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• Why does Hibernate 2nd level cache only cache queries within a session?

  - by Synesso

  Using a named query in our application and with ehcache as the provider, it seems that the query results are tied to the session within the cache. Any attempt to access the value from the cache for a second time results in a LazyInitializationException We have set lazy = true for the following mapping because this object is also used by another part of the system which does not require the reference... and we want to keep it lean. <class name="domain.ReferenceAdPoint" table="ad_point" mutable="false" lazy="false"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <id name="code" type="long" column="ad_point_id"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="ad_point_description" type="string"/> <set name="synonyms" table="ad_point_synonym" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <key column="ad_point_id" /> <element type="string" column="synonym_description" /> </set> </class> <query name="find.adpoints.by.heading">from ReferenceAdPoint adpoint left outer join fetch adpoint.synonyms where adpoint.adPointField.headingCode = ?</query> Here's a snippet from our hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.SingletonEhCacheProvider</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">true</property> It doesn't seem to make sense that the cache would be constrained to the session. Why are the cached queries not usable outside of the (relatively short-lived) sessions?

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• Is context:annotation-config an alternative to @AutoWired?

  - by Antacid

  Is it correct that I can put context:annotation-config in my XML config and it will automatically inject the bean class without needing any annotations? So instead of using these annotation types: public class Mailman { private String name; @Autowired private Parcel Parcel; public Mailman(String name) { this.name = name; } @Autowired public void setParcel(Parcel Parcel) { this.Parcel = Parcel; } @Autowired public void directionsToParcel(Parcel Parcel) { this.Parcel = Parcel; } } I would just need to write this: <beans ... > <bean id="mailMan" class="MailMan"> <constructor-arg value="John Doe"/> </bean> <bean id="parcel" class="Parcel" /> <context:annotation-config /> </beans> and then my MailMan class would look a lot simpler without the need for annotations: public class Mailman { private String name; private Parcel Parcel; public Mailman(String name) { this.name = name; } }

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• How to implement jsf validator?

  - by Krishna

  HI, I want to know how to implement Validator in JSF. What is the advantages of declaring the validator-id. When it will be called in the life cycle?. I have implemented the following code. Please find out what is wrong in the code. I am not seeing it called anywhere in the life cycle. <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE faces-config PUBLIC "-//Sun Microsystems, Inc.//DTD JavaServer Faces Config 1.1//EN" "http://java.sun.com/dtd/web-facesconfig_1_1.dtd"> <faces-config> <lifecycle> <phase-listener>javabeat.net.jsf.JsfPhaseListener</phase-listener> </lifecycle> <validator> <validator-id>JsfValidator</validator-id> <validator-class>javabeat.net.jsf.JsfValidator</validator-class> </validator> <managed-bean> <managed-bean-name>jsfBean</managed-bean-name> <managed-bean-class>javabeat.net.beans.ManagedBean</managed-bean-class> <managed-bean-scope>request</managed-bean-scope> </managed-bean> <navigation-rule> <navigation-case> <from-outcome>success</from-outcome> <to-view-id>success.jsp</to-view-id> </navigation-case> </navigation-rule> </faces-config> public class JsfValidator implements Validator { public JsfValidator() { System.out.println("Inside JsfValidator Constructor"); } @Override public void validate(FacesContext facesContext, UIComponent uiComponent, Object object) throws ValidatorException { System.out.println("Inside Validator"); } }

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• boost::filesystem - how to create a boost path from a windows path string on posix plattforms?

  - by VolkA

  I'm reading path names from a database which are stored as relative paths in Windows format, and try to create a boost::filesystem::path from them on a Unix system. What happens is that the constructor call interprets the whole string as the filename. I need the path to be converted to a correct Posix path as it will be used locally. I didn't find any conversion functions in the boost::filesystem reference, nor through google. Am I just blind, is there an obvious solution? If not, how would you do this? Example: std::string win_path("foo\\bar\\asdf.xml"); std::string posix_path("foo/bar/asdf.xml"); // loops just once, as part is the whole win_path interpreted as a filename boost::filesystem::path boost_path(win_path); BOOST_FOREACH(boost::filesystem::path part, boost_path) { std::cout << part << std::endl; } // prints each path component separately boost::filesystem::path boost_path_posix(posix_path); BOOST_FOREACH(boost::filesystem::path part, boost_path_posix) { std::cout << part << std::endl; }

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• sql server mdf file database attachment

  - by jnsohnumr

  hello all i'm having a bear of a time getting visual studio 2010 (ultimate i think) to properly attach to my database. it was moved from original spot to #MYAPP#/#MYAPP#.Web/App_Data/#MDF_FILE#.mdf. I have three instances of sql server running on this machine. i have tried to replace the old mdf file with my new one and cannot get the connectionstring right for it. what i'm really wanting to do is to just open some DB instance, run a DB create script. Then I can have a DB that was generated via my edmx (generate database from model) in silverlight business application (c#) right now, when i go to server explorer in VS, choose add new connection, choose MS SQL Server Database FIle (SqlClient), choose my file location (app_data directory), use windows authentication, and hit the Test Connection button I get the following error: Unable to open the physical file "". Operating system error 5: "5(Access Denied.)". An attempt to attach to an auto-named database for file"" failed. A database with the same name exists, or specified file cannot be opened, or it is located on UNC share. The mdf file was created on the same machine by connecting to (local) on the sql server management studio, getting a new query, pasting in the SQL from the generated ddl file, adding a CREATE DATABASE [NcrCarDatabase]; GO before the pasted SQL, and executing the query. I then disconnected from the DB in management studio, closed management studio, navigated to the DATA directory for that instance, and copying the mdf and ldf files to my application's app_data folder. I am then trying to connect to the same file inside visual studio. I hope that gives more clarity to my problems :). Connection string is: Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=C:\SourceCode\NcrCarDatabase\NcrCarDatabase.Web\App_Data\NcrCarDatabase.mdf;Integrated Security=True;Connect Timeout=30;User Instance=True

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• Why is a Silverlight application created from an exported template show a blank screen in the browse

  - by Edward Tanguay

  I created a silverlight app (without website) named TestApp, with one TextBox: <UserControl x:Class="TestApp.MainPage" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignWidth="640" d:DesignHeight="480"> <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <TextBlock Text="this is a test"/> </Grid> </UserControl> I press F5 and see "this is a test" in my browser (firefox). I select File | Export Template | name it TestAppTemplate and save it. I create a new silverlight app based on the above template. The MainPage.xaml has the exact same XAML as above. I press F5 and see a blank screen in my browser. I look at the HTML source of both of these and they are identical. Everything I have compared in both projects is identical. What do I have to do so that a Silverlight application which is created from my exported template does not show a blank screen?

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• Flash compiler error 1061: Call to a possibly undefined method run... but run exists!

  - by Zane Geiger

  So I've been working on making a game in Processing but I think Flash would be a better way to get more people playing it, so I've decided to learn Flash. The problem is that I keep getting really stupid errors on incredibly simple things. For instance, I want to make a 'Block' object to use in a platform game. So I make a new .as file, name it Block.as, and define the Block class within it like so: package { public class Block { public function Block() { // constructor code } public function run() { } } } I don't want to add the code yet, I just want to ensure that this works. So in my main timeline code, I try to create an instance of the Block object and execute its run method: var block1:Block = new Block(); block1.run(); Every time it gives me this inane error: Scene 1, Layer 'Layer 1', Frame 1, Line 2 1061: Call to a possibly undefined method run through a reference with static type Block. What undefined method!? It's defined RIGHT THERE in Block.as. The class file is even in the same folder and everything. I'm getting REALLY annoyed at how poorly Flash handles such a ridiculously simple project. Does anyone know why Flash hates me?

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• Usage Rails 3.0 beta 3 without ActiveRecord ORM

  - by Anton

  Hi everybody! Just installed Rails 3.0 beta 3 in Windows 7. And started playing with some easy examples class SignupController < ApplicationController def index @user = User.new(params[:user]) if method.post? and @user.save redirect_to :root end end end class User def initialize(params = {}) @email = params[:email] @passw = params[:password] end def save end end <div align="center"> <% form_for :user do |form| %> <%= form.label :email %> <%= form.text_field :email %><br /> <%= form.label :password %> <%= form.text_field :password %><br /> <%= form.submit :Register! %> <% end %> </div> When I go to /signup I'm getting this error ArgumentError in SignupController#index wrong number of arguments(0 for 1) Is there a problem with constructor or what's wrong?Please, need your help!

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• Threadsafe way of exposing keySet()

  - by Jake

  This must be a fairly common occurrence where I have a map and wish to thread-safely expose its key set: public MyClass { Map<String,String> map = // ... public final Set<String> keys() { // returns key set } } Now, if my "map" is not thread-safe, this is not safe: public final Set<String> keys() { return map.keySet(); } And neither is: public final Set<String> keys() { return Collections.unmodifiableSet(map.keySet()); } So I need to create a copy, such as: public final Set<String> keys() { return new HashSet(map.keySet()); } However, this doesn't seem safe either because that constructor traverses the elements of the parameter and add()s them. So while this copying is going on, a ConcurrentModificationException can happen. So then: public final Set<String> keys() { synchronized(map) { return new HashSet(map.keySet()); } } seems like the solution. Does this look right?

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• Does C# allow method overloading, PHP style (__call)?

  - by mr.b

  In PHP, there is a special method named __call($calledMethodName, $arguments), which allows class to catch calls to non-existing methods, and do something about it. Since most of classic languages are strongly typed, compiler won't allow calling a method that does not exist, I'm clear with that part. What I want to accomplish (and I figured this is how I would do it in PHP, but C# is something else) is to proxy calls to a class methods and log each of these calls. Right now, I have code similar to this: class ProxyClass { static logger; public AnotherClass inner { get; private set; } public ProxyClass() { inner = new AnotherClass(); } } class AnotherClass { public void A() {} public void B() {} public void C() {} // ... } // meanwhile, in happyCodeLandia... ProxyClass pc = new ProxyClass(); pc.inner.A(); pc.inner.B(); // ... So, how can I proxy calls to an object instance in extensible way? Extensible, meaning that I don't have to modify ProxyClass whenever AnotherClass changes. In my case, AnotherClass can have any number of methods, so it wouldn't be appropriate to overload or wrap all methods to add logging. I am aware that this might not be the best approach for this kind of problem, so if anyone has idea what approach to use, shoot. Thanks!

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• Generic cast type to primitive.

  - by Nix

  Is there a way to do the below? Imagine a generic result wrapper class. Where you have a type and an associated error list. When there is no result to return to the user we will use boolean to indicate success failure. I want to create a constructor that takes in an error list, and if the list is null or count 0, AND the type is a bool/Boolean i want to set it to true.... Seemingly simple, but amazingly not possible. public class Result<T>{ private T valueObject { get;set;} private List<Error> errors{ get;set;} public Result(T valueObj, List<Error> errorList){ this.valueObject = valueObj; this.errors = errorList; } public Result(List<Error> errors) { this.valueObject = default(ReturnType); if (valueObject is Boolean) { //Wont work compile //(valueObject as Boolean) = ((errors == null) || errors.Count == 0); //Compiles but detaches reference //bool temp = ((bool)(valueObject as object)) ; //temp = ((errors == null) || errors.Count == 0); } this.errors = errors; } } } Am I missing something simple? And in general I would prefer to do it without reflection.

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• PHP & MySQL Image deletion problem?

  - by IMAGE

  I have this script that deletes a users avatar image that is stored in a folder name thumbs and another named images and the image name is stored in a mysql database. But for some reason the script deletes all the users info for example if the users id is 3 all of the users info like first name last name age and so are deleted as well, basically everything is deleted including the user how do I fix this so only the images and image name is deleted? Here is the code. $user_id = '3'; if (isset($_POST['delete_image'])) { $a = "SELECT * FROM users WHERE avatar = '". $avatar ."' AND user_id = '". $user_id ."'"; $r = mysqli_query ($mysqli, $a) or trigger_error("Query: $a\n<br />MySQL Error: " . mysqli_error($mysqli)); if ($r == TRUE) { unlink("../members/" . $user_id . "/images/" . $avatar); unlink("../members/" . $user_id . "/images/thumbs/" . $avatar); $a = "DELETE FROM users WHERE avatar = '". $avatar ."' AND user_id = '". $user_id ."'"; $r = mysqli_query ($mysqli, $a) or trigger_error("Query: $a\n<br />MySQL Error: " . mysqli_error($mysqli)); } }

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• Link error for user defined class type template parameter

  - by isurulucky

  Hi, I implemented a Simple STL map in C++. Factored out the comparison as a type as I was instructed to, then implemented the comparison as shown below: template <typename T> int KeyCompare<T>::operator () (T tKey1, T tKey2) { if(tKey1 < tKey2) return -1; else if(tKey1 > tKey2) return 1; else return 0; } here, tKey1 and tKet2 are the two keys I'm comparing. This worked well for all the basic data types and string. I added a template specialization to compare keys of a user defined type named Test and added a specialization as follows: int KeyCompare<Test>::operator () (Test tKey1, Test tKey2) { if(tKey1.a < tKey2.a) return -1; else if(tKey1.a > tKey2.a) return 1; else return 0; } when I run this, I get a linking error saying SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: int __thiscall KeyCompare::operator()(class Test,class Test)" (??R?$KeyCompare@VTest@@@@QAEHVTest@@0@Z) already defined in MapTest.obj SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: __thiscall KeyCompare::~KeyCompare(void)" (??1?$KeyCompare@VTest@@@@QAE@XZ) already defined in MapTest.obj SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: __thiscall KeyCompare::KeyCompare(void)" (??0?$KeyCompare@VTester@@@@QAE@XZ) already defined in MapTest.obj MapTest.cpp is the test harness class in which I wrote the test case. I have used include guards as well, to stop multiple inclusions. Any idea what the matter is?? Thank you very much!!

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• android: consume key press, bypassing framework processing

  - by user360024

  What I want android to do: when user presses a single key, have the view respond, but do so without opening a text area and displaying the character associated with the key that was pressed, and without requiring that the Enter key be pressed, and without requiring that the user press Esc to make the text area go away. For example, when user presses "u" (and doesn't press Enter), that means "undo the last action", so the controller and model immediately undo the last action, then the view does an invalidate() and user sees that their last action has been undone. In other words the "u" key press should be silently processed, such that the only visual result is that user's last action has been undone. I've implemented OnKeyListener and provided an onKey() method: the class: public class MyGameView extends View implements OnKeyListener{ in the constructor: //2010jun06, phj: With onKey(), helps let this View consume key presses // before the framework gets a chance to consume the key press. setOnKeyListener((View.OnKeyListener)this); the onKey() method: public boolean onKey(View v, int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_R) { Log.d("BWA", "In onKey received keycode associated with R."); } return true; // meaning the event (key press) has been consumed, so // the framework should not handle this event. } but when user presses "u" key on the emulator keypad, a textarea is opened at the bottom of the screen, the "u" charater is displayed there, and the onKey() method doesn't execute until user presses the Enter key. Is there a way to make android do what I want? Thanks,

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• Serializing Configurations for a Dependency Injection / Inversion of Control

  - by Joshua Starner

  I've been researching Dependency Injection and Inversion of Control practices lately in an effort to improve the architecture of our application framework and I can't seem to find a good answer to this question. It's very likely that I have my terminology confused, mixed up, or that I'm just naive to the concept right now, so any links or clarification would be appreciated. Many examples of DI and IoC containers don't illustrate how the container will connect things together when you have a "library" of possible "plugins", or how to "serialize" a given configuration. (From what I've read about MEF, having multiple declarations of [Export] for the same type will not work if your object only requires 1 [Import]). Maybe that's a different pattern or I'm blinded by my current way of thinking. Here's some code for an example reference: public abstract class Engine { } public class FastEngine : Engine { } public class MediumEngine : Engine { } public class SlowEngine : Engine { } public class Car { public Car(Engine e) { engine = e; } private Engine engine; } This post talks about "Fine-grained context" where 2 instances of the same object need different implementations of the "Engine" class: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2176833/ioc-resolve-vs-constructor-injection Is there a good framework that helps you configure or serialize a configuration to achieve something like this without hard coding it or hand-rolling the code to do this? public class Application { public void Go() { Car c1 = new Car(new FastEngine()); Car c2 = new Car(new SlowEngine()); } } Sample XML: <XML> <Cars> <Car name="c1" engine="FastEngine" /> <Car name="c2" engine="SlowEngine" /> </Cars> </XML>

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• Make Trac use a Drupal user database for authentication

  - by denisw

  I am trying to set up a Trac instance as a complement to a Drupal site and would like to give users the possibility to use their Drupal account in Trac, too, ideally in a single sign-on fashion (if the user is already logged into Drupal, he is automatically logged into Trac). The question now is how to accomplish this. I have found a plugin named DrupalIntegration which seems to implement that functionality; however, it is poorly documented - in fact, not documented at all. I managed to install it, but don't know how to configure it. Here is what I came up with from looking at the source code and the documentation of the AccountManager plugin (on which DrupalIntegration depends): [components] trac.web.auth.loginmodule = disabled acct_mgr.api = enabled acct_mgr.web_ui.LoginModule = enabled acct_mgr.web_ui.RegistrationModule = disabled TracDrupalIntegration.DrupalIntegration = enabled [account-manager] drupal_database = mysql://<usernam>:<password>@localhost/<db> password_store = DrupalIntegration (<username>, <password> and <db> are naturally substituted with the correct data). While the Trac log says: 2010-12-18 10:54:09,570 Trac[loader] DEBUG: Loading TracDrupalIntegration from /usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/TracDrupalIntegration-0.1-py2.5.egg this doesn't seem to work: trying to log in with a Drupal username / password results in an "Invalid username or password" error. Has someone used the DrupalIntegration and can point out to me what I did wrong? Or is there any other approach you know (or even have used in the past) to integrate Drupal and Trac that way?

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• How do I connect to SQL Server with VB?

  - by Wayne Werner

  Hi, I'm trying to connect to a SQL server from VB. The SQL server is across the network uses my windows login for authentication. I can access the server using the following python code: import odbc conn = odbc.odbc('SignInspection') c = conn.cursor() c.execute("SELECT * FROM list_domain") c.fetchone() This code works fine, returning the first result of the SELECT. However, I've been trying to use the SqlClient.SqlConnection in VB, and it fails to connect. I've tried several different connection strings but this is the current code: Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim conn As New SqlClient.SqlConnection conn.ConnectionString = "data source=signinspection;initial catalog=signinspection;integrated security=SSPI" Try conn.Open() MessageBox.Show("Sweet Success") 'Insert some code here, woo Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show("Failed to connect to data source.") MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString()) Finally conn.Close() End Try End Sub It fails miserably, and it gives me an error that says "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred... (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) I'm fairly certain it's my connection string, but nothing I've found has given me any solid examples (server=mySQLServer is not a solid example) of what I need to use. Thanks! -Wayne

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• d3: Coloring Multiple Lines from Nested Data

  - by diet_coke

  I'm currently assembling some line graphs with circles at the datapoints from arrays of JSON objects formatted like so: var data = [{ "name": "metric1", "datapoints": [ [10.0, 1333519140], [48.0, 1333519200] ] }, { "name": "metric2", "datapoints": [ [48.0, 1333519200], [12.0, 1333519260] ] }] I want to have a color for each metric, so I'm trying to color them based on the index of the object within the array data. The code I have currently for just placing the circles looks like: // We bind an svg group to each metric. var metric_groups = this.vis.selectAll("g.metric_group") .data(data).enter() .append("g") .attr("class", "metric_group"); // Then bind a circle for each datapoint. var circles = metric_groups.selectAll("circle") .data(function(d) { return d.datapoints; }); circles.enter().append("circle") .attr("r", 3.5); Now if I change that last bit to something like: circles.enter().append("circle") .attr("r", 3.5); .style("fill", function(d,i) { return i%2 ? "red" : "blue"; } I get alternating red and blue circles, as could be expected. Taking some advice from Nested Selections : 'Nesting and Index', I tried: circles.enter().append("circle") .attr("r", 3.5); .style("fill", function(d,i,j) { return j%2 ? "red" : "blue"; } Which doesn't work (j is undefined), presumably because we are in the named property datapoints, rather than an array element. How might I go about doing the coloring that I want without changing my data structure? Thanks!

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• boost::python string-convertible properties

  - by Checkers

  I have a C++ class, which has the following methods: class Bar { ... const Foo& getFoo() const; void setFoo(const Foo&); }; where class Foo is convertible to std::string (it has an implicit constructor from std::string and an std::string cast operator). I define a Boost.Python wrapper class, which, among other things, defines a property based on previous two functions: class_<Bar>("Bar") ... .add_property( "foo", make_function( &Bar::getFoo, return_value_policy<return_by_value>()), &Bar::setFoo) ... I also mark the class as convertible to/from std::string. implicitly_convertible<std::string, Foo>(); implicitly_convertible<Foo, std::string>(); But at runtime I still get a conversion error trying to access this property: TypeError: No to_python (by-value) converter found for C++ type: Foo How to achieve the conversion without too much boilerplate of wrapper functions? (I already have all the conversion functions in class Foo, so duplication is undesirable.

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• Reporting Services: Tablix RepeatColumnHeaders doesn't work on some reports

  - by I Have the Hat

  So I've got various reports that consist of a DataSet rendered in a Tablix... pretty garden variety stuff. There is a property for the Tablix control named RepeatColumnHeaders, which I have set to True for each report in question. The explanation for this property states “Indicates whether column headers are repeated on each page on which part of the data region appear.” Sounds pretty straightforward, but on some reports it works and on others it does not. I can't seem to find what's different about the reports that might affect this. On one report where the headers do repeat, there is some fairly arcane grouping mojo, but in an example where it doesn't work the Tablix only has one level--no grouping. I would expect the multi-nested one to be the problem, not the flat one. Maybe it's a different problem altogether. I threw together a simple Tablix rendering SELECT * FROM Foo, accepted all the default values, which results in RepeatColumnHeaders being set to False, and lo and behold the column headers do repeat for that report... Grrr. Any insights greatly appreciated.

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• Prepare your site images for google image search indexing

  - by Vittorio Vittori

  Hi, I'm trying to understand how can I do to let my site be reachable from google image search spiders. I like how last.fm solution, and I thought to use a technique like his staff do to let google find artists images on their pages. When I'm looking for an artist and I search it on google image search, as often as not I find an image from last.fm artists page, I make an example: If I search the band Pure Reason Revolution It brings me here, the artist's image page http://www.last.fm/music/Pure+Reason+Revolution/+images/4284073 Now if I take a look to the image file, i can see it's named: http://userserve-ak.last.fm/serve/500/4284073/Pure+Reason+Revolution+4.jpg so if I try to undertand how the service works I can try to say: http://userserve-ak.last.fm/serve/ the server who serve the images 500/ the selected size for the image 4284073/ the image id for database Pure+Reason+Revolution+4.jpg the image name I thought it's difficult to think the real filename for the image is Pure+Reason+Revolution+4.jpg for image overwrite problems when an user upload it, in fact if I digit: http://userserve-ak.last.fm/serve/500/4284073.jpg I probably find the real image location and filename With this tecnique the image is highly reachable from search engines and easily archived. My question is, does exist some guide or tutorial to approach on this kind of tecniques, or something similar?

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• Starting Beyond Compare from the Command Line

  - by Logan

  I have Beyond Compare 3 installed at; "C:\Program Files\Beyond Compare 3\BCompare.exe" and Cygwin; "C:\Cygwin\bin\bash.exe" What I would like is to be able to use a command such as; diff <file1> <file2> into the Cygwin shell and to have the shell fork a process opening the two files in beyond compare. I looked at the Beyond Compare Support Page but I'm afraid It was too brief for me. I tried copying the text verbatim (apart from path to executable) to no avail; Instead of using a batch file, create a file named "bc.sh" with the following line: "$(cygpath 'C:\Progra~1\Beyond~1\bcomp.exe')" `cygpath -w "$6"` `cygpath -w "$7"` /title1="$3" /title2="$5" /readonly Was I supposed to replace cygpath? I get a 'Command not found' error when I enter the name of the script on the command line. gavina@whwgavina1 /cygdrive $ "C:\Documents and Settings\gavina\Desktop\bc.sh" bash: C:\Documents and Settings\gavina\Desktop\bc.sh: command not found Does anyone have Beyond Compare working as I have described? Is this even possible in a Windows environment? Thanks in advance!

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• Polling servers at the same port - Threads and Java

  - by John

  Hi there. I'm currently busy working on an IP ban tool for the early versions of Call of Duty 1. (Apparently such a feature wasn't implemented in these versions). I've finished a single threaded application but it won't perform well enough for multiple servers, which is why I am trying to implement threading. Right now, each server has its own thread. I have a Networking class, which has a method; "GetStatus" -- this method is synchronized. This method uses a DatagramSocket to communicate with the server. Since this method is static and synchronized, I shouldn't get in trouble and receive a whole bunch of "Address already in use" exceptions. However, I have a second method named "SendMessage". This method is supposed to send a message to the server. How can I make sure "SendMessage" cannot be invoked when there's already a thread running in "GetStatus", and the other way around? If I make both synchronized, I will still get in trouble if Thread A is opening a socket on Port 99999 and invoking "SendMessage" while Thread B is opening a socket on the same port and invoking "GetStatus"? (Game servers are usually hosted on the same ports) I guess what I am really after is a way to make an entire class synchronized, so that only one method can be invoked and run at a time by a single thread. Hope that what I am trying to accomplish/avoid is made clear in this text. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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• How to emulate mod_rewrite in PHP

  - by Tyler Crompton

  I have a few URLs that I want to map to certain files via PHP. Currently, I am just using mod_rewrite in Apache. However, my application is getting too large for the rewriting to be done with regular expressions. So I created a file router.php that does the rewriting. I understand to do a redirect I could just send the Location: header. However, I don't always want to do a redirect. For example, I may want /api/item/ to map to the file /herp/derp.php relative to the document root. I need to preserve the HTTP method as well. "No problem," I thought. I made my .htaccess have the following snippet. RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^api/item/$ /cgi-bin/router.php [L] And my router.php file looks as follows: <?php $uri = parse_url($_SERVER['REQUEST_URI']); $query = isset($uri['query']) ? $uri['query'] ? array(); // some code that modifies the query require_once "{$_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT']}/herp/derp.php?" . http_build_query($query); ?> However, this doesn't work, because the OS is looking for a file named derp.php?some=query. How can I simulate a rewrite rule such as RewriteRule ^api/item/$ /herp/derp/ [L] in PHP. In other words, how do I tell the server to process a different URL than requested and preserve the query and HTTP method without causing a redirect? Note: Using variables set in router.php is less than desirable and is bad structure since it's only supposed to be responsible for handling URLs. I am open to using a light-weight third party solution.

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• PHP Sessions and Passing Session ID

  - by Jason McCreary

  I have an API where I am passing the session id back and forth between calls. I set up the session like so: // start API session session_name('apikey'); session_id($data['apikey']); // required to link session session_start(); Although I named my session and am passing the session id via GET and POST using the name, PHP does not automatically resume that session. It always creates a new one unless I set the explicitly set the session id. I found some old user comments on www.php.net that said unless the session id is the first parameter PHP won't set it automatically. This seems odd, but even when I call tried it still didn't work: rest_services.php?apikey=sdr6d3subaofcav53cpf71j4v3&q=testing I have used PHP for years, but am a little confused on why I needed to explicitly set the session with session_id() when I am naming the session and passing it's key accordingly. UPDATE It seems I wasn't clear. My question is why is setting the session ID with session_id() required when I am passing the id, using the session name apikey, via $_GET or $_POST. Theoretically this is no different than PHP's SID when cookies are disabled. But for me it doesn't work unless I explicitly set the session ID. Why?

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