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  • How can I send GET data to multiple URLs at the same time using cURL?

    - by Rob
    My apologies, I've actually asked this question multiple times, but never quite understood the answers. Here is my current code: while($resultSet = mysql_fetch_array($SQL)){ $ch = curl_init($resultSet['url'] . $fullcurl); //load the urls and send GET data curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 2); //Only load it for two seconds (Long enough to send the data) curl_exec($ch); //Execute the cURL curl_close($ch); //Close it off } //end while loop What I'm doing here, is taking URLs from a MySQL Database ($resultSet['url']), appending some extra variables to it, just some GET data ($fullcurl), and simply requesting the pages. This starts the script running on those pages, and that's all that this script needs to do, is start those scripts. It doesn't need to return any output. Just the load the page long enough for the script to start. However, currently it's loading each URL (currently 11) one at a time. I need to load all of them simultaneously. I understand I need to use curl_multi_*, but I haven't the slightest idea on how cURL functions work, so I don't know how to change my code to use curl_multi_* in a while loop. So my questions are: How can I change this code to load all of the URLs simultaneously? Please explain it and not just give me code. I want to know what each individual function does exactly. Will curl_multi_exec even work in a while loop, since the while loop is just sending each row one at a time? And of course, any references, guides, tutorials about cURL functions would be nice, as well. Preferably not so much from php.net, as while it does a good job of giving me the syntax, its just a little dry and not so good with the explanations.

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  • Is Assert.Fail() considered bad practice?

    - by Mendelt
    I use Assert.Fail a lot when doing TDD. I'm usually working on one test at a time but when I get ideas for things I want to implement later I quickly write an empty test where the name of the test method indicates what I want to implement as sort of a todo-list. To make sure I don't forget I put an Assert.Fail() in the body. When trying out xUnit.Net I found they hadn't implemented Assert.Fail. Of course you can always Assert.IsTrue(false) but this doesn't communicate my intention as well. I got the impression Assert.Fail wasn't implemented on purpose. Is this considered bad practice? If so why? @Martin Meredith That's not exactly what I do. I do write a test first and then implement code to make it work. Usually I think of several tests at once. Or I think about a test to write when I'm working on something else. That's when I write an empty failing test to remember. By the time I get to writing the test I neatly work test-first. @Jimmeh That looks like a good idea. Ignored tests don't fail but they still show up in a separate list. Have to try that out. @Matt Howells Great Idea. NotImplementedException communicates intention better than assert.Fail() in this case @Mitch Wheat That's what I was looking for. It seems it was left out to prevent it being abused in another way I abuse it.

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  • Single website multiple connection strings using asp mvc 2 and nhibernate

    - by jjjjj
    Hi In my website i use ASP MVC 2 + Fluent NHibernate as orm, StructureMap for IoC container. There are several databases with identical metadata(and so entities and mappings are the same). On LogOn page user fiils in login, password, rememberme and chooses his server from dropdownlist (in fact he chooses database). Web.config contains all connstrings and we can assume that they won't be changed in run-time. I suppose that it is required to have one session factory per database. Before using multiple databases, i loaded classes to my StructureMap ObjectFactory in Application_Start ObjectFactory.Initialize(init => init.AddRegistry<ObjectRegistry>()); ObjectFactory.Configure(conf => conf.AddRegistry<NhibernateRegistry>()); NhibernateRegistry class: public class NhibernateRegistry : Registry { public NhibernateRegistry() { var sessionFactory = NhibernateConfiguration.Configuration.BuildSessionFactory(); For<Configuration>().Singleton().Use( NhibernateConfiguration.Configuration); For<ISessionFactory>().Singleton().Use(sessionFactory); For<ISession>().HybridHttpOrThreadLocalScoped().Use( ctx => ctx.GetInstance<ISessionFactory>().GetCurrentSession()); } } In Application_BeginRequest i bind opened nhibernate session to asp session(nhibernate session per request) and in EndRequest i unbind them: protected void Application_BeginRequest( object sender, EventArgs e) { CurrentSessionContext.Bind(ObjectFactory.GetInstance<ISessionFactory>().OpenSession()); } Q1: How can i realize what SessionFactory should i use according to authenticated user? is it something like UserData filled with database name (i use simple FormsAuthentication) For logging i use log4net, namely AdoNetAppender which contains connectionString(in xml, of course). Q2: How can i manage multiple connection strings for this database appender, so logs would be written to current database? I have no idea how to do that except changing xml all the time and reseting xml configuration, but its really bad solution.

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  • IIS7 dynamic content compression and webservices

    - by vandalo
    I am moving and old asmx webservice to a new server with IIS7. This webservice basically sends a big dataset (10mb+) to a winform application. The old solution was implemented using a custom soap extension which compressed the content before sending the stream to the client. The client, of course, implemented the same custom soap extension, to decompressed the stream in a dataset. Everything has worked pretty well for years. My customer doesn't want to change the code upgrading to WCF. They just want to put the old App on the new server and use the new dynamic content compression features. We're testing things on a test server (win serv 2008) and it seems that it's working pretty well, even if it seems slow: we can't see any difference in performance (speed) between the uncompressed and compressed stream. Here's the question. Where should I put the settings? Most people say I can't put it in my web.config; others say it can be put there. I am a bit confused. Are there any tricks or things I should know? What about mimeTypes? Should I set some parameters, somewhere? ... considering my stream is XML (dataset) ?? Thanks to everyone who would like to help Alberto

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  • Compiling a C++ application on Windows 7, but execute it on Win2003 Server

    - by dabs
    I have a C++ application (quite complex, multiple projects) in Visual Studio 2008, that produces a single dll. Recently I switched to Windows 7, but had previously been compiling under Windows XP. Suddenly the dll in question cannot be loaded by another application, i.e. on a machine running Windows 2003 Server. I've been trying various things: I've installed the VC9.0 redistributable package on the server Also copied various .dll's from that package to the application folder The project is of course compiled in release mode When I run depends.exe on the client machine, I do get the following error: "Error: The Side-by-Side configuration information for "my_dll.dll" contains errors. This application has failed to start because the application configuration is incorrect. Reinstalling the application may fix this problem (14001). Warning: At least one module has an unresolved import due to a missing export function in a delay-load dependent module." and the icon for shlwapi.dll has a red overlay icon. This didn't happen when I was compiling under WinXP, so I'm guessing that there really is no problem with the .dll's on the client machine, but somewhere there is a reference to that particular version of some dll. Does anyone know what would be the best way to resolve this? Regards, Daníel

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  • jQuery tokeninput plugin + passing id to another tokeninput url

    - by Elson Solano
    I am using a jquery plugin called jQuery Tokeninput http://loopj.com/jquery-tokeninput/ and I am having a logic issue. var country_id = ""; jQuery("#demo-input-prevent-duplicates").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=country", { theme: "facebook", hintText: "Enter a Country...", placeholder: "Enter a Country...", preventDuplicates: true, onAdd: function(item) { country_id = item.id; }, onDelete: function(){ hideElements(); }, tokenDelimiter: "|", }); My question here is how would I pass the value of country_id to the parameter of the below code. I'm not seeing how to do this one on the jquery tokeninput documentation. jQuery("#targ_state").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=stateorprovince&cid="+country_id, { theme: "facebook", preventDuplicates: true, hintText: "Enter a State or Province...", placeholder: "Enter a State or Province..." }); If you'll look on this part of the code, I am passing the country_id that was generated above on the "onAdd". This doesn't work though. jQuery("#targ_state").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=stateorprovince&cid="+country_id .... How would I do that one? Your help would be greatly appreciated and of course, rewarded! Thanks! :-)

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  • Sending information between JavaScript and Web Services using AJAX

    - by COB-CSU-AM
    Alright so I'm using Microsoft's Web Services and AJAX to get information from a SQL database for use with java script on the client side. And I'm wondering what the best method is. Before I started working on the project, the web services were setup to return a C# List filled with some objects. Those objects variables (ints, strings, etc.) contain the data I want to use. Of course, java script can't do much with this, to the best of my knowledge. I then modified the web service to return a 2D Array, but java script got confused, and to the best of my knowledge can't handle 2D array's returned from C#. I then tried to use a regular array, but then a found the length property of an array in JS doesn't carry over, so I couldn't preform a for loop through all the items, because there wasn't anyway of knowing how many elements there were. The only other thing I can thing of is returning a string with special char's to separate the data, but this seems way too convoluted. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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  • Conditional insert as a single database transaction in HSQLDB 1.8?

    - by Kevin Pauli
    I'm using a particular database table like a "Set" data structure, i.e., you can attempt to insert the same row several times, but it will only contain one instance. The primary key is a natural key. For example, I want the following series of operations to work fine, and result in only one row for Oklahoma: insert into states_visited (state_name) values ('Oklahoma'); insert into states_visited (state_name) values ('Texas'); insert into states_visited (state_name) values ('Oklahoma'); I am of course getting an error due to the duplicate primary key on subsequent inserts of the same value. Is there a way to make the insert conditional, so that these errors are not thrown? I.e. only do the the insert if the natural key does not already exist? I know I could do a where clause and a subquery to test for the row's existence first, but it seems that would be expensive. That's 2 physical operations for one logical "conditional insert" operation. Anything like this in SQL? FYI I am using HSQLDB 1.8

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  • problem in handling menu - submenu based on spring security

    - by Nirmal
    Hi All... I have configured spring security core plugin using requestmap table inside the database.. Now inside requestmap table I have all the possible urls and it's equivalent roles who can access that url... Now I want to generate menus and submenus based on the urls stored in requestmap table... So my requirement is to check the urls of menu & submenus against the logged in users privileges... And if logged in user has any one privilege then I need to display that main menu and the available submenus.... For e.g. I have a menu in my project called user which has a following submenus : **Users (main menu)** Manage Users (sub menu) Import Users (sub menu) Now inside my header.gsp I have successfully achieved the above requirement using if else condition, like : if ( privs.contains("/users/manageUsers") || privs.contains("/users/importUsers")) here privs are the list of urls from requestmap table for logged in user. But I want to achieve these using spring security tag lib, so for comparing urls I have find following tag from spring security core documentation : <sec:access url="/users/manageUsers"> But i am bit confuse that how I can replace or condition using tag library.. Is there any tag available which checks from multiple urls and evaluate it to true or false ? Of course I can do using sec:access tag with some flag logic, but is there any tags available which can fulfill my requirement directly ? Thanks in advance...

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  • T-SQL Query, combine columns from multiple rows into single column

    - by Shayne
    I have seeen some examples of what I am trying to do using COALESCE and FOR XML (seems like the better solution). I just can't quite get the syntax right. Here is what I have (I will shorten the fields to only the key ones): Table Fields ------ ------------------------------- Requisition ID, Number IssuedPO ID, Number Job ID, Number Job_Activity ID, JobID (fkey) RequisitionItems ID, RequisitionID(fkey), IssuedPOID(fkey), Job_ActivityID (fkey) I need a query that will list ONE Requisition per line with its associated Jobs and IssuedPOs. (The requisition number start with "R-" and the Job Number start with "J-"). Example: R-123 | "PO1; PO2; PO3" | "J-12345; J-6780" Sure thing Adam! Here is a query that returns multiple rows. I have to use outer joins, since not all Requisitions have RequisitionItems that are assigned to Jobs and/or IssuedPOs (in that case their fkey IDs would just be null of course). SELECT DISTINCT Requisition.Number, IssuedPO.Number, Job.Number FROM Requisition INNER JOIN RequisitionItem on RequisitionItem.RequisitionID = Requisition.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Job_Activity on RequisitionItem.JobActivityID = Job_Activity.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Job on Job_Activity.JobID = Job.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN IssuedPO on RequisitionItem.IssuedPOID = IssuedPO.ID

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  • How to invoke make install for one subdirectory of Qt project

    - by chalup
    I'm working on custom library and I wish users could just use it by adding: CONFIG += mylib to their pro files. This can be done by installing mylib.prf file to %QTDIR%/mkspec/features. I've checked out in Qt Mobility project how to create and install such file, but there is one thing I'd like to do differently. If I correctly understood the pro/pri files of Qt Mobility, inside the example projects they don't really use CONFIG += mobility, instead they add QtMobility sources to include path and share the *.obj directory with main library project. For my library I'd like to have examples that are as independent projects as possible, i.e. projects that can be compiled from anywhere once MyLib is compiled and installed. I have following directory structure: mylib | |- examples |- src |- tests \- mylib.pro It seems that the easiest way to achieve what I described above is creating mylib.pro like this: TEMPLATE = subdirs SUBDIRS += src SUBDIRS += examples tests:SUBDIRS += tests And somehow enforce invoking "cd src && make install" after building src. What is the best way to do this? Of course any other suggestions for automatic library deployment before examples compilation are welcome.

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  • Efficiency of manually written loops vs operator overloads (C++)

    - by Sagekilla
    Hi all, in the program I'm working on I have 3-element arrays, which I use as mathematical vectors for all intents and purposes. Through the course of writing my code, I was tempted to just roll my own Vector class with simple +, -, *, /, etc overloads so I can simplify statements like: for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) r[i] = r1[i] - r2[i]; // becomes: r = r1 - r2; Which should be more or less identical in generated code. But when it comes to more complicated things, could this really impact my performance heavily? One example that I have in my code is this: Manually written version: for (int j = 0; j < 3; j++) { p.vel[j] = p.oldVel[j] + (p.oldAcc[j] + p.acc[j]) * dt2 + (p.oldJerk[j] - p.jerk[j]) * dt12; p.pos[j] = p.oldPos[j] + (p.oldVel[j] + p.vel[j]) * dt2 + (p.oldAcc[j] - p.acc[j]) * dt12; } Using a Vector class with operator overloads: p.vel = p.oldVel + (p.oldAcc + p.acc) * dt2 + (p.oldJerk - p.jerk) * dt12; p.pos = p.oldPos + (p.oldVel + p.vel) * dt2 + (p.oldAcc - p.acc) * dt12; I am compiling my code for maximum possible speed, as it's extremely important that this code runs quickly and calculates accurately. So will me relying on my Vector's for these sorts of things really affect me? For those curious, this is part of some numerical integration code which is not trivial to run in my program. Any insight would be appreciated, as would any idioms or tricks I'm unaware of.

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  • Google AppEngine + Local JUnit Tests + Jersey framework + Embedded Jetty

    - by xamde
    I use Google Appengine for Java (GAE/J). On top, I use the Jersey REST-framework. Now i want to run local JUnit tests. The test sets up the local GAE development environment ( http://code.google.com/appengine/docs/java/tools/localunittesting.html ), launches an embedded Jetty server, and then fires requests to the server via HTTP and checks responses. Unfortunately, the Jersey/Jetty combo spawns new threads. GAE expects only one thread to run. In the end, I end up having either no datstore inside the Jersey-resources or multiple, having different datastore. As a workaround I initialise the GAE local env only once, put it in a static variable and inside the GAE resource I add many checks (This threads has no dev env? Re-use the static one). And these checks should of course only run inside JUnit tests.. (which I asked before: "How can I find out if code is running inside a JUnit test or not?" - I'm not allowed to post the link directly here :-|)

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  • How is timezone handled in the lifecycle of an ADO.NET + SQL Server DateTime column?

    - by stimpy77
    Using SQL Server 2008. This is a really junior question and I could really use some elaborate information, but the information on Google seems to dance around the topic quite a bit and it would be nice if there was some detailed elaboration on how this works... Let's say I have a datetime column and in ADO.NET I set it to DateTime.UtcNow. 1) Does SQL Server store DateTime.UtcNow accordingly, or does it offset it again based on the timezone of where the server is installed, and then return it offset-reversed when queried? I think I know that the answer is "of course it stores it without offsetting it again" but want to be certain. So then I query for it and cast it from, say, an IDataReader column to a DateTime. As far as I know, System.DateTime has metadata that internally tracks whether it is a UTC DateTime or it is an offsetted DateTime, which may or may not cause .ToLocalTime() and .ToUniversalTime() to have different behavior depending on this state. So, 2) Does this casted System.DateTime object already know that it is a UTC DateTime instance, or does it assume that it has been offset? Now let's say I don't use UtcNow, I use DateTime.Now, when performing an ADO.NET INSERT or UPDATE. 3) Does ADO.NET pass the offset to SQL Server and does SQL Server store DateTime.Now with the offset metadata? So then I query for it and cast it from, say, an IDataReader column to a DateTime. 4) Does this casted System.DateTime object already know that it is an offset time, or does it assume that it is UTC?

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  • Haskell Cons Operator (:)

    - by Carson Myers
    I am really new to Haskell (Actually I saw "Real World Haskell" from O'Reilly and thought "hmm, I think I'll learn functional programming" yesterday) and I am wondering: I can use the construct operator to add an item to the beginning of a list: 1 : [2,3] [1,2,3] I tried making an example data type I found in the book and then playing with it: --in a file data BillingInfo = CreditCard Int String String | CashOnDelivery | Invoice Int deriving (Show) --in ghci $ let order_list = [Invoice 2345] $ order_list [Invoice 2345] $ let order_list = CashOnDelivery : order_list $ order_list [CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, CashOnDelivery, ...- etc... it just repeats forever, is this because it uses lazy evaluation? -- EDIT -- okay, so it is being pounded into my head that let order_list = CashOnDelivery:order_list doesn't add CashOnDelivery to the original order_list and then set the result to order_list, but instead is recursive and creates an infinite list, forever adding CashOnDelivery to the beginning of itself. Of course now I remember that Haskell is a functional language and I can't change the value of the original order_list, so what should I do for a simple "tack this on to the end (or beginning, whatever) of this list?" Make a function which takes a list and BillingInfo as arguments, and then return a list? -- EDIT 2 -- well, based on all the answers I'm getting and the lack of being able to pass an object by reference and mutate variables (such as I'm used to)... I think that I have just asked this question prematurely and that I really need to delve further into the functional paradigm before I can expect to really understand the answers to my questions... I guess what i was looking for was how to write a function or something, taking a list and an item, and returning a list under the same name so the function could be called more than once, without changing the name every time (as if it was actually a program which would add actual orders to an order list, and the user wouldn't have to think of a new name for the list each time, but rather append an item to the same list).

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  • Calling from C# to C function which accept a struct array allocated by caller

    - by lifey
    I have the following C struct struct XYZ { void *a; char fn[MAX_FN]; unsigned long l; unsigned long o; }; And I want to call the following function from C#: extern "C" int func(int handle, int *numEntries, XYZ *xyzTbl); Where xyzTbl is an array of XYZ of size numEntires which is allocated by the caller I have defined the following C# struct: [System.Runtime.InteropServices.StructLayoutAttribute(System.Runtime.InteropServices.LayoutKind.Sequential, CharSet = System.Runtime.InteropServices.CharSet.Ansi)] public struct XYZ { public System.IntPtr rva; [System.Runtime.InteropServices.MarshalAsAttribute(System.Runtime.InteropServices.UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst = 128)] public string fn; public uint l; public uint o; } and a method: [System.Runtime.InteropServices.DllImport(@"xyzdll.dll", CallingConvention = CallingConvention.Cdecl)] public static extern Int32 func(Int32 handle, ref Int32 numntries, [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPArray)] XYZ[] arr); Then I try to call the function : XYZ xyz = new XYZ[numEntries]; for (...) xyz[i] = new XYZ(); func(handle,numEntries,xyz); Of course it does not work. Can someone shed light on what I am doing wrong ?

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  • Modify existing struct alignment in Visual C++

    - by Crend King
    Is there a way to modify the member alignment of an existing struct in Visual C++? Here is the background: I use an 3rd-party library, which uses several structs. To fill up the structs, I pass the address of the struct instance to some functions. Unfortunately, the functions only returns unaligned buffer, so that data of some members are always wrong. /Zp is out of choice, since it breaks the other parts of the program. I know #pragma pack modifies the alignment of the following struct, but I do not want to copy the structs into my code, for the definitions in the library might change in the future. Sample code: test.h: struct am_aligned { BYTE data1[10]; ULONG data2; }; test.cpp: include "test.h" // typedef alignment(1) struct am_aligned am_unaligned int APIENTRY wWinMain(HINSTANCE hInstance, HINSTANCE hPrevInstance, LPTSTR lpCmdLine, int nCmdShow) { char buffer[20] = {}; for (int i = 0; i < sizeof(unaligned_struct); i++) { buffer[i] = i; } am_aligned instance = *(am_aligned*) buffer; return 0; } instance.data2 is 0x0f0e0d0c, while 0x0d0c0b0a is desired. The commented line does not work of course. Thanks for help!

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  • Is it rude to add "TODO: wtf?" in source code?

    - by mafutrct
    I encountered something ... well, you know TDWTF... something like that in an international project I'm working on. The code was written by a team mate. For a second I was tempted to add // TODO: wtf? to the infringing code but restrained myself. The project is indeed on a professional level, but for internal conversation, more colloquial language is used - but still no "bad" words as in "wtf". Usually, I'd surely not add such a comment, but I believe there are a few factors that allow consideration still: 1. It is not visible except as a comment in the source code (of course). 2. It is internal to our team - other developers may happen see it but it is not their code. 3. Comments in source code are usually accepted to be more colloquial, since it is "kept between us developers". Would you totally advise to never add such a comment? Or do you regard it as an edge case? Did you possibly add something similar yourself?

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  • WPF - Dynamically access a specific item of a collection in XAML

    - by Andy T
    Hi, I have a data source ('SampleAppearanceDefinitions'), which holds a single collection ('Definitions'). Each item in the collection has several properties, including Color, which is what I'm interested in here. I want, in XAML, to display the Color of a particular item in the collection as text. I can do this just fine using this code below... Text="{Binding Source={StaticResource SampleAppearanceDefinitions}, Path=Definitions[0].Color}" The only problem is, this requires me to hard-code the index of the item in the Definitions collection (I've used 0 in the example above). What I want to do in fact is to get that value from a property in my current DataContext ('AppearanceID'). One might imagine the correct code to look like this.... Text="{Binding Source={StaticResource SampleAppearanceDefinitions}, Path=Definitions[{Binding AppearanceID}].Color}" ...but of course, this is wrong. Can anyone tell me what the correct way to do this is? Is it possible in XAML only? It feels like it ought to be, but I can't work out or find how to do it. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Thanks! AT

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  • Pre-formatting text to prevent reflowing

    - by mattjn
    I've written a fairly simple script that will take elements (in this case, <p> elements are the main concern) and type their contents out like a typewriter, one by one. The problem is that as it types, when it reaches the edge of the container mid-word, it reflows the text and jumps to the next line (like word wrap in any text editor). This is, of course, expected behavior; however, I would like to pre-format the text so that this does not happen. I figure that inserting <br> before the word that will wrap would be the best solution, but I'm not quite sure what the best way to go about doing that is that supports all font sizes and container widths, while also keeping any HTML tags intact. I figure something involving a hidden <span> element, adding text to it gradually and checking its width against the container width might be on the right track, but I'm not quite sure how to actually put this together. Any help or suggestions on better methods would be appreciated.

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  • C++ Constructor initialization list strangeness

    - by Andy
    I have always been a good boy when writing my classes, prefixing all member variables with m_: class Test { int m_int1; int m_int2; public: Test(int int1, int int2) : m_int1(int int1), m_int2(int int2) {} }; void main() { Test t(10, 20); // Just an example } However, recently I forgot to do that and ended up writing: class Test { int int1; int int2; public: // Very questionable, but of course I meant to assign ::int1 to this->int1! Test(int int1, int int2) : int1(int1), int2(int2) {} }; Believe it or not, the code compiled with no errors/warnings and the assignments took place correctly! It was only when doing the final check before checking in my code when I realised what I had done. My question is: why did my code compile? Is something like that allowed in the C++ standard, or is it simply a case of the compiler being clever? In case you were wondering, I was using Visual Studio 2008 Thank you.

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  • Where does the delete control go in my Cocoa user interface?

    - by Graham Lee
    Hi, I have a Cocoa application managing a collection of objects. The collection is presented in an NSCollectionView, with a "new object" button nearby so users can add to the collection. Of course, I know that having a "delete object" button next to that button would be dangerous, because people might accidentally knock it when they mean to create something. I don't like having "are you sure you want to..." dialogues, so I dispensed with the "delete object". There's a menu item under Edit for removing an object, and you can hit Cmd-backspace to do the same. The app supports undoing delete actions. Now I'm getting support emails ranging from "does it have to be so hard to delete things" to "why can't I delete objects?". That suggests I've made it a bit too hard, so what's the happy middle ground? I see applications from Apple that do it my way, or with the add/remove buttons next to each other, but I hate that latter option. Is there another good (and preferably common) convention for delete controls? I thought about an action menu but I don't think I have any other actions that would go in it, rendering the menu a bit thin.

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  • MySQL LIMIT 1 but query 15 rows?

    - by Ian
    Basically what I'm trying to do is compare the ID's of rows against 15 results in MySQL, eliminating all but 1 (using NOT IN) and then pull that result. Now normally this would be fine by itself, however the order of the 15 rows I'm doing the SQL query for are constantly changing based on a ranking, so there is a possibility that between the time the ranking updates, and the ajax request (which I submit the ID's for NOT IN) more than just one ID has changed, which would of course bring back more than one row which I do not want. So in short, is there a way in which I can query 15 rows, but only return one? Without having to run two separate queries. Any help is appreciated, thank you. EXAMPLE: Say I have 7 items in my database, and I'm displaying 5 on the page to the user. These are what are being displayed to the user: Apple Orange Kiwi Banana Grape But in the database I also have Peach Blackberry Now what I want to do is if the user deletes an item from their list, it will add another item (based on a ranking they have) Now the issue is, in order to know what they have on their list at the moment I send the remaining items to the database (say they deleted Kiwi, I would send Apple, Orange, Banana, and Grape) So now I select the highest ranked 5 items from are remaining six items, make sure they are not the ones already displayed on the page, and then add the new one to list (either Peach or Blackberry) All good and well, except that if both peach and blackberry now outrank grape, then I will be returning two results instead of just one. Because it would've searched... Apple Orange Banana Peach Blackberry and excluded... Apple Orange Banana Grape Which leaves us with both Peach and Blackberry, instead of just Peach or Blackberry

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  • AFNetworking iOS

    - by Jeromiin
    I have a problem with a request in my app, I want to receive a json but because of the completion block my "PRINT 2" is print before my "PRINT 1" and of course my "PRINT 2" is null. I want the contrary and my "PRINT 2" to be filled but I can't manage to do it. -(void) makeConnection { NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:[@"http://monsite.com/iPhonej/verifPseudo.php?login="stringByAppendingString:[_loginField.text stringByAppendingString:[@"&password=" stringByAppendingString:_passField.text]]]]; NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; AFHTTPRequestOperation *operation = [[AFHTTPRequestOperation alloc] initWithRequest:request]; operation.responseSerializer = [AFJSONResponseSerializer serializer]; [operation setCompletionBlockWithSuccess:^(AFHTTPRequestOperation *operation, id responseObject) { self.response = (NSDictionary *)responseObject; NSLog(@"PRINT 1 : %@", self.response[@"la"][@"reponse"][0][@"rep"]); [_dataLock lock]; } failure:^(AFHTTPRequestOperation *operation, NSError *error) { NSLog(@"Request Failed: %@, %@", error, error.userInfo); }]; [operation start]; } - (IBAction)logIn:(id)sender { [self makeConnection]; NSLog(@"PRINT 2 : %@", self.response[@"la"][@"reponse"][0][@"rep"]); } I know that AFNetworking is asynchronous but is there an other way to do the request and receive my json well ? Thank you

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  • Uniquing with Existing Core Data Entities

    - by warrenm
    I'm using Core Data to store a lot (1000s) of items. A pair of properties on each item are used to determine uniqueness, so when a new item comes in, I compare it against the existing items before inserting it. Since the incoming data is in the form of an RSS feed, there are often many duplicates, and the cost of the uniquing step is O(N^2), which has become significant. Right now, I create a set of existing items before iterating over the list of (possible) new items. My theory is that on the first iteration, all the items will be faulted in, and assuming we aren't pressed for memory, most of those items will remain resident over the course of the iteration. I see my options thusly: Use string comparison for uniquing, iterating over all "new" items and comparing to all existing items (Current approach) Use a predicate to filter the set of existing items against the properties of the "new" items. Use a predicate with Core Data to determine uniqueness of each "new" item (without retrieving the set of existing items). Is option 3 likely to be faster than my current approach? Do you know of a better way?

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