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• Android : Handle OAuth callback using intent-filter

  - by Dave Allison

  I am building an Android application that requires OAuth. I have all the OAuth functionality working except for handling the callback from Yahoo. I have the following in my AndroidManifest.xml : <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.VIEW"></action> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT"></category> <category android:name="android.intent.category.BROWSABLE"></category> <data android:host="www.test.com" android:scheme="http"></data> </intent-filter> Where www.test.com will be substituted with a domain that I own. It seems : This filter is triggered when I click on a link on a page. It is not triggered on the redirect by Yahoo, the browser opens the website at www.test.com It is not triggered when I enter the domain name directly in the browser. So can anybody help me with When exactly this intent-filter will be triggered? Any changes to the intent-filter or permissions that will widen the filter to apply to redirect requests? Any other approaches I could use? Thanks for your help.

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• SPWorkflowCollection on SPListItem is always empty

  - by armannvg

  Hi I'm having a problem relating to Sharepoint workflows and the associated task list. I have 2 custom workflows that we created for our product. They both use the same Task list that has a custom content type that inherits from the Task content type. Now I have a case where a running workflow has been deleted via the list has been deleted or the document, this results in orphaned tasks. I want to overwrite the Task lists OnDeleting event, so that users can cleanup their tasks so that it won't contain unneccessary orphaned tasks. So my item deleting looks like this public override void ItemDeleting(SPItemEventProperties properties) { SPListItem currentListItem = properties.ListItem; } The problem is that when I go into debug mode and check the currentListItem.Workflows.Count field then it's always 0. It doesn't matter which workflow I initiate or what task i look at, the SPWorkflowCollection returned is always empty :( I was wondering if this might be related to a bug in our custom workflow where it's not wired up properly (but it finishes correctly and tasks are deleted when a workflow is terminated) or am I looking at this the wrong way ?

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• Converted PowerBuilder to ASP.Net browsing Errors

  - by user493325

  I had a powerbuilder application which i converted to web application in the format of ASP.Net (aspx) files. after deploying and publishing the converted web application (copy it and add ASP.Net and network Service AND IUser permissions to enable users to access it) in IIS V6.0 over Windows server 2003 and The ASP.Net version is 2.0 The error messages I get when I browse default.aspx web page are as the following:- Server Error in '/' Application. Runtime Error Description: An application error occurred on the server. The current custom error settings for this application prevent the details of the application error from being viewed remotely (for security reasons). It could, however, be viewed by browsers running on the local server machine. Details: To enable the details of this specific error message to be viewable on remote machines, please create a tag within a "web.config" configuration file located in the root directory of the current web application. This tag should then have its "mode" attribute set to "Off". <!-- Web.Config Configuration File --> <configuration> <system.web> <customErrors mode="Off"/> </system.web> </configuration> Notes: The current error page you are seeing can be replaced by a custom error page by modifying the "defaultRedirect" attribute of the application's configuration tag to point to a custom error page URL. <!-- Web.Config Configuration File --> <configuration> <system.web> <customErrors mode="RemoteOnly" defaultRedirect="mycustompage.htm"/> </system.web> </configuration> Another error message appears on the server is:- Server Error in '/' Application. Configuration Error <roleManager enabled="true"> <membership> </roleManager> Thanks in Advance...

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• Verify an event was raised by mocked object

  - by joblot

  In my unit test how can I verify that an event is raised by the mocked object. I have a View(UI) -- ViewModel -- DataProvider -- ServiceProxy. ServiceProxy makes async call to serivce operation. When async operation is complete a method on DataProvider is called (callback method is passed as a method parameter). The callback method then raise and event which ViewModel is listening to. For ViewModel test I mock DataProvider and verify that handler exists for event raised by DataProvider. When testing DataProvider I mock ServiceProxy, but how can I test that callback method is called and event is raised. I am using RhinoMock 3.5 and AAA syntax Thanks -- DataProvider -- public partial class DataProvider { public event EventHandler<EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition>> GetProductDefinitionCompleted; public void GetProductDefinition() { var service = IoC.Resolve<IServiceProxy>(); service.GetProductDefinitionAsync(GetProductDefinitionAsyncCallback); } private void GetProductDefinitionAsyncCallback(ProductDefinition productDefinition, ServiceError error) { OnGetProductDefinitionCompleted(this, new EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition>(productDefinition, error)); } protected void OnGetProductDefinitionCompleted(object sender, EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition> e) { if (GetProductDefinitionCompleted != null) GetProductDefinitionCompleted(sender, e); } } -- ServiceProxy -- public class ServiceProxy : ClientBase<IService>, IServiceProxy { public void GetProductDefinitionAsync(Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError> callback) { Channel.BeginGetProductDefinition(EndGetProductDefinition, callback); } private void EndGetProductDefinition(IAsyncResult result) { Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError> callback = result.AsyncState as Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError>; ServiceError error; ProductDefinition results = Channel.EndGetProductDefinition(out error, result); if (callback != null) callback(results, error); } }

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• Interrupting Prototype handler, alert() vs event.stop()

  - by lxs

  Here's the test page I'm using. This version works fine, forwarding to #success: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html><head> <script type="text/javascript" src="prototype.js"></script> </head><body> <form id='form' method='POST' action='#fail'> <button id='button'>Oh my giddy aunt!</button> <script type="text/javascript"> var fn = function() { $('form').action = "#success"; $('form').submit(); } $('button').observe('mousedown', fn); </script> </form> </body></html> If I empty the handler: var fn = function() { } The form is submitted, but of course we are sent to #fail this time. With an alert in the handler: var fn = function() { alert("omg!"); } The form is not submitted. This is awfully curious. With event.stop(), which is supposed to prevent the browser taking the default action: var fn = function(event) { event.stop(); } We are sent to #fail. So alert() is more effective at preventing a submission than event.stop(). What gives? I'm using Firefox 3.6.3 and Prototype 1.6.0.3. This behaviour also appears in Prototype 1.6.1.

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• Newbie question: undefined local variable or method , why??

  - by Mellon

  I am new in Rails (I am using Rails 3.0.3), currently I am following the book "Agile Web Development with Rails" to develop a simple rails application. I followed the book to: --create a model 'Cart' class; --implement 'add_to_cart' method in my 'store_controller', I have a line of code <%=button_to "Add to Cart", :action => add_to_cart, :id => product %> in my /store/index.html.erb As you see, there is :action => add_to_cart in my index.html.erb, which will invoke the add_to_cart method in my *Controllers/store_controller.rb* But after I refresh the browser, I got the error "undefined local variable or method 'add_to_cart'", apparently I do have the method add_to_cart in my 'store_controller.rb', why I got this error??? What is the possible cause??? Here are my codes: store_controller.rb class StoreController < ApplicationController def index @products = Product.find_products_for_sale end def add_to_cart product = Product.find(params[:id]) @cart = find_cart @cart.add_product(product) end private def find_cart session[:cart] ||= Cart.new end end /store/index.html.erb <h1>Your Pragmatic Catalog</h1> <% @products.each do |product| -%> <div class="entry"> <%= image_tag(product.image_url) %> <h3><%=h product.title %></h3> <%= product.description %> <div class="price-line"> <span class="price"><%= number_to_currency(product.price) %></span> <!-- START_HIGHLIGHT --> <!-- START:add_to_cart --> **<%= button_to 'Add to Cart', :action => 'add_to_cart', :id => product %>** <!-- END:add_to_cart --> <!-- END_HIGHLIGHT --> </div> </div> <% end %> Model/cart.rb class Cart attr_reader :items def initialize @items = [] end def add_product(product) @items << product end end

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• I Cannot retrieve ARPINSTALLLOCATION so we know where to install a new version

  - by Birkoff

  I am trying to retrieve the ARPINSTALLLOCATION during the installation of a Major Upgrade version of the software. Following this info I managed to set the ARPINSTALLLOCATION to the custom path. However, retrieving it again isn't working. I've tried many things over the past days but it keeps defaulting back to the default installation path instead of the custom one. <InstallUISequence> <AppSearch After="FindRelatedProducts"/> ... </InstallUISequence> <Property Id="WIXUI_INSTALLDIR" Value="APPROOTDIRECTORY"> <RegistrySearch Id="FindInstallLocation" Root="HKLM" Key="Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Uninstall\[OLDERVERSIONBEINGUPGRADED]" Name="InstallLocation" Type="raw" /> </Property> In the custom WixUI_InstallDir UI I have this in the CustomInstallDirDlg <Control Id="Folder" Type="PathEdit" X="20" Y="90" Width="260" Height="18" Property="WIXUI_INSTALLDIR" Indirect="yes" /> The alternative install path is in the registry, but it isn't retrieved and shown in the control. What am I doing wrong here? -Birkoff

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• Clearly defined Rails routing problem - undefined method for Nil:NilClass

  - by sscirrus

  Guys and girls, I have been working on this problem for a while but still no joy. This is my second question within this general area, because the last question was getting too long and this is now more well-defined. Summary of the Problem: I am loading a page for my customers and I get error: undefined method 'name' for Nil:NilClass My Code #Link on views/users/show.html.erb: <%= link_to "Customer Account", :action => "home", :controller => "customers", :id => @user.user_type_id %> #Regular Route: map.connect 'customers/home/:id', :controller => 'customers', :action => 'home' #Rake Routes, first entry: /customers/home/:id :controller=>:"customers", :action=>"home" #Customers Controller: def home render :layout => 'home' @customer = Customer.find(params[:id]) @user = @current_user_session.user flash[:error] = "Customer not found" and return unless @customer @jobs = @customer.jobs end #views/customers/home.html.erb: <%= @customer.name %> I have absolutely no idea why this seemingly clear sequence of events is resulting in a NilClass. Search the console for Customer.find(2) returns the correct customer. What is this noob missing? Thank you very much.

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• How can I change the back button function in navigation toolbar?

  - by jackrobert

  I have developed a simple web application using JSP. It has a login page which contains username, password fields and sumbit button. It has a logout page which contains a link to the login page. And there are some pages like page1, page2, page3, page4, etc. Normal workflow is the following: After login comes page1. Then click some action and it will go to page2. Then click some action and it will go to page3. Then click some action and it will go to page4. So now I am in page4. Now click back button in navigation toolbar in browser, generally go to previous page (page3). But my requirement is, if you click back button in navigation toolbar from any page in the application, then you should go to logout page. For example: if you are in page4 and press the back button, then you should go to logout page and not to page3. How to achieve this? Is it anyway possible? Maybe with Javascript?

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• Rebind dymanically created forms after jQuery ajax response

  - by Pjack

  I'm kinda new to jQuery but understand it for the most part. My problem is that when my ajax call which refreshes the entire div is done, all my dynamically created forms don't work. If you try and submit them, the event doens't work properly and just tries to do a normal form submit. I have all the other items such as links bound using the .live() which seem to work great. Just the form dies. How do I rebind the dynamically created forms after the ajax call? They all have id of formname_id. I tried to use bind but it doesn't work as below. Any help is appreciated. Here is the code jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery("form[id^='commentform_']").each(function(){ var id = parseInt(this.id.replace("commentform_", "")); jQuery(this).bind('submit', function(e) { var action = jQuery('#action_' + id).attr('value'); var act_id = ('1'); jQuery.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "ajax/modify.php", data: "action="+ action +"& act_id="+ act_id, success: function(response){ jQuery('#CommentsContainer_' + id).html(response); jQuery('#commentform_' + id)[0].reset(); } }); return false; }); }); });

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• activemerchant PayPalExpress transaction is invalid

  - by Ameya Savale

  I am trying to integrate activemerchant into my ruby on rails application. This is my controller where I get the purchase attirbutes and create a PaypalExpressResponse object def checkout total_as_cents, purchase_params = get_setup_params(Schedule.find(params[:schedule]), request) setup_response = @gateway.setup_purchase(total_as_cents, purchase_params) redirect_to @gateway.redirect_url_for(setup_response.token) end @gateway is my PaypalExpressGateway object which I create using this method in my controller def assign_gateway @gateway = PaypalExpressGateway.new( :login => api_user, :password => api_pass, :signature => api_signature ) end I got the api_user, api_pass, and api_signature values from my developer.paypal.com account, when I logged in for the first time there was already a sandbox user created as a merchant which is where I got the api credentials from. And finally here is my get_setup_params method: def get_setup_params(schedule, request) purchase_params = { :ip => request.remote_ip, :return_url => url_for(:action => 'review', :only_path => false, :sched => schedule.id), :cancel_return_url => register_path, :allow_note => true, :item => schedule.id } return to_cents(schedule.fee), purchase_params end How ever when I click on the checkout button, I get redirected to a sandbox paypal page saying "This transaction is invalid. Please return to the recipient's website to complete your transaction using their regular checkout flow." I'm not sure exactly what's wrong, I think the problem lies in the credentials but don't know why. Any help will be appreciated. One other point, I'm running this in my development environment so I have put this in my config file config.after_initialize do ActiveMerchant::Billing::Base.mode = :test end UPDATE Found out what the problem was, my return cancel url was invalid instead of using register_path, I used url_for(action: "action-name", :only_path => false) this answer helped me Rails ActiveMerchant - Paypal Express Checkout Error even though I wasn't able to see the output of the response like the person has managed to do

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• ASP.NET inline code in a server control

  - by John

  Ok, we had a problem come up today at work. It is a strange one that I never would have even thought to try. <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" > Ok, it is very ugly and I wouldn't have ever tried it myself. It came up in some code that was written years ago but had been working up until this weekend after a bunch of updates were installed on a client's web server where the code is hosted. The actual result of this is the following html: <form name="form1" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=&lt;%= ID %>" id="form1"> The url ends up like this: http://localhost:6735/Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %> Which as you can see, demonstrates that the "<" symbol is being encoded before ASP.NET actually processes the page. It seems strange to me as I thought that even though it is not pretty by any means, it should work. I'm confused. To make matters worse, the client insists that it is a bug in IE since it appears to work in Firefox. In fact, it is broken in Firefox as well, except for some reason Firefox treats it as a 0. Any ideas on why this happens and how to fix it easily? Everything I try to render within the server control ends up getting escaped. Edit Ok, I found a "fix" <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action='<%# String.Format("Default.aspx?id={0}", 5) %>' > But that requires me to call DataBind which is adding more of a hack to the original hack. Guess if nobody thinks of anything else I'll have to go with that.

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• Django repeating vars/cache issue?

  - by Mark

  I'm trying to build a better/more powerful form class for Django. It's working well, except for these sub-forms. Actually, it works perfectly right after I re-start apache, but after I refresh the page a few times, my HTML output starts to look like this: <input class="text" type="text" id="pickup_addr-pickup_addr-pickup_addr-id-pickup_addr-venue" value="" name="pickup_addr-pickup_addr-pickup_addr-pickup_addr-venue" /> The pickup_addr- part starts repeating many times. I was looking for loops around the prefix code that might have cause this to happen, but the output isn't even consistent when I refresh the page, so I think something is getting cached somewhere, but I can't even imagine how that's possible. The prefix car should be reset when the class is initialized, no? Unless it's somehow not initializing something? class Form(object): count = 0 def __init__(self, data={}, prefix='', action='', id=None, multiple=False): self.fields = {} self.subforms = {} self.data = {} self.action = action self.id = fnn(id, 'form%d' % Form.count) self.errors = [] self.valid = True if not empty(prefix) and prefix[-1:] not in ('-','_'): prefix += '-' for name, field in inspect.getmembers(self, lambda m: isinstance(m, Field)): if name[:2] == '__': continue field_name = fnn(field.name, name) field.label = fnn(field.label, humanize(field_name)) field.name = field.widget.name = prefix + field_name + ife(multiple, '[]') field.id = field.auto_id = field.widget.id = ife(field.id==None, 'id-') + prefix + fnn(field.id, field_name) + ife(multiple, Form.count) field.errors = [] val = fnn(field.widget.get_value(data), field.default) if isinstance(val, basestring): try: val = field.coerce(field.format(val)) except Exception, err: self.valid = False field.errors.append(escape_html(err)) field.val = self.data[name] = field.widget.val = val for rule in field.rules: rule.fields = self.fields rule.val = field.val rule.name = field.name self.fields[name] = field for name, form in inspect.getmembers(self, lambda m: ispropersubclass(m, Form)): if name[:2] == '__': continue self.subforms[name] = self.__dict__[name] = form(data=data, prefix='%s%s-' % (prefix, name)) Form.count += 1 Let me know if you need more code... I know it's a lot, but I just can't figure out what's causing this!

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• Stored Procedure Does Not Fire Last Command

  - by jp2code

  On our SQL Server (Version 10.0.1600), I have a stored procedure that I wrote. It is not throwing any errors, and it is returning the correct values after making the insert in the database. However, the last command spSendEventNotificationEmail (which sends out email notifications) is not being run. I can run the spSendEventNotificationEmail script manually using the same data, and the notifications show up, so I know it works. Is there something wrong with how I call it in my stored procedure? [dbo].[spUpdateRequest](@packetID int, @statusID int output, @empID int, @mtf nVarChar(50)) AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @id int SET @id=-1 -- Insert statements for procedure here SELECT A.ID, PacketID, StatusID INTO #act FROM Action A JOIN Request R ON (R.ID=A.RequestID) WHERE (PacketID=@packetID) AND (StatusID=@statusID) IF ((SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM #act)=0) BEGIN -- this statusID has not been entered. Continue SELECT ID, MTF INTO #req FROM Request WHERE PacketID=@packetID WHILE (0 < (SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM #req)) BEGIN SELECT TOP 1 @id=ID FROM #req INSERT INTO Action (RequestID, StatusID, EmpID, DateStamp) VALUES (@id, @statusID, @empID, GETDATE()) IF ((@mtf IS NOT NULL) AND (0 < LEN(RTRIM(@mtf)))) BEGIN UPDATE Request SET MTF=@mtf WHERE ID=@id END DELETE #req WHERE ID=@id END DROP TABLE #req SELECT @id=@@IDENTITY, @statusID=StatusID FROM Action SELECT TOP 1 @statusID=ID FROM Status WHERE (@statusID<ID) AND (-1 < Sequence) EXEC spSendEventNotificationEmail @packetID, @statusID, 'http:\\cpweb:8100\NextStep.aspx' END ELSE BEGIN SET @statusID = -1 END DROP TABLE #act END Idea of how the data tables are connected:

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• How can I tell whether a webpart that has been deployed to a site is a native webpart that ships wit

  - by program247365

  I have a SharePoint 2007 MOSS instance, and I'm on a fact-finding mission. There have been multiple developers, developing multiple webparts and deploying them (using VS2005/2008 SharePoint Extensions). I thought maybe I could look at the fields in the "Web Part Gallery" list in my site, and look by "Modified by", but it looks like a developer's name is on some of the out-of-the-box webparts somehow, and on ones I know are custom developed, they say "System Account" - so looking at that field in this list is a no go. I thought then maybe I could look at the "Group" to which each webpart was assigned but it looks like they were arbitrarily assigned to many different groups inconsistently - so using that piece of information is a no go. Here is my code I have for just looping through and getting the names of all the webparts. Is there any property I can access on the list items of webparts that would tell me whether it's a custom developed webpart? Any way to distinguish the custom webparts from the out-of-the-box ones? Is there another way to do this? #region Misc Site Collection Methods public static List<string> GetAllWebParts(string connectedSPInstanceUrl) { List<string> lstWebParts = new List<string>(); try { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(connectedSPInstanceUrl)) { using (SPWeb web = site.OpenWeb()) { SPList list = web.Lists["Web Part Gallery"]; foreach (SPListItem item in list.Items) { lstWebParts.Add(item.Name); } } } } catch (Exception ex) { lstWebParts.Add("Error"); lstWebParts.Add("Message: " + ex.Message); lstWebParts.Add("Inner Exception: " + ex.InnerException.ToString()); lstWebParts.Add("Stack Trace: " + ex.StackTrace); } return lstWebParts; } #endregion

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• There was no endpoint listening at net.pipe://localhost/...

  - by virsum

  I have two WCF services hosted in a single Windows Service on a Windows Server 2003 machine. If the Windows service needs to access either of the WCF services (like when a timed event occurs), it uses one of the five named pipe endpoints exposed (different service contracts). The service also exposes HTTP MetadataExchange endpoints for each of the two services, and net.tcp endpoints for consumers external to the server. Usually things work great, but every once in a while I get an error message that looks something like this: System.ServiceModel.EndpointNotFoundException: There was no endpoint listening at net.pipe://localhost/IPDailyProcessing that could accept the message. This is often caused by an incorrect address or SOAP action. See InnerException, if present, for more details. --- System.IO.PipeException: The pipe endpoint 'net.pipe://localhost/IPDailyProcessing' could not be found on your local machine. --- End of inner exception stack trace --- Server stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.PipeConnectionInitiator.GetPipeName(Uri uri) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.NamedPipeConnectionPoolRegistry.NamedPipeConnectionPool.GetPoolKey(EndpointAddress address, Uri via) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ConnectionPoolHelper.EstablishConnection(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ClientFramingDuplexSessionChannel.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.CallOpenOnce.System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.ICallOnce.Call(ServiceChannel channel, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.CallOnceManager.CallOnce(TimeSpan timeout, CallOnceManager cascade) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.EnsureOpened(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.InvokeService(IMethodCallMessage methodCall, ProxyOperationRuntime operation) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.Invoke(IMessage message) It doesn't happen reliably, which is maddening because I can't repeat it when I want to. In my windows service I also have some timed events and some file listeners, but these are fairly infrequent events. Does anyone have any ideas why I might be encountering an issue? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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• HTML Submit button vs AJAX based Post (ASP.NET MVC)

  - by Graham

  I'm after some design advice. I'm working on an application with a fellow developer. I'm from the Webforms world and he's done a lot with jQuery and AJAX stuff. We're collaborating on a new ASP.MVC 1.0 app. He's done some pretty amazing stuff that I'm just getting my head around, and used some 3rd party tools etc. for datagrids etc. but... He rarely uses Submit buttons whereas I use them most of the time. He uses a button but then attaches Javascript to it that calls an MVC action which returns a JSON object. He then parses the object to update the datagrid. I'm not sure how he deals with server-side validation - I think he adds a message property to the JSON object. A sample scenario would be to "Save" a new record that then gets added to the gridview. The user doesn't see a postback as such, so he uses jQuery to disable the UI whilst the controller action is running. TBH, it looks pretty cool. However, the way I'd do it would be to use a Submit button to postback, let the ModelBinder populate a typed model class, parse that in my controller Action method, update the model (and apply any validation against the model), update it with the new record, then send it back to be rendered by the View. Unlike him, I don't return a JSON object, I let the View (and datagrid) bind to the new model data. Both solutions "work" but we're obviously taking the application down different paths so one of us has to re-work our code... and we don't mind whose has to be done. What I'd prefer though is that we adopt the "industry-standard" way of doing this. I'm unsure as to whether my WebForms background is influencing the fact that his way just "doesn't feel right", in that a "submit" is meant to submit data to the server. Any advice at all please - many thanks.

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• Displaying data from a linked table and displaying it as a list with HTML/PHP/MySQL

  - by user1672694

  I have three tables. students studentID | FirstName | LastName | Email | Form course CCode | Title courseenrolement courseenrolementid | studentID | ccode | complete | scode With the website, I have a page where I can view all the current enrolements and I wish to be able to view the list displaying the first name, surname and course title. I know I could do it with the following SQL (for the names): SELECT FirstName, LastName FROM student, courseenrolement WHERE courseenrolement.studentID = student.studentID But I am unsure how to get this to work using HTML/PHP. At present I only know how to display the studentID and CCode from the courseenrolement table using the following code: <ul> <?php foreach ($courseenrolements as $ce): ?> <li> <form action="" method="post"> <div> <?php htmlout($ce['studentID']); ?> <?php htmlout($ce['CCode']); ?> <input type="hidden" name="courseenrolementid" value="<?php echo $ce['courseenrolementid']; ?>"> <input type="submit" name="action" value="Edit"> <input type="submit" name="action" value="Delete"> </div> </form> </li> <?php endforeach; ?> </ul> which displays this: But I would like the names and course title. I managed to get it to show the names etc in the dropdown on the 'Add new' form, so I would assume it will be similar, but just unsure on how exactly. Thanks in advance

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• Getting around IBActions limited scope

  - by Septih

  Hello, I have an NSCollectionView and the view is an NSBox with a label and an NSButton. I want a double click or a click of the NSButton to tell the controller to perform an action with the represented object of the NSCollectionViewItem. The Item View is has been subclassed, the code is as follows: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> #import "WizardItem.h" @interface WizardItemView : NSBox { id delegate; IBOutlet NSCollectionViewItem * viewItem; WizardItem * wizardItem; } @property(readwrite,retain) WizardItem * wizardItem; @property(readwrite,retain) id delegate; -(IBAction)start:(id)sender; @end #import "WizardItemView.h" @implementation WizardItemView @synthesize wizardItem, delegate; -(void)awakeFromNib { [self bind:@"wizardItem" toObject:viewItem withKeyPath:@"representedObject" options:nil]; } -(void)mouseDown:(NSEvent *)event { [super mouseDown:event]; if([event clickCount] > 1) { [delegate performAction:[wizardItem action]]; } } -(IBAction)start:(id)sender { [delegate performAction:[wizardItem action]]; } @end The problem I've run into is that as an IBAction, the only things in the scope of -start are the things that have been bound in IB, so delegate and viewItem. This means that I cannot get at the represented object to send it to the delegate. Is there a way around this limited scope or a better way or getting hold of the represented object? Thanks.

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• RESTful copy/move operations?

  - by ladenedge

  I am trying to design a RESTful filesystem-like service, and copy/move operations are causing me some trouble. First of all, uploading a new file is done using a PUT to the file's ultimate URL: PUT /folders/42/contents/<name> The question is, what if the new file already resides on the system under a different URL? Copy/move Idea 1: PUTs with custom headers. This is similar to S3's copy. A PUT that looks the same as the upload, but with a custom header: PUT /folders/42/contents/<name> X-custom-source: /files/5 This is nice because it's easy to change the file's name at copy/move time. However, S3 doesn't offer a move operation, perhaps because a move using this scheme won't be idempotent. Copy/move Idea 2: POST to parent folder. This is similar to the Google Docs copy. A POST to the destination folder with XML content describing the source file: POST /folders/42/contents ... <source>/files/5</source> <newName>foo</newName> I might be able to POST to the file's new URL to change its name..? Otherwise I'm stuck with specifying a new name in the XML content, which amplifies the RPCness of this idea. It's also not as consistent with the upload operation as idea 1. Ultimately I'm looking for something that's easy to use and understand, so in addition to criticism of the above, new ideas are certainly welcome!

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• XAttribute Generating strange namespaces

  - by Adam Driscoll

  I'm constructing an XElement with a couple attributes that have different namespaces. The code looks like this: var element = new XElement("SynchronousCommand", new XAttribute("{wcm}action", "add"), new XAttribute("{ns}id", Guid.NewGuid()), new XElement... ); The XML that is generated looks like this: <unattend xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:unattend"> <SynchronousCommand d5p1:action="add" d5p2:id="c0f5fc6d-d407-4d3d-8a05-d84236cca2fb" xmlns:d5p2="ns" xmlns:d5p1="wcm"> ... </SynchronousCommand> </unattend> I'm just wondering if the auto-generated d5p2 is valid and why it is doing this. According to the XML standards here it seems like it would be valid. But why is it not: <unattend xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:unattend"> <SynchronousCommand wcm:action="add" ns:id="c0f5fc6d-d407-4d3d-8a05-d84236cca2fb" > To generate the XML I'm doing this: public class unattend { public List<XElement> Any {get;} } var unattend = new unattend(); unattend.Add(element); serializer.Serialize(xmlWriter, unattend);

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• Migrating from a single entity to an abstract parent entity with child entities, NSEntityMigrationPolicy not called.

  - by Jimmy Selgen Nielsen

  Hi. I'm trying to upgrade my current application to use an abstract parent entity, with specialized sub entities. I've created a custom NSEntityMigrationPolicy, and in the mapping model I've set the Custom Policy to the name of my class. I'm initializing my persistent store like this, which should be fairly standard : NSError *error=nil; persistentStoreCoordinator = [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel: [self managedObjectModel]]; NSDictionary *options = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption, nil]; if (![persistentStoreCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSSQLiteStoreType configuration:nil URL:storeUrl options:options error:&error]) { NSLog(@"Error adding persistent store : %@",[error description]); NSAssert(error==nil,[error localizedDescription]); } When i run the app i get the following error : Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'The operation couldn’t be completed. (Cocoa error 134140.)' [error userInfo] contains "reason=Can't find mapping model for migration" I've verified that version 1 of the data model will open, and if i set NSInferMappingModelAutomaticallyOption i get a migration, although my entities are not migrated correctly (as expected). I've verified that the mapping model (cdm) is in the application bundle, but somehow it refuses to find it. I've also set breakpoints and NSLog() statements in the custom migration policy, and none of it runs, with or without NSInferMappingModelAutomaticallyOption Any hints as to why it seems unable to find the mapping model ?

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• jquery pass value class

  - by mckenzie

  $(".hidee2").click(function() { var type = $(".st").val(); } <form action="" method="POST"><input type="hidden" class="st" value="st"><div class="button">Room Status : Accepting Reservation <br /><span><span><a class="hidee2">Book Now!</a></span></span></div></form> <form action="" method="POST"><input type="hidden" class="st" value="st2"><div class="button">Room Status : Accepting Reservation <br /><span><span><a class="hidee2">Book Now!</a></span></span></div></form> <form action="" method="POST"><input type="hidden" class="st" value="st3"><div class="button">Room Status : Accepting Reservation <br /><span><span><a class="hidee2">Book Now!</a></span></span></div></form> How do i get which book now! link user click? because i need to pass over the st value? is there any way to achieve this using jquery? currently, only st value is passed over

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• PHP header redirection does not reload <iframe> in IE

  - by Marco Demaio

  When displaying data from DB usually I'm in this situation I'm in page A.php that shows data from DB, user performs some action (like edit/delete etc) and page B.php is loaded to perform the action, once page B performed the action, it redirects browser to page A, page A is auto reloaded during step (3) therefor it shows an updated situation of the data In order to make page B to redirect to page A i use a simple PHP header("Location: " . "A.php", TRUE, 302); This works well in all situations, except when pages A.php is displaied into an <iframe>: in such a case it does not reload (step 4 does not get done). This seems to happen only in IE7 (don't know about IE8), it works perfectly on FF/Safari. And only when using an <iframe>, if page A.php is not in <iframe> it gest refreshed also in IE7. In order to solve this I simply added a couple of headers in page A.php to set it to not be cached: header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate"); // HTTP/1.1 header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); // Date in the past But I was curious if you might have experienced the same issue too in the past, and if you good give me some advice about this?

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• How do you deal with naming conventions for rails partials?

  - by DJTripleThreat

  For example, I might have an partial something like: <div> <%= f.label :some_field %><br/> <%= f.text_field :some_field %> </div> which works for edit AND new actions. I also will have one like: <div> <%=h some_field %> </div> for the show action. So you would think that all your partials go under one directory like shared or something. The problem that I see with this is that both of these would cause a conflict since they are essentially the same partial but for different actions so what I do is: <!-- for edit and new actions --> <%= render "shared_edit/some_partial" ... %> <!-- for show action --> <%= render "shared_show/some_partial" ... %> How do you handle this? Is a good idea or even possible to maybe combine all of these actions into one partial and render different parts by determining what the current action is?

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