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  • Multi-tier applications using L2S, WCF and Base Class

    - by Gena Verdel
    Hi all. One day I decided to build this nice multi-tier application using L2S and WCF. The simplified model is : DataBase-L2S-Wrapper(DTO)-Client Application. The communication between Client and Database is achieved by using Data Transfer Objects which contain entity objects as their properties. abstract public class BaseObject { public virtual IccSystem.iccObjectTypes ObjectICC_Type { get { return IccSystem.iccObjectTypes.unknownType; } } [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage = "_ID", AutoSync = AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType = "BigInt NOT NULL IDENTITY", IsPrimaryKey = true, IsDbGenerated = true)] [global::System.Runtime.Serialization.DataMemberAttribute(Order = 1)] public virtual long ID { //get; //set; get { return _ID; } set { _ID = value; } } } [DataContract] public class BaseObjectWrapper<T> where T : BaseObject { #region Fields private T _DBObject; #endregion #region Properties [DataMember] public T Entity { get { return _DBObject; } set { _DBObject = value; } } #endregion } Pretty simple, isn't it?. Here's the catch. Each one of the mapped classes contains ID property itself so I decided to override it like this [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.TableAttribute(Name="dbo.Divisions")] [global::System.Runtime.Serialization.DataContractAttribute()] public partial class Division : INotifyPropertyChanging, INotifyPropertyChanged { [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage="_ID", AutoSync=AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType="BigInt NOT NULL IDENTITY", IsPrimaryKey=true, IsDbGenerated=true)] [global::System.Runtime.Serialization.DataMemberAttribute(Order=1)] public override long ID { get { return this._ID; } set { if ((this._ID != value)) { this.OnIDChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._ID = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("ID"); this.OnIDChanged(); } } } } Wrapper for division is pretty straightforward as well: public class DivisionWrapper : BaseObjectWrapper<Division> { } It worked pretty well as long as I kept ID values at mapped class and its BaseObject class the same(that's not very good approach, I know, but still) but then this happened: private CentralDC _dc; public bool UpdateDivision(ref DivisionWrapper division) { DivisionWrapper tempWrapper = division; if (division.Entity == null) { return false; } try { Table<Division> table = _dc.Divisions; var q = table.Where(o => o.ID == tempWrapper.Entity.ID); if (q.Count() == 0) { division.Entity._errorMessage = "Unable to locate entity with id " + division.Entity.ID.ToString(); return false; } var realEntity = q.First(); realEntity = division.Entity; _dc.SubmitChanges(); return true; } catch (Exception ex) { division.Entity._errorMessage = ex.Message; return false; } } When trying to enumerate over the in-memory query the following exception occurred: Class member BaseObject.ID is unmapped. Although I'm stating the type and overriding the ID property L2S fails to work. Any suggestions?

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  • How to return a property name when comparing two properties at class-level

    - by CodeMonkey
    Hi I have implemented an 'EqualTo' Validation Attribute, that compares two Properties of an object, during ModelBinding in ASP.NET MVC 2. The problem I have is not with it not working, because it does work. The problem is, when I do my request - which is an ajax request - I get back errors to my front-end, where it sets a class on the input fields to indicate invalid input. What it does is iterate through a list of Errors (in a JsonResult), and set a class. This is all dandy. But the ValidationAtrribute I am having trouble with is set at a Class-level, i.e., it's not like other ValidationAttributes where you set something like "[Required]" or something like that. [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class, AllowMultiple=true, Inherited=false)] public class EqualToAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public String SourceProperty { get; set; } public String MatchProperty { get; set; } public EqualToAttribute(string source, string match) { SourceProperty = source; MatchProperty = match; } public override Boolean IsValid(Object value) { Type objectType = value.GetType(); PropertyInfo[] properties = objectType.GetProperties(); object sourceValue = new object(); object matchValue = new object(); Type sourceType = null; Type matchType = null; int counter = 0; foreach (PropertyInfo propertyInfo in properties) { if (propertyInfo.Name == SourceProperty || propertyInfo.Name == MatchProperty) { if (counter == 0) { sourceValue = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null); sourceType = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null).GetType(); } if (counter == 1) { matchValue = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null); matchType = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null).GetType(); } counter++; if (counter == 2) { break; } } } if (sourceType != null && matchType != null) { return sourceValue.ToString().Equals(matchValue.ToString()); //return Convert.ChangeType(sourceValue, sourceType) == Convert.ChangeType(matchValue, matchType); } return false; } private object _typeId = new object(); public override object TypeId { get { return this._typeId; } } } Now this code works, except for the fact that the validation process does not return which Property failed. And I simply can't figure out how to make it return one of the two. In reality I don't care which one it returns.. because both are failing.. Do you have an idea how to make it return the/or both Property/Properties that is/are failing.

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  • JPA Database strcture for internationalisation

    - by IrishDubGuy
    I am trying to get a JPA implementation of a simple approach to internationalisation. I want to have a table of translated strings that I can reference in multiple fields in multiple tables. So all text occurrences in all tables will be replaced by a reference to the translated strings table. In combination with a language id, this would give a unique row in the translated strings table for that particular field. For example, consider a schema that has entities Course and Module as follows :- Course int course_id, int name, int description Module int module_id, int name The course.name, course.description and module.name are all referencing the id field of the translated strings table :- TranslatedString int id, String lang, String content That all seems simple enough. I get one table for all strings that could be internationalised and that table is used across all the other tables. How might I do this in JPA, using eclipselink 2.4? I've looked at embedded ElementCollection, ala this... JPA 2.0: Mapping a Map - it isn't exactly what i'm after cos it looks like it is relating the translated strings table to the pk of the owning table. This means I can only have one translatable string field per entity (unless I add new join columns into the translatable strings table, which defeats the point, its the opposite of what I am trying to do). I'm also not clear on how this would work across entites, presumably the id of each entity would have to use a database wide sequence to ensure uniqueness of the translatable strings table. BTW, I tried the example as laid out in that link and it didn't work for me - as soon as the entity had a localizedString map added, persisting it caused the client side to bomb but no obvious error on the server side and nothing persisted in the DB :S I been around the houses on this about 9 hours so far, I've looked at this Internationalization with Hibernate which appears to be trying to do the same thing as the link above (without the table definitions it hard to see what he achieved). Any help would be gratefully achieved at this point... Edit 1 - re AMS anwser below, I'm not sure that really addresses the issue. In his example it leaves the storing of the description text to some other process. The idea of this type of approach is that the entity object takes the text and locale and this (somehow!) ends up in the translatable strings table. In the first link I gave, the guy is attempting to do this by using an embedded map, which I feel is the right approach. His way though has two issues - one it doesn't seem to work! and two if it did work, it is storing the FK in the embedded table instead of the other way round (I think, I can't get it to run so I can't see exactly how it persists). I suspect the correct approach ends up with a map reference in place of each text that needs translating (the map being locale-content), but I can't see how to do this in a way that allows for multiple maps in one entity (without having corresponding multiple columns in the translatable strings table)...

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  • AJAX, same-origin Policy and working XML Requests

    - by Joern
    Hello guys, so, currently I develop Widgets for Smartphones and am going a bit more advanced into fields of data exchange between client and server applications. My problem is: For my current project I want my client file to request data from a PHP script with the help of AJAX XmlHttpRequest and the POST method: function xmlRequestNotes() { var parameter = 'p=1234'; xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("POST", url, true); // Http Header xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameter.length); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { json = JSON.parse(xmlhttp.responseText); // Doing Stuff with the Response } }; xmlhttp.send(parameter); } This works perfectly fine on my local server set up in XAMPP and the local Widget emulator. But if it gets onto the device (also with access to the target network) I receive the 101 Network Error. And as far as I have read, this is due to the "Same-Origin Policy" of XmlHttpRequests? My problem is to really understand that. Although the idea of this policy is clear to me, I'm a bit confused by the fact that another XmlHttpRequest for a Yahoo Weather XML Feed works fine. Now, could anyone be so helpful to enlighten me? Here is the request that returns a city name from Yahoo's weather feed: function getCityName() { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("GET", "http://weather.yahooapis.com/forecastrss?w=645458&u=c", true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { xmlhttp.responseXML; var yweather = "http://xml.weather.yahoo.com/ns/rss/1.0"; alert(xmlhttp.responseXML.getElementsByTagNameNS(yweather, "location")[0].getAttribute("city")); } }; xmlhttp.send(null); } Obvious differences are the POST and GET methods for once, but seeing that the Same-Origin Policy takes effect no matter what method, I can't really make much sense of it. Why does the latter request work but not the first? I would really appreciate some help here. Greetings and a merry Christmas to you guys!

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  • How to Fix my jQuery code in IE?? Works in Firefox..

    - by scott jarvis
    I am using jQuery to show/hide a div container (#pluginOptionsContainer), and load a page (./plugin_options.php) inside it with the required POST vars sent. What POST data is sent is based on the value of a select list (#pluginDD) and the click of a button (#pluginOptionsBtn)... It works fine in Firefox, but doesn't work in IE.. The '$("#pluginOptionsContainer").load()' request never seems to finish in IE - I only see the loading message forever... bind(), empty() and append() all seem to work fine in IE.. But not load().. Here is my code: // wait for the DOM to be loaded $(document).ready(function() { // hide the plugin options $('#pluginOptionsContainer').hide(); // This is the hack for IE if ($.browser.msie) { $("#pluginDD").click(function() { this.blur(); this.focus(); }); } // set the main function $(function() { // the button shows hides the plugin options page (and its container) $("#pluginOptionsBtn") .click(function() { // show the container of the plugin options page $('#pluginOptionsContainer').empty().append('<div style="text-align:center;width:99%;">Loading...</div>'); $('#pluginOptionsContainer').toggle(); }); // set the loading message if user changes selection with either the dropdown or button $("#pluginDD,#pluginOptionsBtn").bind('change', function() { $('#pluginOptionsContainer').empty().append('<div style="text-align:center;width:99%;">Loading...</div>'); }); // then update the page when the plugin is changed when EITHER the plugin button or dropdown or clicked or changed $("#pluginDD,#pluginOptionsBtn").bind('change click', function() { // set form fields as vars in js var pid = <?=$pid;?>; var cid = <?=$contentid;?>; var pDD = $("#pluginDD").val(); // add post vars (must use JSON) to be sent into the js var 'dataString' var dataString = {plugin_options: true, pageid: pid, contentid: cid, pluginDD: pDD }; // include the plugin option page inside the container, with the required values already added into the query string $("#pluginOptionsContainer").load("/admin/inc/edit/content/plugin_options.php#pluginTop", dataString); // add this to stop page refresh return false; }); // end submit function }); // end main function }); // on DOM load Any help would be GREATLY appreciated! I hate IE!

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  • Helping linqtosql datacontext use implicit conversion between varchar column in the database and tab

    - by user213256
    I am creating an mssql database table, "Orders", that will contain a varchar(50) field, "Value" containing a string that represents a slightly complex data type, "OrderValue". I am using a linqtosql datacontext class, which automatically types the "Value" column as a string. I gave the "OrderValue" class implicit conversion operators to and from a string, so I can easily use implicit conversion with the linqtosql classes like this: // get an order from the orders table MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); Order order = db.Orders(o => o.id == 1); // use implicit converstion to turn the string representation of the order // value into the complex data type. OrderValue value = order.Value; // adjust one of the fields in the complex data type value.Shipping += 10; // use implicit conversion to store the string representation of the complex // data type back in the linqtosql order object order.Value = value; // save changes db.SubmitChanges(); However, I would really like to be able to tell the linqtosql class to type this field as "OrderValue" rather than as "string". Then I would be able to avoid complex code and re-write the above as: // get an order from the orders table MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); Order order = db.Orders(o => o.id == 1); // The Value field is already typed as the "OrderValue" type rather than as string. // When a string value was read from the database table, it was implicity converted // to "OrderValue" type. order.Value.Shipping += 10; // save changes db.SubmitChanges(); In order to achieve this desired goal, I looked at the datacontext designer and selected the "Value" field of the "Order" table. Then, in properties, I changed "Type" to "global::MyApplication.OrderValue". The "Server Data Type" property was left as "VarChar(50) NOT NULL" The project built without errors. However, when reading from the database table, I was presented with the following error message: Could not convert from type 'System.String' to type 'MyApplication.OrderValue'. at System.Data.Linq.DBConvert.ChangeType(Object value, Type type) at Read_Order(ObjectMaterializer1 ) at System.Data.Linq.SqlClient.ObjectReaderCompiler.ObjectReader2.MoveNext() at System.Linq.Buffer1..ctor(IEnumerable1 source) at System.Linq.Enumerable.ToArray[TSource](IEnumerable`1 source) at Example.OrdersProvider.GetOrders() at ... etc From the stack trace, I believe this error is happening while reading the data from the table. When presented with converting a string to my custom data type, even though the implicit conversion operators are present, the DBConvert class gets confused and throws an error. Is there anything I can do to help it not get confused and do the implicit conversion? Thanks in advance, and apologies if I have posted in the wrong forum. cheers / Ben

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  • Trouble passing a string as a SQLite ExecSQL command

    - by Hackbrew
    I keep getting the ERROR: near "PassWord": syntax error when trying to execute the ExecSQL() statement. The command looks good in the output of the text file. In fact, I copied & pasted the command directly into SQLite Database Browser and the commend executed properly. Here's the code that's producing the error: procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var i, iFieldSize: integer; sFieldName, sFieldType, sFieldList, sExecSQL: String; names: TStringList; f1: Textfile; begin //Open Source table - Table1 has 8 fields but has only two different field types ftString and Boolean Table1.TableName:= 'PWFile'; Table1.Open; //FDConnection1.ExecSQL('drop table PWFile'); sFieldList := ''; names := TStringList.Create; for i := 0 to Table1.FieldCount - 1 do begin sFieldName := Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].Name; sFieldType := GetEnumName(TypeInfo(TFieldType),ord(Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].DataType)); iFieldSize := Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].Size; if sFieldType = 'ftString' then sFieldType := 'NVARCHAR' + '(' + IntToStr(iFieldSize) + ')'; if sFieldType = 'ftBoolean' then sFieldType := 'INTEGER'; names.Add(sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType); if sFieldList = '' then sFieldList := sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType else sFieldList := sFieldList + ', ' + sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType; end; ListBox1.Items.Add(sFieldList); sExecSQL := 'create table IF NOT EXISTS PWFile (' + sFieldList + ')'; // 08/18/2014 - Entered this to log the SQLite FDConnection1.ExecSQL Command to a file AssignFile(f1, 'C:\Users\Test User\Documents\SQLite_Command.txt'); Rewrite(f1); Writeln(f1, sExecSQL); { insert code here that would require a Flush before closing the file } Flush(f1); { ensures that the text was actually written to file } CloseFile(f1); FDConnection1.ExecSQL(sFieldList); Table1.Close; end; Here's the actual command that gets executed: create table IF NOT EXISTS PWFile (PassWord NVARCHAR(10), PassName NVARCHAR(10), Dept NVARCHAR(10), Active NVARCHAR(1), Admin INTEGER, Shred INTEGER, Reports INTEGER, Maintain INTEGER)

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  • Help with IF THEN breaking when comparing results from MYSQL query.

    - by roydukkey
    I'm have a problem with an invite system. The if statement seems to break. It shows the message "Fail" but the UPDATE statement still executes. Why do both the THEN and the ELSE excute? $dbConn = new dbConn(); // Check if POST user_username and user_hash are matching and valid; both are hidden for fields $sql = "SELECT user_username " . "FROM table_users " . "WHERE user_id=".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["user_id"])." " . "AND user_hash='".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["user_hash"])."' " . "AND user_enabled=0;"; $objUser = $dbConn->query($sql); // If result contains 1 or more rows if( mysql_num_rows($objUser) != NULL ){ $objUser = mysql_fetch_assoc($objUser); $ssnUser->login( $objUser["user_username"] ); $sql = "UPDATE table_users SET " . "user_enabled=1, " . "user_first_name='".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["user_first_name"])."', " . "user_last_name='".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["user_last_name"])."', " . "user_password='".mysql_real_escape_string( md5($_POST["user_password"]) )."' " . "WHERE user_id=".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["user_id"]).";"; $dbConn->query($sql); echo "Success"; header( "Refresh: 5; url=/account/?action=domains" ); } else { echo "Fail"; } This dbConn Class is as follows: class dbConn{ var $username = "xxxx_admin"; var $password = "xxxxxxxx"; var $server = "localhost"; var $database = "xxxx"; var $objConn; function __construct(){ $conn = mysql_connect( $this->server, $this->username, $this->password, true ); if( !$conn ){ die("Could not connect: ".mysql_error() ); } else { $this->objConn = $conn; } unset($conn); } function __destruct(){ mysql_close( $this->objConn ); unset( $this ); } function query( $query, $db = false ){ mysql_select_db( $db != false ? $db : $this->database, $this->objConn ); $result = mysql_query( $query ); unset($query,$db); return $result; } }

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  • Form validation with optional File Upload field callback

    - by MotiveKyle
    I have a form with some input fields and a file upload field in the same form. I am trying to include a callback into the form validation to check for file upload errors. Here is the controller for adding and the callback: public function add() { if ($this->ion_auth->logged_in()): //validate form input $this->form_validation->set_rules('title', 'title', 'trim|required|max_length[66]|min_length[2]'); // link url $this->form_validation->set_rules('link', 'link', 'trim|required|max_length[255]|min_length[2]'); // optional content $this->form_validation->set_rules('content', 'content', 'trim|min_length[2]'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('userfile', 'image', 'callback_validate_upload'); $this->form_validation->set_error_delimiters('<small class="error">', '</small>'); // if form was submitted, process form if ($this->form_validation->run()) { // add pin $pin_id = $this->pin_model->create(); $slug = strtolower(url_title($this->input->post('title'), TRUE)); // path to pin folder $file_path = './uploads/' . $pin_id . '/'; // if folder doesn't exist, create it if (!is_dir($file_path)) { mkdir($file_path); } // file upload config variables $config['upload_path'] = $file_path; $config['allowed_types'] = 'jpg|png'; $config['max_size'] = '2048'; $config['max_width'] = '1920'; $config['max_height'] = '1080'; $config['encrypt_name'] = TRUE; $this->load->library('upload', $config); // upload image file if ($this->upload->do_upload()) { $this->load->model('file_model'); $image_id = $this->file_model->insert_image_to_db($pin_id); $this->file_model->add_image_id_to_pin($pin_id, $image_id); } } // build page else: // User not logged in redirect("login", 'refresh'); endif; } The callback: function validate_upload() { if ($_FILES AND $_FILES['userfile']['name']): if ($this->upload->do_upload()): return true; else: $this->form_validation->set_message('validate_upload', $this->upload->display_errors()); return false; endif; else: return true; endif; } I am getting the error Fatal error: Call to a member function do_upload() on a non-object on line 92 when I try to run this. Line 92 is the if ($this->upload->do_upload()): line in the validate_upload callback. Am I going about this the right way? What's triggering this error?

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  • Good design of mapping Java Domain objects to Tables (using Hibernate)

    - by M. McKenzie
    Hey guys, I have a question that is more in the realm of design, than implementation. I'm also happy for anyone to point out resources for the answer and I'll gladly, research for myself. Highly simplified Java and SQL: Say I have a business domain POJO called 'Picture' with three attributes. class Picture int idPicture String fileName long size Say I have another business domain POJO called "Item" with 3 attributes Class Item int idItem String itemName ArrayList itemPictures These would be a normal simple relationship. You could say that 'Picture' object, will never exist outside an 'Item' object. Assume a picture belongs only to a specific item, but that an item can have multiple pictures Now - using good database design (3rd Normal Form), we know that we should put items and pictures in their own tables. Here is what I assume would be correct. table Item int idItem (primary key) String itemName table Picture int idPicture (primary key) varchar(45) fileName long size int idItem (foreign key) Here is my question: If you are making Hibernate mapping files for these objects. In the data design, your Picture table needs a column to refer to the Item, so that a foreign key relation can be maintained. However,in your business domain objects - your Picture does not hold a reference/attribute to the idItem - and does not need to know it. A java Picture instance is always instantiated inside an Item instance. If you want to know the Item that the Picture belongs to you are already in the correct scope. Call myItem.getIdItem() and myItem.getItemPictures(),and you have the two pieces of information you need. I know that Hibernate tools have a generator that can auto make your POJO's from looking at your database. My problem stems from the fact that I planned out the data design for this experiment/project first. Then when I went to make the domain java objects, I realized that good design dictated that the objects hold other objects in a nested way. This is obviously different from the way that a database schema is - where all objects(tables) are flat and hold no other complex types within them. What is a good way to reconcile this? Would you: (A) Make the hibernate mapping files so that Picture.hbm.xml has a mapping to the POJO parent's idItem Field (if it's even possible) (B) Add an int attribute in the Picture class to refer to the idItem and set it at instantiation, thus simplifying the hbm.xml mapping file by having all table fields as local attributes in the class (C) Fix the database design because it is wrong, dork. I'd truly appreciate any feedback

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  • Connecting form to database errors

    - by Russell Ehrnsberger
    Hello I am trying to connect a page to a MySQL database for newsletter signup. I have the database with 3 fields, id, name, email. The database is named newsletter and the table is named newsletter. Everything seems to be fine but I am getting this error Notice: Undefined index: Name in C:\wamp\www\insert.php on line 12 Notice: Undefined index: Name in C:\wamp\www\insert.php on line 13 Here is my form code. <form action="insert.php" method="post"> <input type="text" value="Name" name="Name" id="Name" class="txtfield" onblur="javascript:if(this.value==''){this.value=this.defaultValue;}" onfocus="javascript:if(this.value==this.defaultValue){this.value='';}" /> <input type="text" value="Enter Email Address" name="Email" id="Email" class="txtfield" onblur="javascript:if(this.value==''){this.value=this.defaultValue;}" onfocus="javascript:if(this.value==this.defaultValue){this.value='';}" /> <input type="submit" value="" class="button" /> </form> Here is my insert.php file. <?php $host="localhost"; // Host name $username="root"; // Mysql username $password=""; // Mysql password $db_name="newsletter"; // Database name $tbl_name="newsletter"; // Table name // Connect to server and select database. mysql_connect("$host", "$username", "$password")or die("cannot connect"); mysql_select_db("$db_name")or die("cannot select DB"); // Get values from form $name=$_POST['Name']; $email=$_POST['Email']; // Insert data into mysql $sql="INSERT INTO $tbl_name(name, email)VALUES('$name', '$email')"; $result=mysql_query($sql); // if successfully insert data into database, displays message "Successful". if($result){ echo "Successful"; echo "<BR>"; echo "<a href='index.html'>Back to main page</a>"; } else { echo "ERROR"; } ?> <?php // close connection mysql_close(); ?>

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  • How to use input type="tel" in a contact form

    - by user1678664
    PHP newbie here trying to use a simple contact form. The fields I have are: "Name", "Email", "Phone", and "Message". I am trying to figure out what to do with the "Phone" field – I want it to output to the same place that "Message" does, so that when the email is received it will output both the message and the phone number to the body of the email. How do I do this? if( isset( $_POST['submit'] ) ) : wp_mail( get_option( 'admin_email' ), 'Website Contact Form', ( isset($_POST['message'] ) ? $_POST['message'] : '(blank)' ), 'From: ' . ( isset( $_POST['from_name'] ) ? $_POST['from_name'] : 'Website Contact Form' ) . ' <' . ( isset( $_POST['from_email'] ) ? $_POST['from_email'] : get_option( 'admin_email' ) ). '>' . "\r\n" ); $output = '<p>Thank you! Your message has been sent.</p>'; else : $output = ' <form action="" method="post"><ul> <li> <label for="from_name">Name</label> <input type="text" name="from_name" id="from_name" /> </li> <li> <label for="from_email">Email</label> <input type="email" name="from_email" id="from_email" /> </li> <li> <label for="from_tel">Phone</label> <input type="tel" name="from_tel" id="from_tel" /> </li> <li> <textarea name="message" id="message"></textarea> </li> <li class="submit"> <input name="submit" type="submit" value="Say Hello!" /> </li> </ul></form>'; endif; return $output;

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  • Deleting a node in a family tree

    - by user559142
    Hi, I'm trying to calclulate the best way to delete a node in a family tree. First, a little description of how the app works. My app makes the following assumption: Any node can only have one partner. That means that any child a single node has, it will also be the partner nodes child too. Therefore, step relations, divorces etc aren't compensated for. A node always has two parents - A mother and father cannot be added seperately. If the user doesn't know the details - the nodes attributes are set to a default value. Also any node can add parents, siblings, children to itself. Therefore in law relationships can be added. I have the following classes: FamilyMember String fName; String lName; String dob; String gender; FamilyMember mother, father, partner; ArrayListchildren; int index; int generation; void linkParents(); void linkPartner(); void addChild(); //gets & sets for fields Family ArrayListfamily; void addMember(); void removeMember(); FamilyMember getFamilyMember(index); ArrayListgetFamilyMembers(); FamilyTree Family family; void removeMember(); //need help void displayFamilyMembers(); void addFamilyMember(); void enterDetails(); void displayAncestors(); void displayDescendants(); void printDescendants(); FamilyMember findRootNode(); void sortGenerations(); void getRootGeneration(); I am having trouble with identifying the logic for removing a member. All other functions work fine. Has anyone developed a family tree app before who knows how to deal with removing various different nodes in the family "tree"? e.g. removing a leaf removing a leaf with partner (what if partner has parents etc) removing a parent It seems to be another recursive property but my head is swelling from over thought.

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  • CKEdtior not displaying

    - by user1708468
    I am trying to integrate CKEditor into a MVC application. As far as I can tell all I should really have to do is. Add the following to my master page. <script type="text/javascript" src="../../ckeditor/ckeditor.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../../ckeditor/adapters/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/jscript" src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> Then on my view itself. I have the following code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#news').ckeditor(); }); </script> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> <label for="title">Title:</label> <%=Html.TextBox("title")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("title", "*") %> </p> <p> <label for="news">News:</label> <%=Html.TextArea("news")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("news", "*") %> </p> <p> <label for="publishedDate">Publication Date:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("publishedDate") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("publishedDate", "*") %> </p> <p> <input type="submit" value="Create" /> </p> </fieldset> Please bear in mind I am not trying to get this to actually DO anything postback wise. Just to actually render in the first place. Can someone point out exactly what it is I am doing wrong? Oh and if it helps any VS is also giving me the following warning: Warning 1 Error updating JScript IntelliSense: ..Cut to Protect the innocent..\ckeditor\ckeditor.js: 'getFirst()' is null or not an object @ 15:180 ..Cut to Protect the innocent..\Views\Shared\Admin.Master 1 1 ilaTraining

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  • Duplicate Blob field with foreach

    - by JGSilva
    I have some fields (blob) where I have uploaded some images. The images display correctly and I can open it without problem in Photoshop for example. I created a button where user can duplicate the product and everything works fine, but when it comes to duplicate the image entry I got some errors, like 1064 and others ones that I can't remember cause I am working 3 days inside this. Because de original product have 3 or more images I select then and gave an foreach. What I notice when a print de blob is that in the end it eats the next array, like if don't have an end. In other words, the next item got inside that utf-8 character in the print. That gave me some clue. The next approach was to save it in somewhere, and reupload it. The problem is that only the first one works. When I download the image saved, it opens normally so, it is not a saving in disk problem. When I gave a print in the $result, the same happens, is like the image is hungry and ate the next one. Here is the code. Notice = I created the [$count] to see if was not an rewrite in array error. Even tried to , in beging of the foreach, kind of clean the vars… $count=0; foreach ($original_image as $key => $val) { $count++; //$arquivo = ''; //$image = ''; //$file = ''; //$this->image = ''; //$return = ''; $arquivo[$count] = $val['pi_id'].'.'.$val['pi_type']; $image[$count] = $caminho_url.$arquivo[$count]; if (file_exists($image[$count])) { $this->image = Image::factory($image[$count]); $this->image->save($image[$count]); $file[$count]=mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes(fread(fopen($image[$count], "r"), filesize($image[$count])))); $return[$count] = Product::add_image($id_prod, $file[$count], $val['pi_type'],$val['pi_main']); }else { die('no'); } }

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  • Java replacement for C macros

    - by thkala
    Recently I refactored the code of a 3rd party hash function from C++ to C. The process was relatively painless, with only a few changes of note. Now I want to write the same function in Java and I came upon a slight issue. In the C/C++ code there is a C preprocessor macro that takes a few integer variables names as arguments and performs a bunch of bitwise operations with their contents and a few constants. That macro is used in several different places, therefore its presence avoids a fair bit of code duplication. In Java, however, there is no equivalent for the C preprocessor. There is also no way to affect any basic type passed as an argument to a method - even autoboxing produces immutable objects. Coupled with the fact that Java methods return a single value, I can't seem to find a simple way to rewrite the macro. Avenues that I considered: Expand the macro by hand everywhere: It would work, but the code duplication could make things interesting in the long run. Write a method that returns an array: This would also work, but it would repeatedly result into code like this: long tmp[] = bitops(k, l, m, x, y, z); k = tmp[0]; l = tmp[1]; m = tmp[2]; x = tmp[3]; y = tmp[4]; z = tmp[5]; Write a method that takes an array as an argument: This would mean that all variable names would be reduced to array element references - it would be rather hard to keep track of which index corresponds to which variable. Create a separate class e.g. State with public fields of the appropriate type and use that as an argument to a method: This is my current solution. It allows the method to alter the variables, while still keeping their names. It has the disadvantage, however, that the State class will get more and more complex, as more macros and variables are added, in order to avoid copying values back and forth among different State objects. How would you rewrite such a C macro in Java? Is there a more appropriate way to deal with this, using the facilities provided by the standard Java 6 Development Kit (i.e. without 3rd party libraries or a separate preprocessor)?

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  • SQL Server - Get Inserted Record Identity Value when Using a View's Instead Of Trigger

    - by CuppM
    For several tables that have identity fields, we are implementing a Row Level Security scheme using Views and Instead Of triggers on those views. Here is a simplified example structure: -- Table CREATE TABLE tblItem ( ItemId int identity(1,1) primary key, Name varchar(20) ) go -- View CREATE VIEW vwItem AS SELECT * FROM tblItem -- RLS Filtering Condition go -- Instead Of Insert Trigger CREATE TRIGGER IO_vwItem_Insert ON vwItem INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN -- RLS Security Checks on inserted Table -- Insert Records Into Table INSERT INTO tblItem (Name) SELECT Name FROM inserted; END go If I want to insert a record and get its identity, before implementing the RLS Instead Of trigger, I used: DECLARE @ItemId int; INSERT INTO tblItem (Name) VALUES ('MyName'); SELECT @ItemId = SCOPE_IDENTITY(); With the trigger, SCOPE_IDENTITY() no longer works - it returns NULL. I've seen suggestions for using the OUTPUT clause to get the identity back, but I can't seem to get it to work the way I need it to. If I put the OUTPUT clause on the view insert, nothing is ever entered into it. -- Nothing is added to @ItemIds DECLARE @ItemIds TABLE (ItemId int); INSERT INTO vwItem (Name) OUTPUT INSERTED.ItemId INTO @ItemIds VALUES ('MyName'); If I put the OUTPUT clause in the trigger on the INSERT statement, the trigger returns the table (I can view it from SQL Management Studio). I can't seem to capture it in the calling code; either by using an OUTPUT clause on that call or using a SELECT * FROM (). -- Modified Instead Of Insert Trigger w/ Output CREATE TRIGGER IO_vwItem_Insert ON vwItem INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN -- RLS Security Checks on inserted Table -- Insert Records Into Table INSERT INTO tblItem (Name) OUTPUT INSERTED.ItemId SELECT Name FROM inserted; END go -- Calling Code INSERT INTO vwItem (Name) VALUES ('MyName'); The only thing I can think of is to use the IDENT_CURRENT() function. Since that doesn't operate in the current scope, there's an issue of concurrent users inserting at the same time and messing it up. If the entire operation is wrapped in a transaction, would that prevent the concurrency issue? BEGIN TRANSACTION DECLARE @ItemId int; INSERT INTO tblItem (Name) VALUES ('MyName'); SELECT @ItemId = IDENT_CURRENT('tblItem'); COMMIT TRANSACTION Does anyone have any suggestions on how to do this better? I know people out there who will read this and say "Triggers are EVIL, don't use them!" While I appreciate your convictions, please don't offer that "suggestion".

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  • How to get HABTM associated data using hasOne binding

    - by Moin
    Hi, I am following example documented at http://book.cakephp.org/view/83/hasAndBelongsToMany-HABTM I am trying to retrieve associated data using hasOne. I created 3 tables posts, tags and posts_tags. I wrote following code to debug Posts. $this->Post->bindModel(array( 'hasOne' => array( 'PostsTag', 'FilterTag' => array( 'className' => 'Tag', 'foreignKey' => false, 'conditions' => array('FilterTag.id = PostsTag.tag_id') )))); $output=$this->Post->find('all', array( 'fields' => array('Post.*') )); debug($output); I was expecting output something like below. Array ( 0 => Array { [Post] => Array ( [id] => 1 [title] => test post 1 ) [Tag] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [id] => 1 [name] => php ) [1] => Array ( [id] => 2 [name] => javascript ) [2] => Array ( [id] => 3 [name] => xml ) ) } But my output do not have Tags at all. Here is what I got. Array ( [0] => Array ( [Post] => Array ( [id] => 1 [title] => test post1 ) ) [1] => Array ( [Post] => Array ( [id] => 2 [title] => test post2 ) ) ) How do I get associated tags along with the post. I know I am missing something, but unable to figure out. Any help would be highly appreciated.

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  • Correct way to use Drupal 7 Entities and Field API

    - by Martin Petts
    I'm trying to use Drupal 7's entities and field API to correctly build a new module. What I have been unable to understand from the documentation is the correct way to use the new API to create a 'content type' (not a node type) with a number of set fields, such as Body. I'm trying to set up the entity using hook_entity_info, then I believe I need to add the body field using field_create_instance, but I can't seem to get it to work. In mycontenttype.module: /** * Implements hook_entity_info(). */ function mycontenttype_entity_info() { $return = array( 'mycontenttype' => array( 'label' => t('My Content Type'), 'controller class' => 'MyContentTypeEntityController', 'base table' => 'content_type', 'uri callback' => 'content_type_uri', 'entity keys' => array( 'id' => 'cid', 'label' => 'title' ), 'bundles' => array( 'mycontenttype' => array( 'label' => 'My Content Type', 'admin' => array( 'path' => 'admin/contenttype', 'access arguments' => array('administer contenttype') ) ) ), 'fieldable' => true ) ); return $return; } /** * Implements hook_field_extra_fields(). */ function mycontenttype_field_extra_fields() { $return['mycontenttype']['mycontenttype'] = array( 'form' = array( 'body' = array( 'label' = 'Body', 'description' = t('Body content'), 'weight' = 0, ), ), ); return $return; } Then does this go in the .install file? function mycontenttype_install() { $field = array( 'field_name' => 'body', 'type' => 'text_with_summary', 'entity_types' => array('survey'), 'translatable' => TRUE, ); field_create_field($field); $instance = array( 'entity_type' => 'mycontenttype', 'field_name' => 'body', 'bundle' => 'mycontenttype', 'label' => 'Body', 'widget_type' => 'text_textarea_with_summary', 'settings' => array('display_summary' => TRUE), 'display' => array( 'default' => array( 'label' => 'hidden', 'type' => 'text_default', ), 'teaser' => array( 'label' => 'hidden', 'type' => 'text_summary_or_trimmed', ) ) ); field_create_instance($instance); }

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  • Applying styles to a GridView matching certain criteria

    - by NickK
    Hi everyone. I'm fairly new to ASP.Net so it's probably just me being a bit stupid, but I just can't figure out why this isn't working. Basically, I have a GridView control (GridView1) on a page which is reading from a database. I already have a CSS style applied to the GridView and all I want to do is change the background image applied in the style depending on if a certain cell has data in it or not. The way I'm trying to handle this change is updating the CSS class applied to each row through C#. I have the code below doing this: protected void GridView1_RowDataBound(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { GridViewRow row = e.Row; string s = row.Cells[7].Text; if (s.Length > 0) { row.CssClass = "newRowBackground"; } else { row.CssClass = "oldRowBackground"; } } In theory, the data from Cell[7] will either be null or be a string (in this case, likely a person's name). The problem is that when the page loads, every row in the GridView has the new style applied to it, whether it's empty or not. However, when I change it to use hard coded examples, it works fine. So for example, the below would work exactly how I want it to: protected void GridView1_RowDataBound(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { GridViewRow row = e.Row; string s = row.Cells[7].Text; if (s == "Smith") //Matching a name in one of the rows { row.CssClass = "newRowBackground"; } else { row.CssClass = "oldRowBackground"; } } It seems as if the top piece of code is always returning the string with a value greater than 0, but when I check the database the fields are all null (except for my test record of "Smith"). I'm probably doing something very simple that's wrong here, but I can't see what. Like I said, I'm still very new to this. One thing I have tried is changing the argument in the if statement to things like: if (s != null), if (s != "") and if (s == string.empty) all with no luck. Any help is greatly appreciated and don't hesitate to tell me if I'm just being stupid here. :)

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  • validation functions in google apps script is not working properly

    - by chocka
    I create a i/p form in google site using Apps Script and i did the validation using the Apps Script coding. Validation functions available in Apps script is not satisfying all the possibility of checking the error. function validate(e) { var app = UiApp.getActiveApplication(); var flag=0; var text = app.getElementById('name'); var textrequired = app.getElementById('namerequired'); var number = app.getElementById('number'); var numberrequired = app.getElementById('numberrequired'); var email = app.getElementById('email'); var emailrequired = app.getElementById('emailrequired'); var submit = app.getElementById('submit_button'); var valid = app.createClientHandler() .validateNumber(number) .validateNotInteger(text) .validateEmail(email) .forTargets(submit).setEnabled(true) .forTargets(number,text,email).setStyleAttribute("color","black") .forTargets(numberrequired,textrequired,emailrequired).setText('*').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); var invalidno = app.createClientHandler().validateNotNumber(number).validateMatches(number, '').forTargets(number).setStyleAttribute("color", "red").forTargets(submit).setEnabled(false).forTargets(numberrequired).setText('Please Enter a Valid No.').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); var validno = app.createClientHandler().validateNumber(number).forTargets(number).setStyleAttribute("color","black").forTargets(numberrequired).setText('*').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); var invalidText=app.createClientHandler().validateNumber(text).validateMatches(text, '').forTargets(text).setStyleAttribute("color", "red").forTargets(submit).setEnabled(false).forTargets(textrequired).setText('Please Enter a Valid Name.').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); var validText=app.createClientHandler().validateNotNumber(text).forTargets(text).setStyleAttribute("color","black").forTargets(textrequired).setText('*').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); var invalidemail=app.createClientHandler().validateNotEmail(email).validateMatches(email, '').forTargets(email).setStyleAttribute("color", "red").forTargets(submit).setEnabled(false).forTargets(emailrequired).setText('Please Enter a Valid Mail-Id.').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); var validemail=app.createClientHandler().validateEmail(email).forTargets(email).setStyleAttribute("color","black").forTargets(emailrequired).setText('*').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); number.addKeyPressHandler(invalidno).addKeyPressHandler(validno).addKeyPressHandler(valid).addKeyPressHandler(invalidText).addKeyPressHandler(invalidemail); text.addKeyPressHandler(invalidText).addKeyPressHandler(validText).addKeyPressHandler(valid).addKeyPressHandler(invalidno).addKeyPressHandler(invalidemail); email.addKeyPressHandler(invalidemail).addKeyPressHandler(validemail).addKeyPressHandler(valid).addKeyPressHandler(invalidno).addKeyPressHandler(invalidText); if (text == ''){flag = 1;} if (email == ''){flag = 1;} if (number == ''){flag = 1;} if(flag == 1){submit.setEnabled(false);} return app; } I just placed my Validation function using Apps Script. I don't know why its not satisfying all the possibilities of the validation. And also i have to do is to enable the submit button after all the fields satisfy the validation. After once it enabled, if i make any error in any field it will not get disable correctly. I wrote the coding correctly i think so. Please take a look at my validation function and give me some suggestion to make it possible. Please guide me, Thanks & Regards, chocka.

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  • ASP.Net / MySQL : Translating content into several languages

    - by philwilks
    I have an ASP.Net website which uses a MySQL database for the back end. The website is an English e-commerce system, and we are looking at the possibility of translating it into about five other languages (French, Spanish etc). We will be getting human translators to perform the translation - we've looked at automated services but these aren't good enough. The static text on the site (e.g. headings, buttons etc) can easily be served up in multiple languages via .Net's built in localization features (resx files etc). The thing that I'm not so sure about it how best to store and retrieve the multi-language content in the database. For example, there is a products table that includes these fields... productId (int) categoryId (int) title (varchar) summary (varchar) description (text) features (text) The title, summary, description and features text would need to be available in all the different languages. Here are the two options that I've come up with... Create additional field for each language For example we could have titleEn, titleFr, titleEs etc for all the languages, and repeat this for all text columns. We would then adapt our code to use the appropriate field depending on the language selected. This feels a bit hacky, and also would lead to some very large tables. Also, if we wanted to add additional languages in the future it would be time consuming to add even more columns. Use a lookup table We could create a new table with the following format... textId | languageId | content ------------------------------- 10 | EN | Car 10 | FR | Voiture 10 | ES | Coche 11 | EN | Bike 11 | FR | Vélo We'd then adapt our products table to reference the appropriate textId for the title, summary, description and features instead of having the text stored in the product table. This seems much more elegant, but I can't think of a simple way of getting this data out of the database and onto the page without using complex SQL statements. Of course adding new languages in the future would be very simple compared to the previous option. I'd be very grateful for any suggestions about the best way to achieve this! Is there any "best practice" guidance out there? Has anyone done this before?

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  • Multiple word Auttosuggest using Lucene.Net

    - by eric
    I am currently working on an search application which uses Lucene.Net to index the data from the database to Index file. I have a product catalog which has Name, short and long description, sku and other fields. The data is stored in Index using StandardAnalyzer. I am trying to add auto suggestion for a text field and using TermEnum to get all the keyword terms and its score from the Index. But the terms returned are of single term. For example, if I type for co, the suggestion returned are costume, count, collection, cowboy, combination etc. But I want the suggestion to return phrases. For exmaple, if I search for co, the suggestions should be cowboy costume, costume for adults, combination locks etc. The following is the code used to get the suggestions: public string[] GetKeywords(string strSearchExp) { IndexReader rd = IndexReader.Open(mIndexLoc); TermEnum tenum = rd.Terms(new Term("Name", strSearchExp)); string[] strResult = new string[10]; int i = 0; Dictionary<string, double> KeywordList = new Dictionary<string, double>(); do { //terms = tenum.Term(); if (tenum.Term() != null) { //strResult[i] = terms.text.ToString(); KeywordList.Add(tenum.Term().text.ToString(), tenum.DocFreq()); } } while (tenum.Next() && tenum.Term().text.StartsWith(strSearchExp) && tenum.Term().text.Length > 1); var sortedDict = (from entry in KeywordList orderby entry.Value descending select entry); foreach (KeyValuePair<string, double> data in sortedDict) { if (data.Key.Length > 1) { strResult[i] = data.Key; i++; } if (i >= 10) //Exit the for Loop if the count exceeds 10 break; } tenum.Close(); rd.Close(); return strResult; } Can anyone please give me directions to achive this? Thanks for looking into this.

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  • [N]Hibernate: view-like fetching properties of associated class

    - by chiccodoro
    (Felt quite helpless in formulating an appropriate title...) In my C# app I display a list of "A" objects, along with some properties of their associated "B" objects and properties of B's associated "C" objects: A.Name B.Name B.SomeValue C.Name Foo Bar 123 HelloWorld Bar Hello 432 World ... To clarify: A has an FK to B, B has an FK to C. (Such as, e.g. BankAccount - Person - Company). I have tried two approaches to load these properties from the database (using NHibernate): A fast approach and a clean approach. My eventual question is how to do a fast & clean approach. Fast approach: Define a view in the database which joins A, B, C and provides all these fields. In the A class, define properties "BName", "BSomeValue", "CName" Define a hibernate mapping between A and the View, whereas the needed B and C properties are mapped with update="false" insert="false" and do actually stem from B and C tables, but Hibernate is not aware of that since it uses the view. This way, the listing only loads one object per "A" record, which is quite fast. If the code tries to access the actual associated property, "A.B", I issue another HQL query to get B, set the property and update the faked BName and BSomeValue properties as well. Clean approach: There is no view. Class A is mapped to table A, B to B, C to C. When loading the list of A, I do a double left-join-fetch to get B and C as well: from A a left join fetch a.B left join fetch a.B.C B.Name, B.SomeValue and C.Name are accessed through the eagerly loaded associations. The disadvantage of this approach is that it gets slower and takes more memory, since it needs to created and map 3 objects per "A" record: An A, B, and C object each. Fast and clean approach: I feel somehow uncomfortable using a database view that hides a join and treat that in NHibernate as if it was a table. So I would like to do something like: Have no views in the database. Declare properties "BName", "BSomeValue", "CName" in class "A". Define the mapping for A such that NHibernate fetches A and these properties together using a join SQL query as a database view would do. The mapping should still allow for defining lazy many-to-one associations for getting A.B.C My questions: Is this possible? Is it [un]artful? Is there a better way?

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  • What web platform is right for me?

    - by egervari
    I've been looking at web frameworks like Rails, Grails, etc. I'm used to doing applications in Spring Framework with Hibernate... and I want something more productive. One of the things I realized is that while some of the things in Grails is sexy, there are some serious problems with it. Grails' controllers: 1) are implemented awfully. They don't seem to be able to extend from super classes at runtime. I tried this to add base actions and helper methods, and this seems to cause grails to blow up. 2) are based on an obsolete request parameters model (rather than form backing objects, which are much nicer). 3) are hard to test. Command objects are treated totally differently... and it's actually MUCH harder to write the test than it is to write the controller code. 4) Command objects operate totally differently. They are pre-validated and bound, which causes a lot of inconsistencies than basic parameter model. 5) Command objects are not reusable, and it's a pain in the rear to reuse most of the stuff from the domain classes, like constraints and fields. This is TRIVIAL to do in basic Spring. Why the hell was it not trivial to do in Grails? 6) The scaffolding that is generated is pure crap. It doesn't generalize inserts and updates... and it actually copy/pastes a pile of code in two views: create.gsp and edit.gsp. The views themselves are gargantuan piles of doggie do-do. This is further compounded by the fact that it uses low-level parameters and not objects. Integration tests are 30x slower than a Spring integration test. It is disgusting. Some mocking tests are so hard to write and aren't guaranteed to work when it's deployed, that I think it discourages fast, tdd test cycles. Most things seem to screw up grails while it's running, like adding a taglib, or anything really. The server restart problem wasn't solved at all. I'm starting to think going with Spring/Hibernate/Java is the only way to go. While there is a pretty big cost at startup, I know it'll eventually smooth out. It sucks I can't use a language like Scala... because idiomatically, it is so incompatible with Hibernate. This app is also not a run-of-the-mill UI over a database. It's got some of that, but it's not going to be a slouch. I am deathly scared of Grails now because of how crap it is in the Controller layer. Suggestions on what I can do?

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