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• To detect if the user is closing the IE browser apart from onunload event, as it is triggerred when

  - by AndAars

  hi, After being through numerous forums available on the net for last 5 days, I am still not able to completely track down the browser close event. My requirement is to generate a popup message, when user tries to close the browser. I have called my javascript function on body 'onbeforeunload' event. And I have hardcoded the conditions to check the mouse-coordinates for the red 'X' buton of browser, refresh, File-close or Alt-F4. My code works fine when browser window is Maximized, but fails if we shrink it after a limit. Please help me, if some body has already found the solution to a similar problem. Thank you. Aggregated Responses of OP Ok, just tell me if it is possible to detect if a user has clicked on the Refresh button of the browser. Also, Refresh can be triggered by Right-click - Refresh or Ctrl-R. My requirement is to make a variable false on Refresh. I am just able to do it on F5, but all other ways are still out of my reach. The same would be applied to Back buton. Hi ppl, Thanks for all who replied atleast. I have talked to my seniors regarding this and they have now understood and have compromised with the browser menu buttons. So now my task has become easy. Now, I am using a variable and making it true by default. As, I mentioned earlier I just have to catch the onbeforeunload and popup a message when user tries to leave. The message will not popup when user is navigating to other pages, as I have made the variable as false on all the links of my page using following piece of code: document.onclick = function() { //To check if user is navigating from the page by clicking on a hyperlink. if (event.srcElement.tagName == 'A') blnShowMsg = false; //To not popup the warning message else blnShowMsg = true; //To popup the warning message } In my case still the message is shown when user does Refresh, back or goes to any link in Favorites, etc. Thanks buddy, but I have already gone through that and didn't find much help there too. My seniors are not happy with that solution as putting a flag on evry link of my application is a complicated job and they fear of breaking the application. Any other suggestions would be appreciated. Thanks once again. Is there no one who can think of a solution here!!! where are all the experts???

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• Serializing Class Derived from Generic Collection yet Deserializing the Generic Collection

  - by Stacey

  I have a Repository Class with the following method... public T Single<T>(Predicate<T> expression) { using (var list = (Models.Collectable<T>)System.Xml.Serializer.Deserialize(typeof(Models.Collectable<T>), FileName)) { return list.Find(expression); } } Where Collectable is defined.. [Serializable] public class Collectable<T> : List<T>, IDisposable { public Collectable() { } public void Dispose() { } } And an Item that uses it is defined.. [Serializable] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlRoot("Titles")] public partial class Titles : Collectable<Title> { } The problem is when I call the method, it expects "Collectable" to be the XmlRoot, but the XmlRoot is "Titles" (all of object Title). I have several classes that are collected in .xml files like this, but it seems pointless to rewrite the basic methods for loading each up when the generic accessors do it - but how can I enforce the proper root name for each file without hard coding methods for each one? The [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlRoot] seems to be ignored. When called like this... var titles = Repository.List<Models.Title>(); I get the exception <Titlesxmlns=''> was not expected. The XML is formatted such as. .. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> <Titles xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Title> <Id>442daf7d-193c-4da8-be0b-417cec9dc1c5</Id> </Title> </Titles> Here is the deserialization code. public static T Deserialize<T>(String xmlString) { System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer XmlFormatSerializer = new System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer(typeof(T)); StreamReader XmlStringReader = new StreamReader(xmlString); //XmlTextReader XmlFormatReader = new XmlTextReader(XmlStringReader); try { return (T)XmlFormatSerializer.Deserialize(XmlStringReader); } catch (Exception e) { throw e; } finally { XmlStringReader.Close(); } }

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• Deleting items from a ListView using a custom BaseAdapter

  - by HXCaine

  I am using a customised BaseAdapter to display items on a ListView. The items are just strings held in an ArrayList. The list items have a delete button on them (big red X), and I'd like to remove the item from the ArrayList, and notify the ListView to update itself. However, every implementation I've tried gets mysterious position numbers given to it, so for example clicking item 2's delete button will delete item 5's. It seems to be almost entirely random. One thing to note is that elements may be repeated, but must be kept in the same order. For example, I can have "Irish" twice, as elements 3 and 7. My code is below: private static class ViewHolder { TextView lang; int position; } public View getView(final int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { ViewHolder holder; if (convertView == null) { convertView = mInflater.inflate(R.layout.language_link_row, null); holder = new ViewHolder(); holder.lang = (TextView)convertView.findViewById(R.id.language_link_text); holder.position = position; final ImageView deleteButton = (ImageView) convertView.findViewById(R.id.language_link_cross_delete); deleteButton.setOnClickListener(this); convertView.setTag(holder); deleteButton.setTag(holder); } else { holder = (ViewHolder) convertView.getTag(); } holder.lang.setText(mLanguages.get(position)); return convertView; } I later attempt to retrieve the deleted element's position by grabbing the tag, but it's always the wrong position in the list. There is no noticeable pattern to the position given here, it always seems random. // The delete button's listener public void onClick(View v) { ViewHolder deleteHolder = (ViewHolder) v.getTag(); int pos = deleteHolder.position; ... ... ... } I would be quite happy to just delete the item from the ArrayList and have the ListView update itself, but the position I'm getting is incorrect so I can't do that. Please note that I did, at first, have the deleteButton clickListener inside the getView method, and used 'position' to delete the value, but I had the same problem. Any suggestions appreciated, this is really irritating me.

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• WPF TreeView: How to style selected items with rounded corners like in Explorer

  - by Helge Klein

  The selected item in a WPF TreeView has a dark blue background with "sharp" corners. That looks a bit dated today: I would like to change the background to look like in Explorer of Windows 7 (with/without focus): What I tried so far does not remove the original dark blue background but paints a rounded border on top of it so that you see the dark blue color at the edges and at the left side - ugly. Interestingly, when my version does not have the focus, it looks pretty OK: I would like to refrain from redefining the control template as shown here or here. I want to set the minimum required properties to make the selected item look like in Explorer. Alternative: I would also be happy to have the focused selected item look like mine does now when it does not have the focus. When losing the focus, the color should change from blue to grey. Here is my code: <TreeView x:Name="TreeView" ItemsSource="{Binding TopLevelNodes}" VirtualizingStackPanel.IsVirtualizing="True" VirtualizingStackPanel.VirtualizationMode="Recycling"> <TreeView.ItemContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="{x:Type TreeViewItem}"> <Setter Property="IsExpanded" Value="{Binding IsExpanded, Mode=TwoWay}" /> <Setter Property="IsSelected" Value="{Binding IsSelected, Mode=TwoWay}" /> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsSelected" Value="True"> <Setter Property="BorderBrush" Value="#FF7DA2CE" /> <Setter Property="Background" Value="#FFCCE2FC" /> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </TreeView.ItemContainerStyle> <TreeView.Resources> <HierarchicalDataTemplate DataType="{x:Type viewmodels:ObjectBaseViewModel}" ItemsSource="{Binding Children}"> <Border Name="ItemBorder" CornerRadius="2" Background="{Binding Background, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=TreeViewItem}}" BorderBrush="{Binding BorderBrush, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=TreeViewItem}}" BorderThickness="1"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" Margin="2"> <Image Name="icon" Source="/ExplorerTreeView/Images/folder.png"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Name}"/> </StackPanel> </Border> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> </TreeView.Resources> </TreeView>

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• Volunteer for a potential employer?

  - by EoRaptor013

  I've been looking for work since March, and haven't had much luck. Recently, however, I interviewed with a small company near my home for a C#, .NET, SQL development position. I hit it off very well with the hiring manager during the phone screen, and even more so during the face to face. Unfortunately, I failed the practical test: wiring up a web form, creating a couple of SQL stored procedures, saving new data with validation, and creating a minimal search screen. I knew what I was doing, but I was too slow to meet their standards as all the work needed to be done within an hour. Nevertheless, I really liked the place, the environment, the people who I would have been working with, and the boss. (I gave the company an 11 on Joel's 12 point scale.) So, the obvious next step was to scrape the rust off. I've been trying to create little projects for myself, but I don't know that I've been effective in getting any faster. What with all that goes into creating a project, I'm not heads-down coding as much as I think I need. Now, with all that introduction, here's the question. I have been thinking about calling the hiring manager at that place, and asking him to let me volunteer for three or four weeks, with no strings attached. I think it would benefit me, and wouldn't cost him anything (as long as I didn't slow the existing people down!). At the end of that period, he might, or might not, be inclined to hire me, but even if not, I would have had as much as 160 hours of in the trenches development. Maybe not all shiny, but no more rust, I would think. Does this plan make any sense at all? I certainly don't want to sound desperate (although, I'm not far from being there), and I very much need the tuneup, lube, and change the oil. What's the downside, if any, to me doing this? Do any of you see red flags going up—either from the prerspective of the hiring manager, or from the perspective of a developer?

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• Is it normal for a programmer with 2 years experience to take a long time to code simple programs?

  - by ajax81

  Hi all, I'm a relatively new programmer (18 months on the scene), and I'm finally getting to the point where I'm comfortable accepting projects and developing solutions under minimal supervision. Unfortunately, this also means that I've become acutely aware of my performance shortfalls, the most prevalent of which is the amount of time it takes me to develop, test, and submit algorithms for review. A great example of what I'm talking about occurred this week when I was tasked with developing a simple XML web service (asp.net 3.5) callable via client-side JavaScript, that accepts a single parameter and returns a dataset output to a modal window (please note this is the first time I've had to develop a web service and have had ZERO experience creating/consuming them...let alone calling them from JS client side). Keeping a long story short -- I worked on it for 4 days straight, all day each day, for a grand total of 36 hours, not including the time I spent dwelling on the problem in the shower, the morning commute, and laying awake in bed at night. I learned a great deal about web services and xml/json/javascript...but was called in for a management review to discuss the length of time it took me to develop the solution. In the meeting, I was praised for the quality of my work and was in fact told that my effort was commendable. However, they (senior leads and pm's) weren't impressed with the amount of time it took me to develop the solution and expressed that they would have liked to see the solution in roughly 1/3 of the time it took me. I guess what concerns me the most is that I've identified this pattern as common for myself. Between online videos, book research, and trial/error coding...if its something I haven't seen before, I can spend up to two weeks on a problem that seems to only take the pros in the videos moments to code up. And of course, knowing that management isn't happy with this pattern has shaken me up a bit. To sum up, I have some very specific questions I'd like to ask, and would greatly appreciate your objective professional feedback. Is my experience as a junior programmer common among new developers? Or is it possible that I'm just not cut out for the work? If you suspect that my experience is not common and that there may be an aptitude issue, do you have any suggestions/solutions that I could propose to management to help bring me up to speed? Do seasoned, professional programmers ever encounter knowledge barriers that considerably delay deliverables? When you started out in the industry, did you know how to "do it all"? If not, how long did it take you to be perceived as "proficient"? Was it a natural progression of trial and error, or was there a particular zen moment when you knew you had achieved super saiyen power level? Anyways, thanks for taking the time to read my question(s). I don't know if this is the right place to ask for professional career guidance, but I greatly appreciate your willingness to help me out. Cheers, Daniel

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• Which mobile operating system should I code for?

  - by samgoody

  It seems as though mobile computing has fully arrived. I would like to rewrite two of our programs for mobile devices, but am a bit lost as to which platform to target. Complicating this decision: I would need to learn the relevant languages and IDEs - my coding to date has been almost all web based (PHP, JS, Actionscript, etc. Some ASPX). Most users seem to be religious about their mobile decision, so oral conversations leave me more confused then enlightened. I do not yet own a smartphone - will have to buy one once I know which platform to be aiming for. Both of my programs are more for business users, (one is only useful for C.P.A.s). I am a single developer, and cannot develop for more than one platform at a time. Getting it right is important. Based on what I've found on the web, I would've expected RIM to be a shoo-in, and the general order to be as follows: RIM Blackberry - More of them than any other brand. Despite naysayers, they've had double the sales (or perhaps 5X the sales) of any other smartphone, and have continued to grow. And, they have business users. Android - According to Schmidt, they have outsold everyone else except RIM (though I can't find where I read that now), and they are just getting started. According to Comscore, they are already at 8% of the market and expected to hit Shcmidt's claims within six months. Nokia - The largest worldwide. If they would just make up between Maemo or Symbian, I would be far less confused. iPhone - Much more competition by other apps, fewer sales to be had, and a overlord that can delay or cancel my app at any time. Is Cocoa hard to learn? Windows Mobile - Word is that version 7 will not be backwards compatible and losing market share. Palm WebOS - Perhaps this should go first, as it is the only one that offers tools to make my life easy as a web application developer. No competition in marketplace. But not very many users either. However, a search on StackOverflow shows a hugely disproportionate number of iPhone questions versus Blackberry. Likewise, there are clearly more apps on iPhone, so it must be getting developer love. What is the one platform I should develop for? Please back up your answer with the logic.

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• What does N years of experience with a language really mean?

  - by marcgg

  I've been looking at jobs descriptions since I'm graduating soon and looking for a job and what's always coming back - I'm not teaching you anything - is the "N years of experience in this language". It has been discussed in this question that if you work professionally with let's say Ruby for 2 years, but during these two years you also did some C# and PHP and were actually coding in Ruby 50% of the time. Do you say you have 1 year of experience in Ruby? 2 years? Another issue that hasn't been reviewed in the other post is for "non-professional experience". I'll give you a personal example: I've been working with Ruby on Rails since 2004 while at school. I did a lot of personal projects and school projects using this technology. I also used Rails in 2 6-month internships. Do I have 5 years of Rails experience (2004-now)? Do I have 1 year(2 internships)? Do I have nothing? I feel like I don't deserve the credit for 5 years, because the first years I wasn't working a lot with rails, but since last year I launched some websites and invested myself a lot in this technology and just saying 1 year doesn't really reflect how much I know the technology... Another example: I Learned C++ at school and did 1 big project with it (2-3 month of work and a semester of classes). I never used it in a company but I'd be able to be productive fairly quickly if I had to work on a C++ project and I have a good grasp of the concepts. Do I have no experience? 3 months? 6 months? ... something else? What I'm really trying to do is to find a way to present my skill set in a way that is compliant to what recruiters expect. I also don't want to end up at an interview that would go something like this... Recruiter (finding out the horrible truth): Oh but you said that you had 2 years of experience with this when you have none! / slaps me in the face / Me (in pain): Oh! The irony! Recruiter (yelling): Get out of my office / calls security, punches me in the throat /

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• Logging raw HTTP request/response in ASP.NET MVC & IIS7

  - by Greg Beech

  I'm writing a web service (using ASP.NET MVC) and for support purposes we'd like to be able to log the requests and response in as close as possible to the raw, on-the-wire format (i.e including HTTP method, path, all headers, and the body) into a database. What I'm not sure of is how to get hold of this data in the least 'mangled' way. I can re-constitute what I believe the request looks like by inspecting all the properties of the HttpRequest object and building a string from them (and similarly for the response) but I'd really like to get hold of the actual request/response data that's sent on the wire. I'm happy to use any interception mechanism such as filters, modules, etc. and the solution can be specific to IIS7. However, I'd prefer to keep it in managed code only. Any recommendations? Edit: I note that HttpRequest has a SaveAs method which can save the request to disk but this reconstructs the request from the internal state using a load of internal helper methods that cannot be accessed publicly (quite why this doesn't allow saving to a user-provided stream I don't know). So it's starting to look like I'll have to do my best to reconstruct the request/response text from the objects... groan. Edit 2: Please note that I said the whole request including method, path, headers etc. The current responses only look at the body streams which does not include this information. Edit 3: Does nobody read questions around here? Five answers so far and yet not one even hints at a way to get the whole raw on-the-wire request. Yes, I know I can capture the output streams and the headers and the URL and all that stuff from the request object. I already said that in the question, see: I can re-constitute what I believe the request looks like by inspecting all the properties of the HttpRequest object and building a string from them (and similarly for the response) but I'd really like to get hold of the actual request/response data that's sent on the wire. If you know the complete raw data (including headers, url, http method, etc.) simply cannot be retrieved then that would be useful to know. Similarly if you know how to get it all in the raw format (yes, I still mean including headers, url, http method, etc.) without having to reconstruct it, which is what I asked, then that would be very useful. But telling me that I can reconstruct it from the HttpRequest/HttpResponse objects is not useful. I know that. I already said it. Please note: Before anybody starts saying this is a bad idea, or will limit scalability, etc., we'll also be implementing throttling, sequential delivery, and anti-replay mechanisms in a distributed environment, so database logging is required anyway. I'm not looking for a discussion of whether this is a good idea, I'm looking for how it can be done.

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• Problem with jQuery.ajax with 'delete' method in ie

  - by Max Williams

  I have a page where the user can edit various content using buttons and selects that trigger ajax calls. In particular, one action causes a url to be called remotely, with some data and a 'put' request, which (as i'm using a restful rails backend) triggers my update action. I also have a delete button which calls the same url but with a 'delete' request. The 'update' ajax call works in all browsers but the 'delete' one doesn't work in IE. I've got a vague memory of encountering something like this before...can anyone shed any light? here's my ajax calls: //update action - works in all browsers jQuery.ajax({ async:true, data:data, dataType:'script', type:'put', url:"/quizzes/"+quizId+"/quiz_questions/"+quizQuestionId, success: function(msg){ initializeQuizQuestions(); setPublishButtonStatus(); } }); //delete action - fails in ie function deleteQuizQuestion(quizQuestionId, quizId){ //send ajax call to back end to change the difficulty of the quiz question //back end will then refresh the relevant parts of the page (progress bars, flashes, quiz status) jQuery.ajax({ async:true, dataType:'script', type:'delete', url:"/quizzes/"+quizId+"/quiz_questions/"+quizQuestionId, success: function(msg){ alert("success"); initializeQuizQuestions(); setSelectStatus(quizQuestionId, true); jQuery("tr[id*='quiz_question_"+quizQuestionId+"']").removeClass('selected'); }, error: function(msg){ alert("error:" + msg); } }); } I put the alerts in success and error in the delete ajax just to see what happens, and the 'error' part of the ajax call is triggered, but WITH NO CALL BEING MADE TO THE BACK END (i know this by watching my back end server logs). So, it fails before it even makes the call. I can't work out why - the 'msg' i get back from the error block is blank. Any ideas anyone? Is this a known problem? I've tested it in ie6 and ie8 and it doesn't work in either. thanks - max EDIT - the solution - thanks to Nick Craver for pointing me in the right direction. Rails (and maybe other frameworks?) has a subterfuge for the unsupported put and delete requests: a post request with the parameter "_method" (note the underscore) set to 'put' or 'delete' will be treated as if the actual request type was that string. So, in my case, i made this change - note the 'data' option': jQuery.ajax({ async:true, data: {"_method":"delete"}, dataType:'script', type:'post', url:"/quizzes/"+quizId+"/quiz_questions/"+quizQuestionId, success: function(msg){ alert("success"); initializeQuizQuestions(); setSelectStatus(quizQuestionId, true); jQuery("tr[id*='quiz_question_"+quizQuestionId+"']").removeClass('selected'); }, error: function(msg){ alert("error:" + msg); } }); } Rails will now treat this as if it were a delete request, preserving the REST system. The reason my PUT example worked was just because in this particular case IE was happy to send a PUT request, but it officially does not support them so it's best to do this for PUT requests as well as DELETE requests.

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• POD global object initialization

  - by paercebal

  I've got bitten today by a bug. The following source can be copy/pasted (and then compiled) into a main.cpp file #include <iostream> // The point of SomeGlobalObject is for its // constructor to be launched before the main // ... struct SomeGlobalObject { SomeGlobalObject() ; } ; // ... // Which explains the global object SomeGlobalObject oSomeGlobalObject ; // A POD... I was hoping it would be constructed at // compile time when using an argument list struct MyPod { short m_short ; const char * const m_string ; } ; // declaration/Initialization of a MyPod array MyPod myArrayOfPod[] = { { 1, "Hello" }, { 2, "World" }, { 3, " !" } } ; // declaration/Initialization of an array of array of void * void * myArrayOfVoid[][2] = { { (void *)1, "Hello" }, { (void *)2, "World" }, { (void *)3, " !" } } ; // constructor of the global object... Launched BEFORE main SomeGlobalObject::SomeGlobalObject() { std::cout << "myArrayOfPod[0].m_short : " << myArrayOfPod[0].m_short << std::endl ; std::cout << "myArrayOfVoid[0][0] : " << myArrayOfVoid[0][0] << std::endl ; } // main... What else ? int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { return 0 ; } MyPod being a POD, I believed there would be no constructors. Only initialization at compile time. Thus, the global object SomeGlobalObject would have no problem to use the global array of PODs upon its construction. The problem is that in real life, nothing is so simple. On Visual C++ 2008 (I did not test on other compilers), upon execution myArrayOfPodis not initialized, even ifmyArrayOfVoid` is initialized. So my questions is: Are C++ compilers not supposed to initialize global PODs (including POD structures) at compilation time ? Note that I know global variable are evil, and I know that one can't be sure of the order of creation of global variables declared in different compilation units. The problem here is really the POD C-like initialization which seems to call a constructor (the default, compiler-generated one?). And to make everyone happy: This is on debug. On release, the global array of PODs is correctly initialized.

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• How do you attract programmers in rural areas?

  - by Reed Copsey

  I run a software development group for a very small, but stable and established company in a small town, somewhat outside of the "big city". Unfortunately, the "programmer" labor pool is much smaller due to the size of the city. There are many positives to working in this area, especially in terms of quality of life (particularly for people interested in outdoor activities), lower cost of living, great schools and neighborhoods, etc. However, I've always had difficulty attracting high-qualtiy, experienced developers. For those of you who hire developers outside of large cities: Where do you advertise to find good developers? Many of the large sites are very focused in certain metropolitan areas, and seem inappropriate places to advertise if you're outside of that main region. How do you attract quality developers to rural (or at least less metropolitan) locations? Do you find that you make more sacrifices in your hiring due to a smaller labor pool? Or do you just wait, and take extra time to attract people? What sacrifices do you expect to make if you are outside of the main developer-rich cities? For all of the developers out there... What would entice you to working in a smaller town? Are there things that would stand out and make you willing to relocate or at least apply to a position that was not nearby? What specific qualities would help you want to move outside of the city? In the past, I've had difficulty with finding good people. Most of the people who've applied and been willing to move out to a more rural location seem like the types that can't keep a quality job elsewhere. I'd like to know what advice people have to attracting quality technical staff. I don't believe its the work itself that's been the problem - The work is both interesting and challenging, and nearly 100% new development. The developers I have seem very happy with their situation - they love the work, the atmosphere, etc. It's more a matter of finding willing, able developers. Edit: More info after the first couple of answers: Right now, some of my best developers telecommute (some work from overseas); however, for this question, I'm trying to figure out how to get people who want to live and work full time locally. I need some people with whom I interact every day.

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• Hidden Features of PHP?

  - by George Mauer

  EDIT: This didn't really start as a hidden features of PHP topic, but thats what it ended up as, so go nuts. I know this sounds like a point-whoring question but let me explain where I'm coming from. Out of college I got a job at a PHP shop. I worked there for a year and a half and thought that I had learned all there was to learn about programming. Then I got a job as a one-man internal development shop at a sizable corporation where all the work was in C#. In my commitment to the position I started reading a ton of blogs and books and quickly realized how wrong I was to think I knew everything. I learned about unit testing, dependency injection and decorator patterns, the design principle of loose coupling, the composition over inheritance debate, and so on and on and on - I am still very much absorbing it all. Needless to say my programming style has changed entirely in the last year. Now I find myself picking up a php project doing some coding for a friend's start-up and I feel completely constrained as opposed to programming in C#. It really bothers me that all variables at a class scope have to be referred to by appending '$this-' . It annoys me that none of the IDEs that I've tried have very good intellisense and that my SimpleTest unit tests methods have to start with the word 'test'. It drives me crazy that dynamic typing keeps me from specifying implicitly which parameter type a method expects, and that you have to write a switch statement to do method overloads. I can't stand that you can't have nested namespaces and have to use the :: operator to call the base class's constructor. Now I have no intention of starting a PHP vs C# debate, rather what I mean to say is that I'm sure there are some PHP features that I either don't know about or know about yet fail to use properly. I am set in my C# universe and having trouble seeing outside the glass bowl. So I'm asking, what are your favorite features of PHP? What are things you can do in it that you can't or are more difficult in the .Net languages?

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• get current selected button cell placed inside tableview using cocoa

  - by Swati

  hi i have a NSTableView i have two columns A and B B contains some data A contains custom button the button is added to column A using this: Below code is placed inside awakeFromNib method NSButtonCell *buttonCell = [[[NSButtonCell alloc] init] autorelease]; [buttonCell setBordered:NO]; [buttonCell setImagePosition:NSImageOnly]; [buttonCell setButtonType:NSMomentaryChangeButton]; [buttonCell setImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"uncheck.png"]]; [buttonCell setSelectable:TRUE]; [buttonCell setTag:100]; [buttonCell setTarget:self]; [buttonCell setAction:@selector(selectButtonsForDeletion:)]; [[myTable tableColumnWithIdentifier:@"EditIdentifier"] setDataCell:buttonCell]; Some code in display cell of nstableview: -(void)tableView:(NSTableView *)tableView willDisplayCell:(id)cell forTableColumn:(NSTableColumn *)tableColumn row:(NSInteger)rowIndex { if(tableView == myTable) { if([[tableColumn identifier] isEqualToString:@"DataIdentifier"]) { } else if([[tableColumn identifier] isEqualToString:@"EditIdentifier"]) { NSButtonCell *zCell = (NSButtonCell *)cell; [zCell setTag:rowIndex]; [zCell setTitle:@"abc"]; [zCell setTarget:self]; [zCell setAction:@selector(selectButtonsForDeletion:)]; } } } now i want that when i click on the button the image of button cell gets changed as well as i want to do some coding. When button gets clicked then by default the tableView's reference gets passed. How can i get the button cell reference i looked here for similar problem: Cocoa: how to nest a button inside a Table View cell? but i am unable to add button inside column of NSTableView. How i change the image: - (void)tableView:(NSTableView *)tableView setObjectValue:(id)object forTableColumn:(NSTableColumn *)tableColumn row:(NSInteger)row; { if(tableView == myTable) { if([[tableColumn identifier] isEqualToString:@"EditIdentifier"]) { NSButtonCell *aCell = (NSButtonCell *)[[tableView tableColumnWithIdentifier:@"EditIdentifier"] dataCellForRow:row]; NSInteger index = [[aCell title]intValue]; if([self.selectedIndexesArray count]>0) { if(![self.selectedIndexesArray containsObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:index]]) { [aCell setImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"check.png"]]; [self.selectedIndexesArray addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:index]]; } else { [aCell setImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"uncheck.png"]]; [self.selectedIndexesArray removeObjectAtIndex:[selectedIndexesArray indexOfObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:index]]]; } } else { [aCell setImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"check.png"]]; [self.selectedIndexesArray addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:index]]; } } } } I have debugged the code and found that proper tag and titles are passed but image applies on more than one button cell, this is too very irregular. cant understand how its working!!! Any suggestions what am i doing wrong??

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• Git/Mercurial (hg) opinion

  - by Richard

  First, let me say I'm not a professional programmer, but an engineer who had a need for it and had to learn. I was always working alone, so it was just me and my seven splitted personalities ... and we worked okey as a team :) Most of my stuff is done in C/Fortran/Matlab and so far I've been learning git to manage it all. However, although I've had no unsolvable problems with it, I've never been "that" happy with it ... for everything I cannot do, I hae to look up a book. And, for some time now I've been hearning a lot of good stuff about hg. Now, a coleague of mine will have to work with me on a project (I almost feel sorry for him) and he's started learning hg (says he likes it more), and I'm considering the switch myself. We work almost exclusivly on Windows platform (although I manage relatively ok using unix tools and things that come from that part of the world). So, I was wondering, in a described scenario, what problems could I expect with the switch. I heard that hg is rather more user friendly towards windows users, regarding the user interfaces. How does it handle repositories ? Does it create them the same way as git does (just one subdirectory in a working directory) and can I just copy the whole project directory (including git repo) and just carry them somewhere with no extra thinking ? (I really liked that when I was choosing over git/svn). Are there any good books on it that you can recommend (something like Pro Git, only for Hg). What are good ways to implement hg into Visual Studio/GVim for Windows, or into Windows Explorer so I can work relatively easily (I would like to avoid using the command line for everything regarding it, like in git shell). Is there something else I should be aware of (please, on this don't point me to other questions ... they just give me a ton of info, and I'm not sure what is it that I should take as important, and what to disregard). I'm trying to cut some time, since I cannot spend all that time relearning hg, like I did for git. I've also heard git is c project, while mercurial is python ... is there any noticeable difference in speed. git was pretty speedy ... will I encounter some waiting while working. Notice: All my projects are of let's say, middle size ... mostly numerical simulations ... 10-15000 lines (medium size?)

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• one page over 9 different urls

  - by Ali Demirtas

  Hi I am using prestashop as the cart for my website. I have a problem; the website used to be in dynamic urls. I enabled friendly url writing. The problem is that one page has more than one url. You can access a same page from the dynamic url and static url. In fact a single page has 9 different urls. This obviously creates problems for seo as search engines penalize my website for this. Here are examples of a page with more than 2 urls (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/lang-nl/product.php?id_product=515) (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/fenerbahce/515-fenerbahce-thuisshirt-20092010.html) (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/lang-nl/fenerbahce/515-fenerbahce-thuisshirt-20092010.html) you can see even the static url's have 2 one with language defined and the other without. out fo the three urls above the correct one is the one at the bottom. What can I do to solve this problem? I have no knowledge of programming. Here is the htaccess for the website. Any sample code or help is really appreciated. There is 550 pages and every page is published in 17 different languages I want to use a 301 auto redirect. What is the simplest way to do it? I have no idea of coding. # URL rewriting module activation RewriteEngine on # URL rewriting rules RewriteRule ^([a-z0-9]+)\-([a-z0-9]+)(\-[_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.jpg$ /img/p/$1-$2$3.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)\-([0-9]+)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.jpg$ /img/p/$1-$2.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)(\-[_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.jpg$ /img/c/$1$2.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$3&isolang=$1$5 [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$2&isolang=$1$4 [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)(.*)$ /category.php?id_category=$2&isolang=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$2$4 [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$1$3 [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)(.*)$ /category.php?id_category=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^content/([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)(.*)$ /cms.php?id_cms=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)__([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)(.*)$ /supplier.php?id_supplier=$1$3 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)_([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)(.*)$ /manufacturer.php?id_manufacturer=$1$3 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/(.*)$ /$2?isolang=$1 [QSA,L,E] # Catch 404 errors ErrorDocument 404 /404.php Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^***.com [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.***.com/$1 [L,R=301] Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on # index.php to / RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} ^[A-Z]{3,9}\ /.*index\.php\ HTTP/ RewriteRule ^(.*)index\.php$ /$1 [R=301,L] Header set Cache-Control: "no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, pre-check=0, post-check=0, max-age=0"

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• ASP.Net JSON Web Service Post Form Data

  - by Will D

  I have a ASP.NET web service decorated with System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService() so it can return json formatted data. This much is working for me, but ASP.Net has a requirement that parameters to the web service must be in json in order to get json out. I'm using jquery to run my ajax calls and there doesn't seem to be an easy way to create a nice javascript object from the form elements. I have looked at serialiseArray in the json2 library but it doesn't encode the field names as property name in the object. If you have 2 form elements like this <input type="text" name="namefirst" id="namefirst" value="John"/> <input type="text" name="namelast" id="namelast" value="Doe"/> calling $("form").serialize() will get you the standard query string namefirst=John&namelast=Doe calling JSON.stringify($("form").serializeArray()) will get you the (bulky) json representation [{"name":"namefirst","value":"John"},{"name":"namelast","value":"Doe"}] This will work when passing to the web service but its ugly as you have to have code like this to read it in: Public Class NameValuePair Public name As String Public value As String End Class <WebMethod()> _ Public Function GetQuote(ByVal nvp As NameValuePair()) As String End Function You would also have to wrap that json text inside another object nameed nvp to make the web service happy. Then its more work as all you have is an array of NameValuePair when you want an associative array. I might be kidding myself but i imagined something more elegant when i started this project - more like this Public Class Person Public namefirst As String Public namelast As String End Class which would require the json to look something like this: {"namefirst":"John","namelast":"Doe"} Is there an easy way to do this? Obviously it is simple for a form with two parameters but when you have a very large form concatenating strings gets ugly. Having nested objects would also complicate things The cludge I have settled on for the moment is to use the standard name value pair format stuffed inside a json object. This is compact and fast {"q":"namefirst=John&namelast=Doe"} then have a web method like this on the server that parses the query string into an associate array. <WebMethod()> _ Public Function AjaxForm(ByVal q As String) as string Dim params As NameValueCollection = HttpUtility.ParseQueryString(q) 'do stuff return "Hello" End Sub As far a cludges go this one seems reasonably elegant in terms of amount of code, but my question is: is there a better way? Is there a generally accepted way of passing form data to asp.net web/script services?

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• How do I get ELMAH to work with SQL Server (permission problems)

  - by Gary McGill

  I've got ELMAH working on my (Cassini) development server, and was quite happy with it, but now that I'm trying to move everything to my production server (IIS7), the honeymoon looks like being over. I've got past the "gotcha" with IIS7, which frankly could have been better highlighted in the documentation, and if I just use the in-memory log then it works. However, I'm trying to get it to use the SQL Server log (as I do on my development system), and I'm getting an error along the lines of: The EXECUTE permission was denied on the object ELMAH_GetErrorsXml Well, fine. I know how to grant database permissions, but I'm really struggling to understand which user and which stored procs/tables I need to grant access to. The thing that's really confusing me is that I didn't have to do anything like this to get it to work on my development server. The only difference I can see is that on my development server it seems to connect as NT AUTHORITY\IUSR, whereas on my production server it seems to connect as NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE. (It's just using a trusted connection so I've not explicitly configured it to do that - I presume it's to do with the web server). UPDATE: I've since established that because I'm using Cassini, it was actually logging in as me (an admin) and not IUSR, which explains why I didn't get any permission problems. On my development server, the IUSR account is a member of the public database role, and has access to the required database (again as "public"). There's no explicit granting of object-level permissions. [See update above - this is irrelevant]. On my production server, I've added NETWORK SERVICE in exactly the same way (public database role, explicit access to the database as "public"). Yet, I get this permission error. Why?!! [See update above - the only reason I don't get a permission error is because I'm running as an admin]. And, of course, if the fact that it works locally is just "luck", I will need to know which SPs/tables to grant access to. My guess would be all 3 SPs and not the table, but it would be good (again) to see some documentation that makes this explicit.

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• C#: BackgroundWorker cloning resources?

  - by Dav

  The problem I've been struggling with this partiular problem for two days now and just run out of ideas. A little... background: we have a WinForms app that needs to access a database, construct a list of related in-memory objects from that data, and then display on a DataGridView. Important point is that we first populate an app-wide cache (List), and then create a mirror of the cache local to the form on which the DGV lives (using List constructor param). Because fetching the data takes a good few seconds (DB sits on a LAN server) to load, we decided to use a BackgroundWorker, and only refresh the DGV once the data is loaded. However, it seems that doing the loading via a BGW results in some memory leak... or an error on my part. When loaded using a blocking method call, the app consumes about 30MB of RAM; with a BGW this jumps to 80MB! While it may not seem as much anyway, our clients are not too happy about it. Relevant code Form private void MyForm_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { MyRepository.Instance.FinishedEvent += RefreshCache; } private void RefreshCache(object sender, EventArgs e) { dgvProducts.DataSource = new List<MyDataObj>(MyRepository.Products); } Repository private static List<MyDataObj> Products { get; set; } public event EventHandler ProductsLoaded; public void GetProductsSync() { List<MyDataObj> p; using (MyL2SDb db = new MyL2SDb(MyConfig.ConnectionString)) { p = db.PRODUCTS .Select(p => new MyDataObj {Id = p.ID, Description = p.DESCR}) .ToList(); } Products = p; // tell the form to refresh UI if (ProductsLoaded != null) ProductsLoaded(this, null); } public void GetProductsAsync() { using (BackgroundWorker myWorker = new BackgroundWorker()) { myWorker.DoWork += delegate { List<MyDataObj> p; using (MyL2SDb db = new MyL2SDb(MyConfig.ConnectionString)) { p = db.PRODUCTS .Select(p => new MyDataObj {Id = p.ID, Description = p.DESCR}) .ToList(); } Products = p; }; // tell the form to refresh UI when finished myWorker.RunWorkerCompleted += GetProductsCompleted; myWorker.RunWorkerAsync(); } } private void GetProductsCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { if (ProductsLoaded != null) ProductsLoaded(this, null); } End! GetProductsSync or GetProductsAsync are called on the main thread, not shown above. Could it be that the GarbageCollector just gets lost with two threads? Or is it the task manager that shows incorrect values? Will be greateful for any responses, suggestions, criticism.

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• Historical / auditable database

  - by Mark

  Hi all, This question is related to the schema that can be found in one of my other questions here. Basically in my database I store users, locations, sensors amongst other things. All of these things are editable in the system by users, and deletable. However - when an item is edited or deleted I need to store the old data; I need to be able to see what the data was before the change. There are also non-editable items in the database, such as "readings". They are more of a log really. Readings are logged against sensors, because its the reading for a particular sensor. If I generate a report of readings, I need to be able to see what the attributes for a location or sensor was at the time of the reading. Basically I should be able to reconstruct the data for any point in time. Now, I've done this before and got it working well by adding the following columns to each editable table: valid_from valid_to edited_by If valid_to = 9999-12-31 23:59:59 then that's the current record. If valid_to equals valid_from, then the record is deleted. However, I was never happy with the triggers I needed to use to enforce foreign key consistency. I can possibly avoid triggers by using the extension to the "PostgreSQL" database. This provides a column type called "period" which allows you to store a period of time between two dates, and then allows you to do CHECK constraints to prevent overlapping periods. That might be an answer. I am wondering though if there is another way. I've seen people mention using special historical tables, but I don't really like the thought of maintainling 2 tables for almost every 1 table (though it still might be a possibility). Maybe I could cut down my initial implementation to not bother checking the consistency of records that aren't "current" - i.e. only bother to check constraints on records where the valid_to is 9999-12-31 23:59:59. Afterall, the people who use historical tables do not seem to have constraint checks on those tables (for the same reason, you'd need triggers). Does anyone have any thoughts about this? PS - the title also mentions auditable database. In the previous system I mentioned, there is always the edited_by field. This allowed all changes to be tracked so we could always see who changed a record. Not sure how much difference that might make. Thanks.

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• Rendering javascript at the server side level. A good or bad idea?

  - by davidhong

  I want to make it clear first: This isn't a question in relation to server-side Javascript or running Javascript server side. This is a question regarding rendering of Javascript code (which will be executed on the client-side) from server-side code. Having said that, take a look at below ASP.net code for example: hlRemoveCategory.Attributes.Add("onclick", "return confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this?');") This is prescribing the client-side onclick event on the server-side. As oppose to: $('a[rel=remove]').bind('click', function(event) { return confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this?'); } Now the question I want to ask is: What is the benefit of rendering javascript from the server-side code? Or the vice-versa? I personally prefer the second way of hooking up client-side UI/behaviour to HTML elements for the following reasons: Server-side does what ever it needs to already, including data-validation, event delegation and etc; and What server-side sees as an event is not necessarily the same process on the client-side. i.e., there are plenty more events on client-side (just look at custom events); and What happens on client-side and on server-side, during an event, could be completely irrelevant and decoupled; and What ever happens on client-side happens on client-side, there is no need for the server to know. Server should process and run what is given to them, how the process comes to life is not really up to them to decide in the event of the client-side events; and so and so forth. These are my thoughts obviously. I want to know what others think and if there has been any discussions on this topic. Topics branching from this argument can reach: Code management: is it easier to render everything from server-side? Separation of concern: is it easier if client-side logic is separated to server-side logic? Efficiency: which is more efficient both in terms of coding and running? At the end of the day, I am trying to move my team to go towards the second approach. There are lot of old guys in this team who are afraid of this change. I just wish to convince them with the right facts and stats. Let me know your thoughts.

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• Creating a music catalog in C# and extracting first 30 seconds as soon as the first words are sung

  - by Rad

  I already read a question: Separation of singing voice from music. I don’t need this complex audio processing. I only need some detection mechanism that would detect that there is some voice/vocal playing while the music is playing (or not playing) I need to extract first 30 seconds when a vocalist starts singing along with full band music. See question 2 below. I want to create a music catalog using ASP.NET MVC 2 and Silverlight clients and C#.NET 4.0 programming language that would be front store. On the backend I would also like to create a desktop WPF/Windows application to create the music catalog from already existing music files, most of which have metadata in them ID3v1, ID3v2.3, ID3v2.4, iTunes MP4, WMA, Vorbis Comments and APE Tags etc. I would possibly like to create a web service that would allow catalog contributors to upload a zipped album and trigger metadata extraction of music data and extraction of music segments as described below. I would be happy if I achieve no. 1 below. Let's say I have 1000ths of songs in mp3 (or other formats) grouped in subfolders using some classification (Genre, Artists, Albums, Composers or other groupings). I want to create tables in DB that would organize songs so they can be searched based on different criteria (year, length, above classification or by song title, description etc) like what iTune store allows to their customers. I want to extract metadata from various formats (I will try to get songs in mp3 format, but there may be other popular formats) and allow music Catalog manager person to add missing data from either desktop or web applications. He or other contributors can upload zipped music via an HTML or Silverlight upload or WPF. Can anybody suggest open source libraries, articles, code snippets that can do that in an automatic way using .NET and possibly SQL Server DB? My main questions are these. This is an audio processing challenge. I want to extract 2 segments of music (questions 1 and 2): 1. How to extract a music segment: 1-2 seconds before a vocal starts singing and up to 30 seconds from that point in time and 2. Much more challenging is to find repeating segments (One would usually find or recognize the names of the songs and songs are usually known by these refrains. How would I go about creating a list of songs that go great together like what Genius from iTune does? Is there any characteristics of music that can be used to match songs? The goal is for people quickly scan and recognize songs i.e. associate melody, words with a title/album so they can make intelligent decisions like buying a song, create similar mood songs. Thanks, Rad

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• i don't understand how...

  - by Hristo

  how can something print 3 times when it only goes the printing code twice? I'm coding in C and the code is in a SIGCHLD signal handler I created. void chld_signalHandler() { int pidadf = (int) getpid(); printf("pidafdfaddf: %d\n", pidadf); while (1) { int termChildPID = waitpid(-1, NULL, WNOHANG); if (termChildPID == 0 || termChildPID == -1) { break; } dll_node_t *temp = head; while (temp != NULL) { printf("stuff\n"); if (temp-pid == termChildPID && temp-type == WORK) { printf("inside if\n"); // read memory mapped file b/w WORKER and MAIN // get statistics and write results to pipe char resultString[256]; // printing TIME int i; for (i = 0; i < 24; i++) { sprintf(resultString, "TIME; %d ; %d ; %d ; %s\n",i,1,2,temp->stats->mboxFileName); fwrite(resultString, strlen(resultString), 1, pipeFD); } remove_node(temp); break; } temp = temp-next; } printf("done printing from sigchld \n"); } return; } the output for my MAIN process is this: MAIN PROCESS 16214 created WORKER PROCESS 16220 for file class.sp10.cs241.mbox pidafdfaddf: 16214 stuff stuff inside if done printing from sigchld MAIN PROCESS 16214 created WORKER PROCESS 16221 for file class.sp10.cs225.mbox pidafdfaddf: 16214 stuff stuff inside if done printing from sigchld and the output for the MONITOR process is this: MONITOR: pipe is open for reading MONITOR PIPE: TIME; 0 ; 1 ; 2 ; class.sp10.cs225.mbox MONITOR PIPE: TIME; 0 ; 1 ; 2 ; class.sp10.cs225.mbox MONITOR PIPE: TIME; 0 ; 1 ; 2 ; class.sp10.cs241.mbox MONITOR: end of readpipe ( I've taken out repeating lines so I don't take up so much space ) Thanks, Hristo

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• How to force VS 2010 to skip "builds" of projects which haven't changed?

  - by Ladislav Mrnka

  Our product's solution has more than 100+ projects (500+ksloc of production code). Most of them are C# projects but we also have few using C++/CLI to bridge communication with native code. Rebuilding the whole solution takes several minutes. That's fine. If I want to rebuilt the solution I expect that it will really take some time. What is not fine is time needed to build solution after full rebuild. Imagine I used full rebuild and know without doing any changes to to the solution I press Build (F6 or Ctrl+Shift+B). Why it takes 35s if there was no change? In output I see that it started "building" of each project - it doesn't perform real build but it does something which consumes significant amount of time. That 35s delay is pain in the ass. Yes I can improve the time by not using build solution but only build project (Shift+F6). If I run build project on particular test project I'm currently working on it will take "only" 8+s. It requires me to run project build on correct project (the test project to ensure dependent tested code is build as well). At least ReSharper test runner correctly recognizes that only this single project must be build and rerunning test usually contains only 8+s compilation. My current coding Kata is: don't touch Ctrl+Shift+B. The test project build will take 8s even if I don't do any changes. The reason why it takes 8s is because it also "builds" dependencies = in my case it "builds" more than 20 projects but I made changes only to unit test or single dependency! I don't want it to touch other projects. Is there a way to simply tell VS to build only projects where some changes were done and projects which are dependent on changed ones (preferably this part as another build option)? I worry you will tell me that it is exactly what VS is doing but in MS way ... I want to improve my TDD experience and reduce the time of compilation (in TDD the compilation can happen twice per minute). To make this even more frustrated I'm working in a team where most of developers used to work on Java projects prior to joining this one. So you can imagine how they are pissed off when they must use VS in contrast to full incremental compilation in Java. I don't require incremental compilation of classes. I expect working incremental compilation of solutions. Especially in product like VS 2010 Ultimate which costs several thousands dollars. I really don't want to get answers like: Make a separate solution Unload projects you don't need etc. I can read those answers here. Those are not acceptable solutions. We're not paying for VS to do such compromises.

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• Help choosing authentication method

  - by Dima

  I need to choose an authentication method for an application installed and integrated in customers environment. There are two types of environments - windows and linux/unix. Application is user based, no web stuff, pure Java. The requirement is to authenticate users which will use my application against customer provided user base. Meaning, customer installs my app, but uses his own users to grant or deny access to my app. Typical, right? I have three options to consider and I need to pick up the one which would be a) the most flexible to cover most common modern environments and b) would take least effort while stay robust and standard. Option (1) - Authenticate locally managing user credentials in some local storage, e.g. file. Customer would then add his users to my application and it will then check the passwords. Simple, clumsy but would work. Customers would have to punch every user they want to grant access to my app using some UI we will have to provide. Lots of work for me, headache to the customer. Option (2) - Use LDAP authentication. Customers would tell my app where to look for users and I will walk their directory resolving names into user names and trying to bind with found password. This is better approach IMO, but more fragile because I will have to walk an unknown directory structure and who knows if this will be permitted everywhere. Would be harder to test since there are many LDAP implementation out there, last thing I want is drowning in this voodoo. Option(3) - Use plain Kerberos authentication. Customers would tell my app what realm (domain) and which KDC (key distribution center) to use. In ideal world these two parameters would be all I need to set while customers could use their own administration tools to configure domain and kdc. My application would simply delegate user credentials to this third party (using JAAS or Spring security) and consider success when third party is happy with them. I personally prefer #3, but not sure what surprises I might face. Would this cover windows and *nix systems entirely? Is there another option to consider?

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