Search Results

Search found 33453 results on 1339 pages for 'alias method'.

Page 279/1339 | < Previous Page | 275 276 277 278 279 280 281 282 283 284 285 286  | Next Page >

• Decoupling into DAL and BLL - my concerns.

  - by novice_man

  Hi, In many posts concerning this topic I come across very simple examples that do not answer my question. Let's say a have a document table and user table. In DAL written in ADO.NET i have a method to retries all documents for some criteria. Now I the UI I have a case where I need to show this list along with the names of the creator. Up to know I have it done with one method in DAL containig JOIN statement. However eveytime I have such a complex method i have to do custom mapping to some object that doesn't mark 1:1 to DB. Should it be put into another layer ? If so then I will have to resing from join query for iteration through results and querying each document author. . . which doen't make sense... (performance) what is the best approach for such scenarios ?

  Read the article

• Delegate won't update page

  - by mat690

  I am trying to change the active index of a multiview by using a delegate and it doesn't work as i expect. this is my code protected void ucWaitPage_FinishedWaiting(PerformAfterWaitDelegate performAfterWait) { performAfterWait.Invoke(); this.SetIndex(); } private void SetIndex() { this.mvwTest.ActiveViewIndex = 0; } The performAfterWait Delegate points to the SetIndex() method. When the performAfterWait delegate gets invoked SetIndex() gets called but when SetIndex() returns this.mvwTest.ActiveViewIndex reverts to being equal to 1. However when i call the SetIndex() method directly it sets this.mvwTest.ActiveViewIndex = 0 and the change persists when the method returns.

  Read the article

• Restful Path Parameters in Spring MVC 3

  - by MDK

  Is it possible to: set a URI template in the mvc:view-controller element of the *-servlet.xml file or in a controller method and then use/get that path parameter in a jsp? I understand that using @PathVariable in a controller method will give me access to the path parameter in that controller method. But how can I gain access to the path parameter in the jsp? For example, is it possible to do something like: *-servlet.xml file: <beans...> <mvc:view-controller path="/home" view-name="home"/> <mvc:view-controller path="/home/{error}" view-name="home"/> </beans> jsp file: <c:if test="${not empty param['error']}"> <span class="error">You have an error...</span> </c:if>

  Read the article

• Client-side session timeout redirect in ASP.Net

  - by Mercury821

  I want to build a way to automatically redirect users to Timeout.aspx when their session expires due to inactivity. My application uses forms authentication and relies heavily on update panels within the same aspx page for user interaction, so I don't want to simply redirect after a page-level timer expires. For the same reason, I can't use '<meta http-equiv="refresh"/>' What I want to do is create a simple ajax web service with a method called IsSessionTimedOut(), that simply returns a boolean. I will use a javascript timer to periodically call the method, and if it returns true, then redirect to Timeout.aspx. However, I don't want calling this method to reset the session timeout timer, or the session would never time out because of the service call. Is there a clean way to avoid this catch-22? Hopefully there is an easy solution that has so far eluded me.

  Read the article

• Can running object be garbage collected?

  - by Kugel

  I have a simple class: public class Runner { public void RunAndForget(RunDelegate method) { ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(new WaitCallback(Run), method); } private void Run(object o) { ((RunDelegate )o).Invoke(); } } And if I use this like so: private void RunSomethingASync() { Runner runner = new Runner(); runner.FireAndForget(new RunDelegate(Something)); } Is there any danger using it like this? My C++ guts tell me that runner object should be destroyed after RunSomethingASync is finished. Am I right? What happens then to the method running on different thread? Or perhaps it is other way around and runner will not be collected? That would be a problem considering I may call RunSomethingASync() many times.

  Read the article

• dismissViewControllerAnimated completion block presenter view and modal view flow

  - by Patricia LaRue

  I did find an answer to this title and I did do a little research but I'm still not getting the flow. Here is what I want to happen: 1) click a button on the presenter view to open a modal view. 2) retrieve some value and click a button to close the modal view....sending the value to the presentor view and execute a method. I get that this works like a callback but I still can't figure out where to put the callback stuff. So, how exactly do I do this? A) In the presentViewController completion block, should I include the presenter view method to execute when modal view is completed? Or: B) In the modal view's dismissViewControllerAnimated completion block, should I include the presenter view method to execute when modal view is completed? Can somebody help me with some sample code? Or at least help me get the flow of which block to put the code in? Thank you, P

  Read the article

• Is it bad practice to use python's getattr extensively?

  - by Wilduck

  I'm creating a shell-like environment. My original method of handleing user input was to use a dictionary mapping commands (strings) to methods of various classes, making use of the fact that functions are first class objects in python. For flexibility's sake (mostly for parsing commands), I'm thinking of changing my setup such that I'm using getattr(command), to grab the method I need and then passing arguments to it at the end of my parser. Another advantage of this approach is not having to update my (currently statically implemented) command dictionary every time I add a new method/command. My question is, will I be taking a hit to the efficiency of my shell? Does it matter how many methods/commands I have? I'm currently looking at 30 some commands, which could eventually double.

  Read the article

• help with reflections and annotations in java

  - by Yonatan

  Hello Internet ! I'm having trouble with doubling up on my code for no reason other than my own lack of ability to do it more efficiently... `for (Method curr: all){ if (curr.isAnnotationPresent(anno)){ if (anno == Pre.class){ for (String str : curr.getAnnotation(Pre.class).value()){ if (str.equals(method.getName()) && curr.getReturnType() == boolean.class && curr.getParameterTypes().length == 0){ toRun.add(curr); } } } if (anno == Post.class) { for (String str : curr.getAnnotation(Post.class).value()){ if (str.equals(method.getName()) && curr.getReturnType() == boolean.class && curr.getParameterTypes().length == 0){ toRun.add(curr); } } } } }` anno is a parameter - Class, and Pre and Post are my annotations, both have a value() which is an array of strings. Of course, this is all due to the fact that i let Eclipse auto fill code that i don't understand yet.

  Read the article

• How to avoid automatic renaming of sub signature parameters in visual basic 6.

  - by systempuntoout

  In Visual basic 6, i declare a sub like this: Private Sub test1(ByRef XmlFooOutput As String) ... End Sub after that, i declare another sub like the following one: Private Sub test2(ByRef xmlFooOutput As String) ... End Sub automagically, the first method is transformed in: Private Sub test1(ByVal xmlFooOutput As String) ... End Sub so the XmlFooOutput parameter is transformed in xmlFooOutput. This is a pretty dangerous feature because, method like those could be mapped to different XSL presentation files that read XML values through Xpath. So when test1 parameter is renamed, XSL bound to test1 method goes broken because Xpath point to XmlFooOuput but the correct value is now in xmlFooOutput. Is it possible to remove this weird feature? I'm using microsoft visual basic 6.0 (SP6). This question has some duplicate: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1064858/stop-visual-basic-6-from-changing-my-casing http://stackoverflow.com/questions/248760/vb6-editor-changing-case-of-variable-names from what i see, there's no practical solution to disable this Intellisense evil feature.

  Read the article

• Int[] Reverse - What does this actually do?

  - by Jamie Dixon

  I was just having a play around with some code in LINQPad and noticed that on an int array there is a Reverse method. Usually when I want to reverse an int array I'd do so with Array.Reverse(myIntArray); Which, given the array {1,2,3,4} would then return 4 as the value of myIntArray[0]. When I used the Reverse() method directly on my int array: myIntArray.Reverse(); I notice that myIntArray[0] still comes out as 1. What is the Reverse method actually doing here?

  Read the article

• rspec mocks: verify expectations in it "should" methods?

  - by Derick Bailey

  I'm trying to use rspec's mocking to setup expectations that I can verify in the it "should" methods... but I don't know how to do this... when i call the .should_receive methods on the mock, it verifies the expected call as soon as the before :all method exits. here's a small example: describe Foo, "when doing something" do before :all do Bar.should_recieve(:baz) foo = Foo.new foo.create_a_Bar_and_call_baz end it "should call the bar method" do # ??? what do i do here? end end How can i verify the expected call in the 'it "should"' method? do i need to use mocha or another mocking framework instead of rspec's? or ???

  Read the article

• Max number of web methods?

  - by Rippo

  Guys I have a web service in asp.net 2.0 that has 234 methods. It seems that when I add another method the site does not compile in VS2005 until I remove one first. I get a message saying that the new method I just added does not exist in a file that belongs in the Microsoft.Net/.../Temporary Files directory. I have restarted IIS, closed down VS2005, removed all files from this temp directory but to no avail. The only way to get the code to compile is to remove another one so as to keep 234 methods.... I can consistency replicate this behaviour so it cannot be my code. Now I know this seems strange but it is true! One other strange thing is that exactly 100 of the method names begin with the word GetXXXyyyZZZ Has anyone else experienced problems with the maximum number of methods that are allowed in a web service? Many Thanks

  Read the article

• How extension methods work in background ?

  - by Freshblood

  I am just cuirous about behind of extension method mechanism.Some questions and answer appear in my mind. MyClass.OrderBy(x=>x.a).OrderBy(x=>x.b); I was guessing that mechanism was first orderby method works and order them by a member then returns sorted items in IEnumarable interface then next Orderby method of IEnumarable Order them for b paramater.But i am wrong when i look at this linq query. MyClass.Orderby(x=>x.a).ThenOrderBy(x=>x.b); this is slightly different and tells me that i am wrong.Because this is not ordering by a then b and not possible to have such result if i was right.This get me confuse enough... Similiar structure is possible to write withot extension methods as first query but second is not possible.This prove i am wrong . Can u explain it ?

  Read the article

• Multiple Asserts in a Unit Test

  - by whatispunk

  I've just finished reading Roy Osherove's "The Art of Unit Testing" and I am trying to adhere to the best practices he lays out in the book. One of those best practices is to not use multiple asserts in a test method. The reason for this rule is fairly clear to me, but it makes me wonder... If I have a method like: public Foo MakeFoo(int x, int y, int z) { Foo f = new Foo(); f.X = x; f.Y = y; f.Z = z; return f; } Must I really write individual unit tests to assert each separate property of Foo is initialized with the supplied value? Is it really all that uncommon to use multiple asserts in a test method? FYI: I am using MSTest.

  Read the article

• Trouble getting email attachment from Exchange

  - by JimR

  I am getting the error message “The remote server returned an error: (501) Not Implemented.” when I try to use the HttpWebRequest.GetResponse() using the GET Method to get an email attachment from exchange. I have tried to change the HttpVersion and don’t think it is a permissions issue since I can search the inbox. I know my credentials are correct as they are used to get HREF using the HttpWebRequest.Method = Search on the inbox (https://mail.mailserver.com/exchange/testemailaccount/Inbox/). HREF = https://mail.mailserver.com/exchange/testemailaccount/Inbox/testemail.EML/attachment.csv Sample Code: HttpWebRequest req = (System.Net.HttpWebRequest) HttpWebRequest.CreateHREF); req.Method = "GET"; req.Credentials = this.mCredentialCache; string data = string.Empty; using (WebResponse resp = req.GetResponse()) { Encoding enc = Encoding.Default; if (resp == null) { throw new Exception("Response contains no information."); } using (StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(resp.GetResponseStream(), Encoding.ASCII)) { data = sr.ReadToEnd(); } }

  Read the article

• Communication between layers in an application

  - by Petar Minchev

  Hi guys! Let's assume we have the following method in the business layer. What's the best practice to tell the UI layer that something went wrong and give also the error message? Should the method return an empty String when it was OK, otherwise the error message, or should it throw another exception in the catch code wrapping the caught exception? If we choose the second variant then the UI should have another try,catch which is too much try,catch maybe. Here is a pseudocode for the first variant. public String updateSomething() { try { //Begin transaction here dataLayer.do1(); dataLayer.do2(); dataLayer.doN(); } catch(Exception exc) { //Rollback transaction code here return exc.message; } return ""; } Is this a good practice or should I throw another exception in the catch(then the method will be void)?

  Read the article

• Joomap (on joomla) causes 404 error if it is menulink case

  - by haim evgi

  Hi, I'm using Joomla 1.5 and installed Joomap to create site map. I found that if the item in the Joomap tree is a menulink (menu alias), then it cannot work as deserved. It will cause a 404 error which said the component cannot be found when the menulink is clicked. thanks

  Read the article

• Objective-C: when does an assigned object get deallocated

  - by Stefan Klumpp

  If I have a instance method and within this method I do something like this: NSString *peopleString = [peopleList componentsJoinedByString: @", "]; ... UILabel *likeLabel = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(16.0+6.0f, 4.0f, 252.0f, 12.0f)]; [likeLabel setText:peopleString]; [likeLabel setFont:[UIFont fontWithName:@"Arial" size:12]]; [likeRow addSubview:likeLabel]; [likeLabel release]; The componentsJoinedByString doesn't contain a new, copy or alloc, thus I don't have to release it. What I'm wondering though is, when my peopleString gets deallocated. Might it happen to early? Meaning, before I can set the text in my label. Should I better use a [[NSString alloc] initWithString:[peopleList componentsJoinedByString: @", "]]; and release it at the end of this method?

  Read the article

• Sending bulk notification emails without blocking

  - by FreshCode

  For my client's custom-built CRM, I want users (technicians) to be notified of changes to marked cases via email. This warrants a simple subscription mapping table between users and cases and automated emails to be sent every time a change is made to a case from within the logging method. How do I send 10-100 emails to subscribed users without bogging down my logging method? My SMTP server is on a peer on my LAN, so sends should be quick, but ideally this should be handled by an external queuing process. I can have a cron job send any outstanding emails every 10 minutes, but for this specific client cases are quite time-sensitive and instant notification (as instant as email can be) would be great. How can I send bulk notification emails from within ASP.NET MVC without bogging down my logging method?

  Read the article

• Configure mod_jk with mod_rewrite

  - by Ayyappan

  Dear all Is there any way to configure both mod_jk and .htaccess in a same call what are the steps follow plz replay me httpd.conf ServerAdmin "[email protected]" ServerName www.vpaycash.in MIMEMagicFile /dev/null CustomLog logs/vpaycash.in_access_log "%h %l %u %t \"%r\" %s %b\"%{Referer}i\" \"%{User-agent}i\"" ErrorLog logs/vpaycash.in_error_log DocumentRoot "/home/vpaycashinadmin/webapps" Options +Indexes +FollowSymLinks Order allow,deny Allow from all AllowOverride All JkMount /* wlb JkMount /*.faces wlb JkMount /*.html wlb JkMount /*.iface wlb JkMount /*.jspx wlb JkMount /TestFilter wlb JkMount /block/* wlb JkMount /xmlhttp/* wlb Alias /usage "/home/vpaycashinadmin/public_html/usage" Order allow,deny Allow from all .htacess RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^index.html$ index.iface

  Read the article

• Python Class inherit from all submodules

  - by Dhruv Govil

  I'm currently writing a wrapper in python for a lot of custom company tools. I'm basically going to break each tool into its own py file with a class containing the call to the tool as a method. These will all be contained in a package. Then there'll be a master class that will import all from the package, then inherit from each and every class, so as to appear as one cohesive class. masterClass.py pyPackage - __ init__.py - module1.py --class Module1 ---method tool1 - module2.py --class Module2 ---method tool2 etc Right now, I'm autogenerating the master class file to inherit from the packages modules, but I was wondering if there was a more elegant way to do it? ie from package import * class MasterClass(package.all): pass

  Read the article

• UIViewScrollviw UITableView subview scrolling. IOS

  - by user1484810

  I have a UIScrollview with a UITableview subview. The UIScrollview scrolls the UITableView horizontally. The UITable view naturally scrolls up and down. If a user places their finger on the UitableView, and moves (swipes) horizontally, The delegate method below is invoked (void)scrollViewDidScroll:(UIScrollView *)scrollView with scrollView isEqual theUIScrollView If the user lifts their finger and places it back down on the UITableView and moves in a vertical direction The delegate method below is invoked (void)scrollViewDidScroll:(UIScrollView *)scrollView with scrollView isEqual = theUITable If however the user places their finger and moves in a horizontally (void)scrollViewDidScroll:(UIScrollView *)scrollView with scrollView isEqual theUIScrollView If the user then moves the finger (without lifting it) in a vertical direction. delegate method scrollViewDidScroll is not invoked at all. (The reverse is true too.) I note that the "Pulse News" app seems to behave in the above manner.. Ultimately I want to figure out how to get the UITableView and UIScrollview moving in a "unidirectional" fashion, with one finger kept on the screen. Thanks...

  Read the article

• INotifyPropertyChange ~ PropertyChanged not firing when property is a collection and a new item is a

  - by eponymous23

  I have a class that implements the INotifyPropertyChanged interface. Some of the properties of the class are of type List. For example: public List<string> Answers { get { return _answers; } set { _answers = value; onPropertyChanged("Answers") } } ... private void onPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if(this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } If I assign a new List<string> to Answer, then the PropertyChanged event fires as expected; but if I add a string string to the Answer list using the List Add method, then PropertyChanged event doesn't fire. I was considering adding an AddAnswer() method to my class, which would handle calling the lists's Add method and would call onPropertyChanged() from there, but is that the right way to do it? Is there a more elegant way of doing it? Cheers, KT

  Read the article

• Reflection: take values from an unknown running alpplication

  - by Dr.Lesh

  I'm writing an application that searchs for Semaphore types in the fields of unknown classes in unknown application (passed by user). I made it using Reflection and it worked. Now I want to fill up these semaphores with values, taking them from a running instance of this unknown application. So i took the class with "main" method of this unknown application, made a newInstance, and passed it when invoking the main method to start the application: Class mainClass = getItSomeWhere(); Object instance = mainClass.newInstance(); Method mainMethod = mainClass.getDeclaredMethod("main", new Class[]{String[].class}); mainMethod.invoke(instance, new Object[]{args}); and it worked fine. Now, how can I get the semaphore values, taking them from the classes of this running application, when I only have an instance of the main class? Many thanks for the answers.

  Read the article

• How to set a bean property before executing this f:event listener

  - by user

  How to set a bean property from jsf page before executing this f:event listener: <f:event type="preRenderComponent" listener="bean.method}"/> I tried the below code but it does not set the value to the bean property. <f:event type="preRenderComponent" listener="bean.method}"> <f:setPropertyActionListener target="#{bean.howMany}" value="2"/> </f:event> JSF2.1.6 with PF 3.3 EDIT Any issues with this below code? (This works! but I just want to confirm if there are any issues with this!?) <f:event type="preRenderComponent" listener="#{bean.setHowMany(15)}"/> <f:event type="preRenderComponent" listener="#{bean.method}"/>

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 275 276 277 278 279 280 281 282 283 284 285 286  | Next Page >