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  • How to accept confirmation Automatically in PowerShell for Outlook

    - by user2919845
    How to accept confirmation Automatically in PowerShell for Outlook I have script for Export attachments from email from Outlook - see next It works correctly on one PC, but on another PC is there a problem: Outlook gives message and wants answer: Permit Denny Help If I manually click on Permit or Denny it works correctly. I want to automate it. Can you give me some suggestion how to do it in PowerShell? I have tried to set Outlook to not give this message but I didn’t success. My script: # <-- Script ---------> # script works with outlook Inbox folder # check if email have attachments with ".txt" and save those attachments to $filepath # path for exported files - attachments $filepath = "d:\Exported_files\" # create object outlook $o = New-Object -comobject outlook.application $n = $o.GetNamespace("MAPI") # $f - folder „dorucena posta“ 6 - Inbox $f = $n.GetDefaultFolder(6) # 6 - Inbox # select newest 10 emails, from it olny this one with attachments $f.Items| select -last 10| Where {$_.Attachments}| foreach { # process only unreaded mail if($_.unread -eq $True) { # processed mail set as read, not to process this mail again next day $_.unread = $False $SenderName = $_.SenderName Write-Host "Email from: ", $SenderName # process all attachments $_.attachments|foreach { $a = $_.filename If ($a.Contains(".txt")) { Write-Host $SenderName," ", $a # copy *.txt attachments to folder $filepath $_.saveasfile((Join-Path $filepath "$a")) } } } } Write-Host "Finish" # <------ End Script ---------------------------------->

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  • How to properly set JavaMail timeout setting

    - by user286149
    I am using JavaMail to connect to a POP3 server. Further, I set the following properties, so that JavaMail won't wait to long if an email server doesn't respond: props.setProperty("mail.pop3.connectionpooltimeout", "3000"); props.setProperty("mail.pop3.connectiontimeout", "3000"); props.setProperty("mail.pop3.timeout", "3000"); However, in some cases the timeout works properly but sometimes JavaMail freezes for minutes(!) with the following debug message: DEBUG POP3: connecting to host "pop3.yahoo.com", port 110, isSSL false Changing ports or protocols (SSL, TLS..) has no effect. I assume that the host simply doesn't exist. For example, if I poll pop3.yahoo.com instead of pop.mail.yahoo.com (which would be the right host name), I have to wait very long til a timeout exception occurs. After several minutes, I get the following exception and the application continues to run: java.net.ConnectException: Operation timed out pop3.yahoo.com seems to exist but won't respond: localhost:~ me$ ping pop3.yahoo.com PING pop3.yahoo.com (206.190.46.10): 56 data bytes Request timeout for icmp_seq 0 Request timeout for icmp_seq 1 Request timeout for icmp_seq 2 Request timeout for icmp_seq 3 ^C You might be asking why I use pop3.yahoo.com instead of pop.mail.yahoo.com. Well, I simply wanted to test what happens if the user of my application inserts a wrong host name. I believe that this issue is related to this report http://www.opensubscriber.com/message/[email protected]/180946.html where the poster claims that the problem occurs if the email server closes the connection. JavaMail then seems to wait very long (don't know why). Since the issue wasn't resolved in the link I posted: Does somebody know how to fix or at least debug this? Any help would be really appreciated!

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  • In my cakephp project the save function is not working?

    - by Faheem
    My controller action is: function add() { if (!empty($this-data)) { $this-Customer-create(); if ($this-Customer-save($this-data)) { $this-Session-setFlash('A new Customer has been added'); $this-redirect(array('action'='index')); } else { $this-Session-setFlash('The customer cannot be added this time. Try again later.'); $this-redirect(array('action'='index')); } } } My model is: class Customer extends AppModel { var $name = 'Customer'; var $validate = array( 'name' = array( 'length'= array( 'rule' = array('between', 4,50), 'message' = 'Name must be minimum 4 and maximum 50 characters long.' ), 'checkUnique'= array( 'rule' = 'isUnique', 'message' = 'This Name is already registered' ) )); and this is my view: create('Customer',array('action'='add'));? input('Customer.name'); echo $form-input('Customer.balance',array('type'='hidden','default'=0)); ? end('Submit');? every time I submit the form it splashes: The customer cannot be added this time. Try again later.

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  • Codeigniter: Simple ajax submit not working

    - by Kevin Brown
    jQuery: $('#welcome-message').submit(function() { // inside event callbacks 'this' is the DOM element so we first // wrap it in a jQuery object and then invoke ajaxSubmit $(this).ajaxSubmit({}); $(this).fadeTo(400, 0, function () { // Links with the class "close" will close parent $(this).slideUp(400); }); return false; }); Controller: function welcome_message() { if(isset($_POST['welcome_message'])) { $this-_my_private_function(); } } private function _my_private_function() { $id = $this->session->userdata('id'); $profile['welcome_message'] = '0'; $this->db->update('be_user_profiles',$profile, array('user_id' => $id)); redirect('home', 'location'); } html: <?php print form_open('home/welcome_message',array('class'=>'horizontal','id'=>'welcome-message'))?> <p> Before you can complete the assessment, you need to complete your profile. Once that's done you'll be ready! After you have completed the assessment, you will be able to view the results from your profile. </p> <input type="checkbox" value="0" name="welcome_message" checked="false"> Don't show me this again </input> <p> <input class="button submit" type="submit" class="close-box" value="Close" /> </p> <?php print form_close()?> This should be working. My hypothesis is that the data isn't being passed to the function...but I really have no idea! It works when I visit the function in the url.

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  • How can I tell whether a webpart that has been deployed to a site is a native webpart that ships wit

    - by program247365
    I have a SharePoint 2007 MOSS instance, and I'm on a fact-finding mission. There have been multiple developers, developing multiple webparts and deploying them (using VS2005/2008 SharePoint Extensions). I thought maybe I could look at the fields in the "Web Part Gallery" list in my site, and look by "Modified by", but it looks like a developer's name is on some of the out-of-the-box webparts somehow, and on ones I know are custom developed, they say "System Account" - so looking at that field in this list is a no go. I thought then maybe I could look at the "Group" to which each webpart was assigned but it looks like they were arbitrarily assigned to many different groups inconsistently - so using that piece of information is a no go. Here is my code I have for just looping through and getting the names of all the webparts. Is there any property I can access on the list items of webparts that would tell me whether it's a custom developed webpart? Any way to distinguish the custom webparts from the out-of-the-box ones? Is there another way to do this? #region Misc Site Collection Methods public static List<string> GetAllWebParts(string connectedSPInstanceUrl) { List<string> lstWebParts = new List<string>(); try { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(connectedSPInstanceUrl)) { using (SPWeb web = site.OpenWeb()) { SPList list = web.Lists["Web Part Gallery"]; foreach (SPListItem item in list.Items) { lstWebParts.Add(item.Name); } } } } catch (Exception ex) { lstWebParts.Add("Error"); lstWebParts.Add("Message: " + ex.Message); lstWebParts.Add("Inner Exception: " + ex.InnerException.ToString()); lstWebParts.Add("Stack Trace: " + ex.StackTrace); } return lstWebParts; } #endregion

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  • Syntax error results in blank page

    - by Philipp
    I am new to wicket and trying to get some things working. One thing that annoys me a lot is that I get a blank (0 chars of text) page whenever there is a syntax error on a page. Striped down example: Test.html header stuff: doctype ... html ... head ... body ... <span wicket:id="msgTest" id="message">MSG</span> footer stuff: /body ... /html Test.java public class Test extends WebPage { public Test() { add(new Label("msgTest", "Hello, World!")); } } This will output the page as expected. Now, lets introduce an error: header stuff: doctype ... html ... head ... body ... <span wicket:id="msgTest2" id="message">MSG</span> footer stuff: /body ... /html I changed the label-id to something different then what the source-file expects. If I run this code I get the already mentioned blank page. However, for every request to a page with such a syntax error I get an error report in the log-file of around 1000+ lines. This error-report is basically just wicket-generated html of a page which describes the error. This makes me wonder why wicket isn't displaying the error-stuff instead of the blank page. I'm not very experienced with wicket but to me it somehow looks like wicket is having trouble rendering its own error-page code. It would be nice to know how one goes about finding syntax-errors with wicket. Reading through a 1000+ line error-report for a small error like a misplaced character seems a bit tedious. Thanks in advance for guiding me into the right direction :) PS: wicket-version: 1.4.9 stage: development

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  • javamail api isertion of main class help

    - by bobby
    import javax.servlet.*; import javax.servlet.http.*; import java.io.*; import javax.mail.*; import javax.mail.internet.*; import javax.mail.event.*; import javax.mail.Authenticator; import java.net.*; import java.util.*; public class servletmail extends HttpServlet { public void doPost(HttpServletRequest request,HttpServletResponse response)throws ServletException,IOException { PrintWriter out=response.getWriter(); response.setContentType("text/html"); try { Properties props=new Properties(); props.put("mail.transport.protocol", "smtp"); props.put("mail.smtp.host","smtp.googlemail.com"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", "995"); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); javax.mail.Authenticator authenticator = new javax.mail.Authenticator() { protected javax.mail.PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new javax.mail.PasswordAuthentication("[email protected]", "password"); } }; Session sess=Session.getDefaultInstance(props,authenticator); sess.setDebug (true); Transport transport =sess.getTransport ("smtp"); Message msg=new MimeMessage(sess); msg.setFrom(new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); msg.addRecipient(Message.RecipientType.TO, new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); msg.setSubject("Hello JavaMail"); msg.setText("Welcome to JavaMail"); transport.connect(); transport.send(msg); out.println("mail has been sent"); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("err"+e); } } } how to insert main class in above java code and how to pass arguments of "from" and "to"

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  • SoapClient throws Wrong version

    - by sivansethu
    When i sending below request, i am getting 'Wrong Version" exception. <OTA_HotelGetMsgRQ xmlns="http://www.opentravel.org/OTA/2003/05" TimeStamp="2001-12-17T09:30:47.0Z" Version="4" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" > <Messages> <Message HotelCode="123" HotelName="Test Hotel" ChainCode="321" ReasonForRequest="Reservation Retrieval" RequestCode="Optional" ChainName="Test Chain" MessageType="All" StartSeqNmbr="1" EndSeqNmbr="10" /> </Messages> </OTA_HotelGetMsgRQ> above request is converted into zend code $client = new zend_soap_client(null, array( 'location' => 'http://url...', 'Uri' =>"http://www.opentravel.org/OTA/2003/05" ) ); $request = array( array('Messages'=> array ('Message' => array ( 'HotelCode' => '123', 'HotelName' => 'Test Hotel', 'ChainCode' => '321', 'ReasonForRequest' => 'Reservation Retrieval', 'RequestCode' => 'Optional', 'ChainName' => 'Test Chain', 'MessageType' => 'All', 'StartSeqNmbr' => '1', 'EndSeqNmbr' => '10' ) ) ) ); $result = $client->OTA_HotelGetMsgRQ ($request); Above line throws exception 'Wrong Version'. Anyone help me how to solve this

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  • jQuery: Moving window (or FIFO) type DIV?

    - by Legend
    I have been trying to get this effect for a couple of hours now and I must admit I am failing at it. I am trying to construct a DIV that accepts a particular number of items (say 5), when the 6th item is added, the first item that was aded should be removed (first-in-first-out). The feel should have some kind of a fadeIn and fadeOut. Here's what I managed to write till now: ... //Create a ul element with id 'ulele' and add it to a div ... //Do an ajax call and when an element arrives Hash = ComputeHash(message) if(!$("#" + Hash).exists()) { var element = $("<li></li>").html(message).attr('id', Hash).prependTo("#ulele"); $("#" + Hash).hide().delay(10000 - 1000 * messageNumber).show("slow"); _this.prune("#ulele"); } ... prune: function(divid) { $("#" + divid).children().each( function(i, elemLi) { if(i >= maxMessages) $(this).delay(10000).hide("slow").delay(10000).remove(); } ); } I've tried a couple of variations but the final effect I am getting is not that of a FIFO. The elements disappear instantaneously despite the delay and hide("slow") calls. Anyone has a more straightforward approach?

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  • 'WebException' error on back button even when calling 'void' async method

    - by BlazingFrog
    I have a windows phone app that allows the user to interact with it. Each interaction will always result in an async WCF call. In addition to that, some interactions will result in opening the browser, maps, email, etc... The problem is that, when hitting the back button, I sometime get the following error "An error (WebException) occurred while transmitting data over the HTTP channel." with the following stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelUtilities.ProcessGetResponseWebException(WebException webException, HttpWebRequest request, HttpAbortReason abortReason) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.CompleteGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.OnGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.<>c__DisplayClassa.<InvokeGetResponseCallback>b__8(Object state2) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.doWork(Object o) at System.Threading.Timer.ring() My understanding is that it's happening because my app opened another app (browser, maps, etc) before it had the time to execute the EndMyAsyncMethod(System.IAsyncResult result). Fair enough... What's really annoying is that it seems it should get fixed by cloning the server-side method, only making it void with the following operation contract [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] but I'm still getting the error. What's worse is that the exception is thrown in a system-generated part of the code and, thus, cannot be manually caught causing the app to just crash. I simply don't understand the need to execute an Endxxx method when it's explicitely marked as OneWay and void. EDIT I did find a similar issue here. It does seem that it is related to the message getting to the service (not the client callback). My next question is: if I'm now calling a method marked AsyncPattern and OneWay, what exactly should I be waiting for on the client to be sure the message was transmitted successfully? This is new service definition: [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true, AsyncPattern = true)] IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s); void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r); And the implementation: public IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s) { // do some stuff return new CompletedAsyncResult<string>(""); } public void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r) { }

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  • npgsql Leaking Postgres DB Connections: Way to monitor connections?

    - by Alan
    Background: I'm moving my application from npgsql v1 to npgsql v2.0.9. After a few minutes of running my application, I get a System.Exception: Timeout while getting a connection from the pool. The web claims that this is due to leaking connections (opening a db connection, but not properly closing them). So I'm trying to diagnose leaking postgres connections in npgsql. From the various web literature around; one way to diagnose leaking connections is to setup logging on npgsql, and look for the leaking connection warning message in the log. Problem is, I'm not seeing this message in the logs anywhere. I also found utility that monitors npgsql connections, but it's unstable and crashes. So I'm left manually inspecting code. For everyplace that creates an npgsql connection, there is a finally block disposing of it. For everyplace that opens a datareader, CommandBehavior.CloseConnection is used (and the datareader is disposed). Any other places to check or can someone recommend a way to look for leaking pool connections?

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  • Sending Email over VPN SmtpException net_io_connectionclosed

    - by Holy Christ
    I am sending an email from a WPF application. When sending as a domain user on the network, the emails sends as expected. However, when I attempt to send email over a VPN connection, I get the following exception: Exception: System.Net.Mail.SmtpException: Failure sending mail. --- System.IO.IOException: Unable to read data from the transport connection: net_io_connectionclosed. at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ProcessRead(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 read, Boolean readLine) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ReadLines(SmtpReplyReader caller, Boolean oneLine) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ReadLine(SmtpReplyReader caller) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpConnection.GetConnection(String host, Int32 port) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpTransport.GetConnection(String host, Int32 port) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient.GetConnection() at System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient.Send(MailMessage message) I have tried using impersonation as well as setting the Credentials on the SmtpClient. Neither seem to work: using (new ImpersonateUser("myUser", "MYDOMAIN", "myPass")) { var client = new SmtpClient("myhost.com"); client.UseDefaultCredentials = true; client.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("myUser", "myPass", "MYDOMAIN"); client.Send(mailMessage); } I've also tried using Wireshark to view the message over the wire, but I don't know enough about SMTP to know what I'm looking for. One other variable is that the machine I'm using on the VPN is Vista Business and the machine on the network is Win7. I don't think it's related, but then I wouldn't be asking if I knew the issue! :) Any ideas?

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  • Why does my javascript file sometimes compressed while sometimes not?(IIS Gzip problem)

    - by Kevin Yang
    i enable gzip for javascript file in my iis settings, here 's the corresponding config section. <httpCompression directory="%SystemDrive%\inetpub\temp\IIS Temporary Compressed Files"> <scheme name="gzip" dll="%Windir%\system32\inetsrv\gzip.dll" staticCompressionLevel="10" dynamicCompressionLevel="8" /> <dynamicTypes> <add mimeType="text/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="message/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/soap+msbin1" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="*/*" enabled="false" /> </dynamicTypes> <staticTypes> <add mimeType="text/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="message/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/javascript" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/x-javascript" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="*/*" enabled="false" /> </staticTypes> </httpCompression> currently, when i download my js file, it seems that sometimes server return the gzip one, and sometimes not. i dont know why, and how to debug that. If a file is already gzipped, it should be cached in local disk, and next time someone visit that file again, iis kernel should return the cache gzip file directly without compressing it again. Is that right?

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  • In Varnish, how can I read the Set-Cookie response header?

    - by Adam Friedman
    I am trying to detect if my application has set a cookie that holds an "alert message" for the user on the next page, where the Javascript displays it if detected. In my vcl_fetch(), I need to detect if the specific cookie value "alert_message" appears anywhere in the Set-Cookie header (presumably in the VCL variable beresp.http.Set-Cookie). If detected, then I do not want to cache that next page (since Varnish strips the Set-Cookie header by default, which would obliterate the alert message before it makes it back to the browser). So here is my simple test: if(beresp.http.Set-Cookie ~ "alert_message") { set req.http.no_cache = 1; } Strangely, it fails to evaluate to true. So I throw the variable into the Server header to see what it looks like: set beresp.http.Server = " MyApp Varnish implementation - test reading set-cookie: "+beresp.http.Set-Cookie; But for some reason this only displays the FIRST Set-Cookie line in the response headers. Here are the relevant response headers: Server: MyApp Varnish implementation - test reading cookie: elstats_session=7d7279kjmsnkel31lre3s0vu24; expires=Wed, 10-Oct-2012 00:03:32 GMT; path=/; HttpOnly Set-Cookie:app_session=7d7279kjmsnkel31lre3s0vu24; expires=Wed, 10-Oct-2012 00:03:32 GMT; path=/; HttpOnly Set-Cookie:alert_message=Too+many+results.; expires=Tue, 09-Oct-2012 20:13:32 GMT; path=/; domain=.my.app.com Set-Cookie:alert_key=flash_error; expires=Tue, 09-Oct-2012 20:13:32 GMT; path=/; domain=.my.app.com Vary:Accept-Encoding How do I read and run string detection on ALL Set-Cookie header lines?

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  • "Access is denied" by executing .hta file with JScript on Windows XP x64

    - by mem64k
    I have a simple HTML (as HTA) application that shows strange behavior on Windows XP x64 machine. I getting periodically (not every time) error message "Access is denied." when i start the application. The same application on Windows XP 32bit runs just fine... Does somebody has any idea or explanation? Error message: Line: 18 Char: 6 Error: Access is denied. Code: 0 URL: file:///D:/test_j.hta Here is the code of my "test_j.hta": <html> <head> <title>Test J</title> <HTA:APPLICATION ID="objTestJ" APPLICATIONNAME="TestJ" SCROLL="no" SINGLEINSTANCE="yes" WINDOWSTATE="normal" > <script language="JScript"> function main() { //window.alert("test"); window.resizeTo(500, 300); } function OnExit() { window.close(); } </script> </head> <body onload="main()"> <input type="button" value="Exit" name="Exit" onClick="OnExit()" title="Exit"> </body> </html>

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  • How can the Three-Phase Commit Protocol (3PC) guarantee atomicity?

    - by AndiDog
    I'm currently exploring worst case scenarios of atomic commit protocols like 2PC and 3PC and am stuck at the point that I can't find out why 3PC can guarantee atomicity. That is, how does it guarantee that if cohort A commits, cohort B also commits? Here's the simplified 3PC from the Wikipedia article: Now let's assume the following case: Two cohorts participate in the transaction (A and B) Both do their work, then vote for commit Coordinator now sends precommit messages... A receives the precommit message, acknowledges, and then goes offline for a long time B doesn't receive the precommit message (whatever the reason might be) and is thus still in "uncertain" state The results: Coordinator aborts the transaction because not all precommit messages were sent and acknowledged successfully A, who is in precommit state, is still offline, thus times out and commits B aborts in any case: He either stays offline and times out (causes abort) or comes online and receives the abort command from the coordinator And there you have it: One cohort committed, another aborted. The transaction is screwed. So what am I missing here? In my understanding, if the automatic commit on timeout (in precommit state) was replaced by infinitely waiting for a coordinator command, that case should work fine.

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  • Exposing a service to external systems - How should I design the contract?

    - by Larsi
    Hi! I know this question is been asked before here but still I'm not sure what to select. My service will be called from many 3 party system in the enterprise. I'm almost sure the information the service will collect (MyBigClassWithAllInfo) will change during the products lifetime. Is it still a good idea to expose objects? This is basically what my two alternatives: [ServiceContract] public interface ICollectStuffService { [OperationContract] SetDataResponseMsg SetData(SetDataRequestMsg dataRequestMsg); } // Alternative 1: Put all data inside a xml file [DataContract] public class SetDataRequestMsg { [DataMember] public string Body { get; set; } [DataMember] public string OtherPropertiesThatMightBeHandy { get; set; } // ?? } // Alternative 2: Expose the objects [DataContract] public class SetDataRequestMsg { [DataMember] public Header Header { get; set; } [DataMember] public MyBigClassWithAllInfo ExposedObject { get; set; } } public class SetDataResponseMsg { [DataMember] public ServiceError Error { get; set; } } The xml file would look like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <Message>   <Header>     <InfoAboutTheSender>...</InfoAboutTheSender>   </Header>   <StuffToCollectWithAllTheInfo>   <stuff1>...</stuff1> </StuffToCollectWithAllTheInfo> </Message> Any thought on how this service should be implemented? Thanks Larsi

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  • Error copying file from app bundle

    - by Michael Chen
    I used the FireFox add-on SQLite Manager, created a database, which saved to my desktop as "DB.sqlite". I copied the file into my supporting files for the project. But when I run the app, immediately I get the error "Assertion failure in -[AppDelegate copyDatabaseIfNeeded], /Users/Mac/Desktop/Note/Note/AppDelegate.m:32 2014-08-19 23:38:02.830 Note[28309:60b] Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Failed to create writable database file with message 'The operation couldn’t be completed. (Cocoa error 4.)'.' First throw call stack: "... Here is the App Delegate Code where the error takes place -(void) copyDatabaseIfNeeded { NSFileManager *fileManager = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; NSError *error; NSString *dbPath = [self getDBPath]; BOOL success = [fileManager fileExistsAtPath:dbPath]; if (!success) { NSString *defaultDBPath = [[ [NSBundle mainBundle ] resourcePath] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"DB.sqlite"]; success = [fileManager copyItemAtPath:defaultDBPath toPath:dbPath error:&error]; if (!success) NSAssert1(0, @"Failed to create writable database file with message '%@'.", [error localizedDescription]); } } I am very new to Sqlite, so I maybe I didn't create a database correctly in the FireFox Sqlite manager, or maybe I didn't "properly" copy the .sqlite file in? (I did check the target membership in the sqlite and it correctly has my project selected. Also, the .sqlite file names all match up perfectly.)

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  • python gui events out of order

    - by dave
    from Tkinter import * from tkMessageBox import * class Gui: def __init__(self, root): self.container = Frame(root) self.container.grid() self.inputText = Text(self.container, width=50, height=8) self.outputText = Text(self.container, width=50, height=8, bg='#E0E0E0', state=DISABLED) self.inputText.grid(row=0, column=0) self.outputText.grid(row=0, column=1) self.inputText.bind("<Key>", self.translate) def translate(self, event): input = self.inputText.get(0.0, END) output = self.outputText.get(0.0, END) self.outputText.config(state=NORMAL) self.outputText.delete(0.0, END) self.outputText.insert(INSERT, input) self.outputText.config(state=DISABLED) showinfo(message="Input: %s characters\nOutput: %s characters" % (len(input), len(input))) root = Tk() #toplevel object app = Gui(root) #call to the class where gui is defined root.mainloop() #enter event loop Working on a gui in tkinter I'm a little confused as to the sequence the event handlers are run. If you run the above code you'll hopefully see... 1) Editing the text widget triggers the event handler but it seems to fire it off without registering the actual change, 2) Even when the text widget is cleared (ie, keep pressing BackSpace) it still seems to have a one character length string, 3) The output widget only receives its update when the NEXT event trigger is fired despite the fact the data came on the previous event. Is this just how bindings work in tkinter or am i missing something here? The behaviour i would like when updating the input widget is: 1) Show the change, 2) Enter event handler, 3) Update output widget, 4) Show message box.

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  • Android How to get position of selected item from gridview without using onclicklistner, using ontouchlistner instead

    - by zonemikel
    I have a gridview, I need to do stuff on motioneven.action_down and do something for motioneven.action_up ... using onclicklistener is great but does not give me this needed functionality. Is there anyway to easily call the gridview and get its selected item in a ontouchlistener ? I've been having limited success with making my own implementation. Its hard to get the right x,y because if i call the child it gives me the x and y relative to the child so a button would be 0,0 to 48,48 but it does not tell you the actual location on the screen relative to the gridview or the screen itself. this is what i've been doing, its partially working so far. Grid.setOnTouchListener(new OnTouchListener() { public boolean onTouch(View v, MotionEvent event) { if (event.getAction() == MotionEvent.ACTION_DOWN) { int x = (int)event.getX(); int y = (int)event.getY(); int position = 0; int childCount = Grid.getChildCount(); Message msg = new Message(); Rect ButtonRect = new Rect(); Grid.getChildAt(0).getDrawingRect(ButtonRect); int InitialLeft = ButtonRect.left + 10; ButtonRect.offsetTo(InitialLeft, ButtonRect.top); // while(position < childCount){ if(ButtonRect.contains(x,y)){break;} if(ButtonRect.right + ButtonRect.width() > Grid.getWidth()) { ButtonRect.offsetTo(InitialLeft, ButtonRect.bottom);} position++; ButtonRect.offsetTo(ButtonRect.right, ButtonRect.top); } msg.what = position; msg.arg1 = ButtonRect.bottom; msg.arg2 = y; cHandler.sendMessage(msg); }// end if action up if (event.getAction() == MotionEvent.ACTION_UP) { } return false; } });

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  • Sweave can't see a vector if run from a function ?

    - by PaulHurleyuk
    I have a function that sets a vector to a string, copies a Sweave document with a new name and then runs that Sweave. Inside the Sweave document I want to use the vector I set in the function, but it doesn't seem to see it. (Edit: I changed this function to use tempdir(() as suggested by Dirk) I created a sweave file test_sweave.rnw; % \documentclass[a4paper]{article} \usepackage[OT1]{fontenc} \usepackage{Sweave} \begin{document} \title{Test Sweave Document} \author{gb02413} \maketitle <<>>= ls() Sys.time() print(paste("The chosen study was ",chstud,sep="")) @ \end{document} and I have this function; onOK <- function(){ chstud<-"test" message(paste("Chosen Study is ",chstud,sep="")) newfile<-paste(chstud,"_report",sep="") mypath<-paste(tempdir(),"\\",sep="") setwd(mypath) message(paste("Copying test_sweave.Rnw to ",paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep=""),sep="")) file.copy("c:\\local\\test_sweave.Rnw", paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep=""), overwrite=TRUE) Sweave(paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep="")) require(tools) texi2dvi(file = paste(mypath,newfile,".tex",sep=""), pdf = TRUE) } If I run the code from the function directly, the resulting file has this output for ls(); > ls() [1] "chstud" "mypath" "newfile" "onOK" However If I call onOK() I get this output; > ls() [1] "onOK" and the print(...chstud...)) function generates an error. I suspect this is an environment problem, but I assumed because the call to Sweave occurs within the onOK function, it would be in the same enviroment, and would see all the objects created within the function. How can I get the Sweave process to see the chstud vector ? Thanks Paul.

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  • What makes deployment successful for some users and unsuccessful for others?

    - by Julien
    I am trying to deploy a Visual C++ application (developed with Microsoft Visual Studio 2008) using a Setup and Deployment Project. After installation, users on some target computers get the following error message after launching the application executable: “This application has failed to start because the application configuration is incorrect. Reinstalling the application may fix the problem.” Another user after installation could run the application properly. I cannot find the root cause of this problem, despite spending several hours on the Visual Studio help files and online forums (most postings date back to 2006). Does anyone at Stack Overflow have a suggestion? Thanks in advance. Additional details appear below. The application uses FLTK 1.1.9 for a GUI library, as well as some Boost 1.39 libraries (regex, lexical_cast, date_time, math). I made sure I am trying to deploy the release version (not the debug version) of the application. The Runtime library in the Code Generation settings is Multi-threaded DLL (/MD). The dependency walker of myapp.exe lists the following DLLs: wsock32.dll, comctl32.dll, kernel32.dll, user32.dll, gdi32.dll, shell32.dll, ole32.dll, mvcp90.dll, msvcr90.dll. In the Setup and Deployment Project, I add the following DLLs to the File System on Target Machine: fltkdlld.dll, and a folder named Microsoft.VC90.CRT with msvcm90.dll, msvcp90.dll, mcvcr90.dll and Microsoft.VC90.CRT.manifest. The installation process on the target computers getting the error message requires having the .Net Framework 3.5 installed first. Any suggestion? Thanks in advance!

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  • ORA- 01157 / Cant connect to database

    - by Tom
    Hi everyone, this is a follow up from this question. Let me start by saying that i am NOT a DBA, so i'm really really lost with this. A few weeks ago, we lost contact with one of our SID'S. All the other services are working, but this one in particular is not. What we got was this message when trying to connect ORA-01033: ORACLE initialization or shutdown in progress An attempt to alter database open ended up in ORA-01157: cannot identify/lock data file 6 - see DBWR trace file ORA-01110: data file 6: '/u01/app/oracle/oradata/xxx/xxx_data.dbf' I tried to shutdown / restart the database, but got this message. Total System Global Area 566231040 bytes Fixed Size 1220604 bytes Variable Size 117440516 bytes Database Buffers 444596224 bytes Redo Buffers 2973696 bytes Database mounted. ORA-01157: cannot identify/lock data file 6 - see DBWR trace file ORA-01110: data file 6: '/u01/app/oracle/oradata/xxx/xxx_data.dbf' When all continued the same, I erased the dbf files (rm xxx_data.dbf xxx_index.dbf), and recreated them using touch xxx_data.dbf. I also tried to recreate the tablespaces using `CREATE TABLESPACE DATA DATAFILE XXX_DATA.DBF` and got Database not open As I said, i don't know how bad this is, or how far i'm from gaining access to my database (well, to this SID at least, the others are working). I would imagine that a last resource would be to throw everything away, and recreating it, but I don't know how to, and I was hoping there's a less destructive solution. Any help will be greatly appreciated . Thanks in advance.

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  • git: remove 2nd commit

    - by cwolves
    I'm trying to remove the 2nd commit to a repo. At this point I could just blow away the .git dir and re-do it, but I'm curious how to do this... I've deleted commits before, but apparently never the 2nd one :) > git log commit c39019e4b08497406c53ceb532f99801793205ca Author: Me Date: Thu Mar 22 14:02:41 2012 -0700 Initializing registry directories commit 535dce28f1c68e8af9d22bc653aca426fb7825d8 Author: Me Date: Tue Jan 31 21:04:13 2012 -0800 First Commit > git rebase -i HEAD~2 fatal: Needed a single revision invalid upstream HEAD~2 > git rebase -i HEAD~1 at which point I get in my editor: pick c39019e Initializing registry directories # Rebase 535dce2..c39019e onto 535dce2 # # Commands: # p, pick = use commit # r, reword = use commit, but edit the commit message # e, edit = use commit, but stop for amending # s, squash = use commit, but meld into previous commit # f, fixup = like "squash", but discard this commit's log message # x, exec = run command (the rest of the line) using shell # # If you remove a line here THAT COMMIT WILL BE LOST. # However, if you remove everything, the rebase will be aborted. # Now my problem is that I can't just blow away this 2nd commit since "if you remove everything, the rebase will be aborted"

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  • Facebook IFrame Application issues for certain users

    - by Kon
    We have a strange issue with running an Facebook IFrame application (using MVC 2). When I run my app and log into Facebook, I get to the application just fine. But when my coworker does it, she gets the following error: API Error Code: 100 API Error Description: Invalid parameter Error Message: Requires valid next URL. Typically this error is resolved by updating the "New Data Permissions" setting of the Facebook application. However, in this case it doesn't help. We've also tried logging in with our accounts from different computers and it seems that neither computer nor which one the MVC ASP.NET app is running from matters. The only difference is who is logged into Facebook. We've looked at our Facebook account settings, but couldn't find any obvious differences. We both have Developer access to the FB application and we both can edit its settings. However, only one of us can actually run the application without getting the above mentioned error message. Any idea what could be happening here?

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