assume this has to do with height, but no matter what I set the height to, it fails! The width is completely wrong. Here's a live example of it: http://jsbin.com/odome/2 The left position in IE is always 5-7px more than in FF, but that's a small difference. I'm more concerned with the width and the bottoms of the images being trimmed. Thanks, as always, for the help!

    Read the article

  • mySQL not saving data?

    - by tony noriega
    i have a PHP contact form that submits data, and an email...: <?php $dbh=mysql_connect ("localhost", "username", "password") or die ('I cannot connect to the database because: ' . mysql_error()); mysql_select_db ("guest"); if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { if (!$_POST['name'] | !$_POST['email']) { echo"<div class='error'>Error<br />Please provide your Name and Email Address so we may properly contact you.</div>"; } else { $age = $_POST['age']; $name = $_POST['name']; $gender = $_POST['gender']; $email = $_POST['email']; $phone = $_POST['phone']; $comments = $_POST['comments']; $query = "INSERT INTO contact_us (age,name,gender,email,phone,comments) VALUES ('$age','$name','$gender','$email','$phone','$comments')"; mysql_query($query); mysql_close(); $yoursite = "Mysite "; $youremail = $email; $subject = "Website Guest Contact Us Form"; $message = "$name would like you to contact them Contact PH: $phone Email: $email Age: $age Gender: $gender Comments: $comments"; $email2 = "[email protected]"; mail($email2, $subject, $message, "From: $email"); echo"<div class='thankyou'>Thank you for contacting us,<br /> we will respond as soon as we can.</div>"; } } ?> The email is coming through fine, but the data is not storing the dbase... am i missing something? Its the same script as i use on another contact us page, only difference is instead of parsing the data on teh same page, i now send this data to a "thankyou.php" page... i tried changing $_POST to $_GET but that killed the page... what am i doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Compile time float packing/punning

    - by detly
    I'm writing C for the PIC32MX, compiled with Microchip's PIC32 C compiler (based on GCC 3.4). My problem is this: I have some reprogrammable numeric data that is stored either on EEPROM or in the program flash of the chip. This means that when I want to store a float, I have to do some type punning: typedef union { int intval; float floatval; } IntFloat; unsigned int float_as_int(float fval) { IntFloat intf; intf.floatval = fval; return intf.intval; } // Stores an int of data in whatever storage we're using void StoreInt(unsigned int data, unsigned int address); void StoreFPVal(float data, unsigned int address) { StoreInt(float_as_int(data), address); } I also include default values as an array of compile time constants. For (unsigned) integer values this is trivial, I just use the integer literal. For floats, though, I have to use this Python snippet to convert them to their word representation to include them in the array: import struct hex(struct.unpack("I", struct.pack("f", float_value))[0]) ...and so my array of defaults has these indecipherable values like: const unsigned int DEFAULTS[] = { 0x00000001, // Some default integer value, 1 0x3C83126F, // Some default float value, 0.005 } (These actually take the form of X macro constructs, but that doesn't make a difference here.) Commenting is nice, but is there a better way? It's be great to be able to do something like: const unsigned int DEFAULTS[] = { 0x00000001, // Some default integer value, 1 COMPILE_TIME_CONVERT(0.005), // Some default float value, 0.005 } ...but I'm completely at a loss, and I don't even know if such a thing is possible. Notes Obviously "no, it isn't possible" is an acceptable answer if true. I'm not overly concerned about portability, so implementation defined behaviour is fine, undefined behaviour is not (I have the IDB appendix sitting in front of me). As fas as I'm aware, this needs to be a compile time conversion, since DEFAULTS is in the global scope. Please correct me if I'm wrong about this.

    Read the article

  • how to access anti aliasing method of a font with CSS

    - by Daniel Ramirez-Escudero
    I've had this problem in a lot of different webs. You have a font which has different anti-aliasing options, the designer uses the same font with different anti-aliasing options on different parts of the text on the web. So there is a difference between some elements. In this case I have sharp, crisp, strong and smooth. I've used a font generator to get the code to access it via @font-face. Even so, I also have the original .otf if important to know. Is there a method to access this? I upload a picture of what I mean and my actual code: ![@font-face { font-family: 'light'; src: url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.eot'); src: url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.eot?#iefix') format('embedded-opentype'), url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.woff') format('woff'), url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.ttf') format('truetype'), url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.svg#../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light') format('svg'); font-weight: normal; font-style: normal; }]![enter image description here][1]

    Read the article

  • Is it safe to use random Unicode for complex delimiter sequences in strings?

    - by ccomet
    Question: In terms of program stability and ensuring that the system will actually operate, how safe is it to use chars like ¦, § or ‡ for complex delimiter sequences in strings? Can I reliable believe that I won't run into any issues in a program reading these incorrectly? I am working in a system, using C# code, in which I have to store a fairly complex set of information within a single string. The readability of this string is only necessary on the computer side, end-users should only ever see the information after it has been parsed by the appropriate methods. Because some of the data in these strings will be collections of variable size, I use different delimiters to identify what parts of the string correspond to a certain tier of organization. There are enough cases that the standard sets of ;, |, and similar ilk have been exhausted. I considered two-char delimiters, like ;# or ;|, but I felt that it would be very inefficient. There probably isn't that large of a performance difference in storing with one char versus two chars, but when I have the option of picking the smaller option, it just feels wrong to pick the larger one. So finally, I considered using the set of characters like the double dagger and section. They only take up one char, and they are definitely not going to show up in the actual text that I'll be storing, so they won't be confused for anything. But character encoding is finicky. While the visibility to the end user is meaningless (since they, in fact, won't see it), I became recently concerned about how the programs in the system will read it. The string is stored in one database, while a separate program is responsible for both encoding and decoding the string into different object types for the rest of the application to work with. And if something is expected to be written one way, is possibly written another, then maybe the whole system will fail and I can't really let that happen. So is it safe to use these kind of chars for background delimiters?

    Read the article

  • Calling services from the Orchestrating layer in SOA?

    - by Martin Lee
    The Service Oriented Architecture Principles site says that Service Composition is an important thing in SOA. But Service Loose Coupling is important as well. Does that mean that the "Orchestrating layer" should be the only one that is allowed to make calls to services in the system? As I understand SOA, the "Orchestrating layer" 'glues' all the services together into one software application. I tried to depict that on Fig.A and Fig.B. The difference between the two is that on Fig.A the application is composed of services and all the logic is done in the "Orchestrating layer" (all calls to services are done from the "Orchestrating layer" only). On Fig.B the application is composed from services, but one service calls another service. Does the architecture on Fig.B violate the "Service Loose Coupling" principle of SOA? Can a service call another service in SOA? And more generally, can the architecture on Fig.A be considered superior to the one on Fig.B in terms of service loose coupling, abstraction, reusability, autonomy, etc.? My guess is that the A architecture is much more universal, but it can add some unnecessary data transfers between the "Orchestrating layer" and all the called services.

    Read the article

  • Conditionally overriding a system method via categories in Objective-C?

    - by adib
    Hi Is there a way to provide a method implementation (that bears the exact same name of a method defined by the framework) only when the method isn't already defined in the system? For example method [NSSomeClass someMethod:] exists only in Mac OS X 10.6 and if my app runs in 10.5, I will provide that method's definition in a category. But when the app runs in 10.6, I want the OS-provided method to run. Background: I'm creating an app targeted for both 10.5 and 10.6. The problem is that I recently realized that method +[NSSortDescriptor sortDescriptorWithKey:ascending:] only exists in 10.6 and my code is already littered by that method call. I could provide a default implementation for it (since this time it's not too difficult to implement it myself), but I want the "native" one to be called whenever my app runs on 10.6. Furthermore if I encounter similar problems in the future (with more difficult-to-implement-myself methods), I might not be able to get away with providing a one-liner replacement. This question vaguely similar to Override a method via ObjC Category and call the default implementation? but the difference is that I want to provide implementations only when the system doesn't already has one. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • SQL to CodeIgniter Array Missing Data Issue

    - by SamD
    $query = $this->db->query("SELECT t1.numberofbets, t1.profit, t2.seven_profit, t3.28profit, user.user_id, username, password, email, balance, user.date_added, activation_code, activated FROM user LEFT JOIN (SELECT user_id, SUM(amount_won) AS profit, count(tip_id) AS numberofbets FROM tip GROUP BY user_id) as t1 ON user.user_id = t1.user_id LEFT JOIN (SELECT user_id, SUM(amount_won) AS seven_profit FROM tip WHERE date_settled > '$seven_daystime' GROUP BY user_id) as t2 ON user.user_id = t2.user_id LEFT JOIN (SELECT user_id, SUM(amount_won) AS 28profit FROM tip WHERE date_settled > '$twoeight_daystime' GROUP BY user_id) as t3 ON user.user_id = t3.user_id where activated = 1 GROUP BY user.user_id ORDER BY user.date_added DESC"); return $query->result_array(); The query works fine running it in phpMyAdmin and returns complete results (in image attached). However, printing the array in CodeIgniter, it has no value for one field ,seven_profit, where it is there in the SQL query ran in phpMyAdmin, just the discrepancy in this one field, from sql to php array... I just can’t see why, when printing the array, that one field, which should have value of 26, contains nothing? Any ideas? I changed the field name from starting with a number in attempt to fix it, but no difference. I know this is complex and looks horrible, any help or just people coming across something similar would be great to know about, thanks. Sam

    Read the article

  • rails validation of presence not failing on nil

    - by holden
    I want to make sure an attibute exists, but it seems to still slip thru and I'm not sure how better to check for it. This should work, but doesn't. It's a attr_accessor and not a real attribute if that makes a difference. validates_presence_of :confirmed, :rooms {"commit"=>"Make Booking", "place_id"=>"the-kosmonaut", "authenticity_token"=>"Tkd9bfGqYFfYUv0n/Kqp6psXHjLU7CmX+D4UnCWMiMk=", "utf8"=>"✓", "booking"=>{"place_id"=>"6933", "bookdate"=>"2010-11-22", "rooms"=>[{}], "no_days"=>"2"}} Not sure why my form_for returns a blank hash in an array... <% form_for :booking, :url => place_bookings_path(@place) do |f| %> <%= f.hidden_field :bookdate, { :value => user_cart.getDate } %> <%= f.hidden_field :no_days, { :value => user_cart.getDays } %> <% for room in pricing_table(@place.rooms,@valid_dates) %> <%= select_tag("booking[rooms][][#{room.id}]", available_beds(room)) %> <% end %> <% end %>

    Read the article

  • Need a SQL statement focus on combination of tables but entries always with uinque ID

    - by Registered User KC
    Hi All, I need SQL code to solve the tables combination problem, described on below: Table old data: name version status lastupdate ID A 0.1 on 6/8/2010 1 B 0.1 on 6/8/2010 2 C 0.1 on 6/8/2010 3 D 0.1 on 6/8/2010 4 E 0.1 on 6/8/2010 5 F 0.1 on 6/8/2010 6 G 0.1 on 6/8/2010 7 Table new data: name version status lastupdate ID A 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #B entry deleted C 0.3 on 6/18/2010 #version_updated C1 0.1 on 6/18/2010 D 0.1 on 6/18/2010 E 0.1 off 6/18/2010 #status_updated F 0.1 on 6/18/2010 G 0.1 on 6/18/2010 H 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #new_added H1 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #new_added the difference of new data and old date: B entry deleted C entry version updated E entry status updated C1/H/H1 entry new added What I want is always keeping the ID - name mapping relationship in old data table no matter how data changed later, a.k.a the name always has a unique ID number bind with it. If entry has update, then update the data, if entry is new added, insert to the table then give a new assigned unique ID. However, I can only use SQL with simple select or update statement then it may too hard for me to write such code, then I hope someone with expertise can give direction, no details needed on the different of SQL variant, a standard sql code as sample is enough. Thanks in advance! Rgs KC

    Read the article

  • Insert a datetime value with GetDate() function to a SQL server (2005) table?

    - by David.Chu.ca
    I am working (or fixing bugs) on an application which was developed in VS 2005 C#. The application saves data to a SQL server 2005. One of insert SQL statement tries to insert a time-stamp value to a field with GetDate() TSQL function as date time value. Insert into table1 (field1, ... fieldDt) values ('value1', ... GetDate()); The reason to use GetDate() function is that the SQL server may be at a remove site, and the date time may be in a difference time zone. Therefore, GetDate() will always get a date from the server. As the function can be verified in SQL Management Studio, this is what I get: SELECT GetDate(), LEN(GetDate()); -- 2010-06-10 14:04:48.293 19 One thing I realize is that the length is not up to the milliseconds, i.e., 19 is actually for '2010-06-10 14:04:48'. Anyway, the issue I have right now is that after the insert, the fieldDt actually has a date time value up to minutes, for example, '2010-06-10 14:04:00'. I am not sure why. I don't have permission to update or change the table with a trigger to update the field. My question is that how I can use a INSERT T-SQL to add a new row with a date time value ( SQL server's local date time) with a precision up to milliseconds?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 274 275 276 277 278 279 280 281 282 283 284 285  | Next Page >