Search Results

Search found 8371 results on 335 pages for 'inline block'.

Page 286/335 | < Previous Page | 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293  | Next Page >

  • Not able to insert data in the database from a form in php

    - by Prashant Baid
    I am not able to insert data into my data, i dont know what the problem is. Here is the code: mysql_select_db("mitestore", $con); */ if ((isset($_POST['product_name'])) && (strlen(trim($_POST['product_name'])) 0)) { $product_name = stripslashes(strip_tags($_POST['product_name'])); $sql="INSERT INTO sell (product_name) VALUE ('$_POST[product_name]')"; } else {$product_name = 'Please enter the product name.';} if ((isset($_POST[''])) && (strlen(trim($_POST['how_old'])) 0)) { $how_old = stripslashes(strip_tags($_POST['how_old'])); $sql="INSERT INTO sell (how_old) VALUE ('$_POST[how_old]')"; } else {$how_old = 'Please enter how old your product is';} if ((isset($_POST['which_block'])) && (strlen(trim($_POST['which_block'])) 0)) { $which_block = stripslashes(strip_tags($_POST['which_block'])); $sql="INSERT INTO sell (which_block) VALUE ('$_POST[which_block]')"; } else {$which_block = 'Please enter which block are you from';} if ((isset($_POST['room_no'])) && (strlen(trim($_POST['room_no'])) 0)) { $room_no = stripslashes(strip_tags($_POST['room_no'])); $sql="INSERT INTO sell (room_no) VALUE ('$_POST[room_no]')"; } else {$room_no = 'Please enter the room no:';} if (!mysql_query($sql,$con)) { die('Error: ' . mysql_error()); } echo "Success!"; mysql_close($con) ? Initially i had this code and it worked for me. mysql_select_db("database", $con); $sql="INSERT INTO sell ( product_name, how_old , selling_price, negotiable, which_block, room_no) VALUES ('$_POST[product_name]','$_POST[how_old]','$_POST[selling_price]','$_POST[negotiable]','$_POST[which_block]','$_POST[room_no]')"; if (!mysql_query($sql,$con)) { die('Error: ' . mysql_error()); } echo "Your product is added."; mysql_close($con) ? But i don't know how to validate each field individually.

    Read the article

  • How do I make an iframe 100% height of a containing div in Firefox?

    - by David
    I'm having some trouble figuring out how to extend an iframe to 100% of it's container element in Firefox and IE (it works fine in Chrome). From searching around, it makes sense that there has to be a width specified on the containing div (and possibly body and html as well). However, I have done that, and the iframe is still not extending. Do all of the parent divs have to have a specified width and position for this to work, or just the containing parent? Any fix for this would be greatly appreciated! Here's what I have: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <style> html, body {margin:0; padding:0; height:100%} #container {width: 1000px; min-height: 550px; position: relative} #smallContainer {position:relative} /*no width specified*/ #iframeContainer {height: 100%; position: relative} #iframe {height: 100%; width: 100%; display: block} </style> </head> <body> <div id="container"> <div id="smallContainer"> <div id="iframeContainer"> <iframe id="iframe" src="foo.com"></iframe> </div> </div> </div> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Wordpress is_front_page if statement

    - by Anders Kitson
    I have the following code below. I am trying to get rid of the box articles div when I am on the home page the code works when the html is outside of the else portion of the IF statement, as soon as I put it inside the page goes blank, I can't seem to figure out where I have broken the code. Any help would be great. <?php if(is_front_page()) { if(function_exists('wp_content_slider')) { wp_content_slider(); } } else{ ?> <div class="box articles"> <div class="block" id="articles"> <h2><?php the_title(); ?></h2> <div class="article"> <div class="entry"> <?php the_content(); ?> </div> <?php edit_post_link('Modifca Contenuto.', '<p>', '</p>'); ?> </div> </div> </div> <?php endwhile; endif; ?> <? } ?>

    Read the article

  • Convert a image to a monochrome byte array

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    I am writing a library to interface C# with the EPL2 printer language. One feature I would like to try to implement is printing images, the specification doc says p1 = Width of graphic Width of graphic in bytes. Eight (8) dots = one (1) byte of data. p2 = Length of graphic Length of graphic in dots (or print lines) Data = Raw binary data without graphic file formatting. Data must be in bytes. Multiply the width in bytes (p1) by the number of print lines (p2) for the total amount of graphic data. The printer automatically calculates the exact size of the data block based upon this formula. I plan on my source image being a 1 bit per pixel bmp file, already scaled to size. I just don't know how to get it from that format in to a byte[] for me to send off to the printer. I tried ImageConverter.ConvertTo(Object, Type) it succeeds but the array it outputs is not the correct size and the documentation is very lacking on how the output is formatted. My current test code. Bitmap i = (Bitmap)Bitmap.FromFile("test.bmp"); ImageConverter ic = new ImageConverter(); byte[] b = (byte[])ic.ConvertTo(i, typeof(byte[])); Any help is greatly appreciated even if it is in a totally different direction.

    Read the article

  • C++ struct, public data members and inheritance

    - by Marius
    Is it ok to have public data members in a C++ class/struct in certain particular situations? How would that go along with inheritance? I've read opinions on the matter, some stated already here http://stackoverflow.com/questions/952907/practices-on-when-to-implement-accessors-on-private-member-variables-rather-than http://stackoverflow.com/questions/670958/accessors-vs-public-members or in books/articles (Stroustrup, Meyers) but I'm still a little bit in the shade. I have some configuration blocks that I read from a file (integers, bools, floats) and I need to place them into a structure for later use. I don't want to expose these externally just use them inside another class (I actually do want to pass these config parameters to another class but don't want to expose them through a public API). The fact is that I have many such config parameters (15 or so) and writing getters and setters seems an unnecessary overhead. Also I have more than one configuration block and these are sharing some of the parameters. Making a struct with all the data members public and then subclassing does not feel right. What's the best way to tackle that situation? Does making a big struct to cover all parameters provide an acceptable compromise (I would have to leave some of these set to their default values for blocks that do not use them)?

    Read the article

  • AngularJS - $routeParams Empty on $locationChangeSuccess

    - by Marc M.
    I configure my app in the following run block. Basically I want to preform an action that requires me to know the $routeParams every $locationChangeSuccess. However $routeParams is empty at this point! Are there any work rounds? What's going on? app.run(['$routeParams', function ($routeParams) { $rootScope.$on("$locationChangeSuccess", function () { console.log($routeParams); }); }]); UPDATE function configureApp(app, user) { app.config(['$routeProvider', function ($routeProvider) { $routeProvider. when('/rentroll', { templateUrl: 'rent-roll/rent-roll.html', controller: 'pwRentRollCtrl' }). when('/bill', { templateUrl: 'bill/bill/bill.html', controller: 'pwBillCtrl' }). when('/fileroom', { templateUrl: 'file-room/file-room/file-room.html', controller: 'pwFileRoomCtrl' }). when('/estate-creator', { templateUrl: 'estate/creator.html' }). when('/estate-manager', { templateUrl: 'estate/manager.html', controller: 'pwEstateManagerCtrl' }). when('/welcomepage', { templateURL: 'welcome-page/welcome-page.html', controller: 'welcomePageCtrl' }). otherwise({ redirectTo: '/welcomepage' }); }]); app.run(['$rootScope', '$routeParams', 'pwCurrentEstate','pwToolbar', function ($rootScope, $routeParams, pwCurrentEstate, pwToolbar) { $rootScope.user = user; $rootScope.$on("$locationChangeSuccess", function () { pwToolbar.reset(); console.log($routeParams); }); }]); } Accessing URL: http://localhost:8080/landlord/#/rentroll?landlord-account-id=ahlwcm9wZXJ0eS1tYW5hZ2VtZW50LXN1aXRlchwLEg9MYW5kbG9yZEFjY291bnQYgICAgICAgAoM&billing-month=2014-06

    Read the article

  • Ruby: counters, counting and incrementing

    - by Shyam
    Hi, If you have seen my previous questions, you'd already know I am a big nuby when it comes to Ruby. So, I discovered this website which is intended for C programming, but I thought whatever one can do in C, must be possible in Ruby (and more readable too). The challenge is to print out a bunch of numbers. I discovered this nifty method .upto() and I used a block (and actually understanding its purpose). However, in IRb, I got some unexpected behavior. class MyCounter def run 1.upto(10) { |x| print x.to_s + " " } end end irb(main):033:0> q = MyCounter.new => #<MyCounter:0x5dca0> irb(main):034:0> q.run 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 => 1 I have no idea where the = 1 comes from :S Should I do this otherwise? I am expecting to have this result: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Thank you for your answers, comments and feedback!

    Read the article

  • How to change CSS style of nested list items?

    - by Yasir
    I have a style for styling <a> elements in list items in a #navigation container. This is working fine. #navigation li a { text-decoration:none; background:#bfe5ff; color:#045e9f; width:125px; height:35px; padding-top:11px; display:block; float:left; margin-left:2px; text-align:center; font-size:18px; font-weight:bold; } Now in some <li>s I am inserting <div>s. In these I am again using a list again, but it should be different in style or have no style. When I put in <li>s, their style matches the outer <li> elements, but it should not. I am trying to use this: #newnavigation li a { font-size:12px; margin-left:20px; } but it's not working - it applies the "outer" styles. This is my markup: <ul id="navigation"> <li><a href="index.html">Home</a></li> <li><a href="about.html">About</a></li> <li><a href="contact.html">Contact</a></li> <li class="browse"> <a href="#">Browse</a> <div id="browsecontainer"> <h3>Browse By Category</h3> <li><a href="#"></a></li> </div> </li> </ul>

    Read the article

  • What happens when we say "listen to a port" ?

    - by smwikipedia
    Hi, When we start a server application, we always need to speicify the port number it listens to. But how is this "listening mechanism" implemented under the hood? My current imagination is like this: The operating system associate the port number with some buffer. The server application's responsibiligy is to monitor this buffer. If there's no data in this buffer, the server application's listen operation will just block the application. When some data arrives from the wire, the operating system will know that check the data and see if it is targed at this port number. And then it will fill the buffer. And then OS will notify the blocked server application and the server application will get the data and continue to run. Question is: If the above scenario is correct, how could the opearting system know there's data arriving from wire? It cannot be a busy pooling. Is it some kind of interrupt-based mechanism? If there's too much data arriving and the buffer is not big enough, will there be data loss? Is the "listen to a port" operation really a blocking operation? Many thanks.

    Read the article

  • Incrementing value by one over a lot of rows

    - by Andy Gee
    Edit: I think the answer to my question lies in the ability to set user defined variables in MySQL through PHP - the answer by Multifarious has pointed me in this direction Currently I have a script to cycle over 10M records, it's very slow and it goes like this: I first get a block of 1000 results in an array similar to this: $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>46732, 'db_id'=>5532); $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>12324, 'db_id'=>1234); $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>45235, 'db_id'=>8345); $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>75543, 'db_id'=>2562); I then cycle through them one by one and update the record $mult = count($matches)*2; foreach($matches as $m) { $rank++; $score = (($m[quality_rank] + $rank)/($mult))*100; $s = "UPDATE `packages_sorted` SET `price_rank` = '".$rank."', `deal_score` = '".$score."' WHERE `db_id` = '".$m[db_id]."' LIMIT 1"; } It seems like this is a very slow way of doing it but I can't find another way to increment the field price_rank by one each time. Can anyone suggest a better method. Note: Although I wouldn't usually store this kind of value in a database I really do need on this occasion for comparison search queries later on in the project. Any help would be kindly appreciated :)

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to do scoped finds based on access control rules in Rails?

    - by Rafael Szuminski
    Hi I need to find an elegant solution to scoped finds based on access control rules. Essentially I have the following setup: Users Customers AccessControl - Defines which user has access to another users data Users need to be able to access not just their own customers but also shared customers of other users. Obviously something like a simple association will not work: has_many :customers and neither will this: has_many :customers, :conditions => 'user_id in (1,2,3,4,5)' because the association uses with_scope and the added condition is an AND condition not an OR condition. I also tried overriding the find and method_missing methods with the association extension like this: has_many :customers do def find(*args) #get the user_id and retrieve access conditions based on the id #do a find based on the access conditions and passed args end def method_missing(*args) #get the user_id and retrieve access conditions based on the id #do a find based on the access conditions and passed args end end but the issue is that I don't have access to the user object / parent object inside the extension methods and it just does not work as planned. I also tried default_scope but as posted here before you can't pass a block to a default scope. Anyhow, I know that data segmentation and data access controls have been done before using rails and am wondering if somebody found an elegant way to do it. UPDATE: The AccessControl table has the following layout user_id shared_user_id The customer table has this structure: id account_id user_id first_name last_name Assuming the the following data would be in the AccessControl table: 1 1 1 3 1 4 2 2 2 13 and so on... And the account_id for user 1 is 13 I need to be able to retrieve customers that can be best described with the following sql statement: select * from customers where (account_id = 13 and user_id = null) or (user_id in (1,3,4))

    Read the article

  • HTML5 Video Element on iPad doesn't fire onclick?

    - by bhups
    I am using the video element in my HTML as following:<div id="container" style="background:black; overflow:hidden;width:320px;height:240px" <video style="background:black;display:block" id="vdo" height="240px" width="320px" src="http://mydomain/vid.mp4"</video</div And in javascript I am doing this:var video=document.getElementById('vdo'); var container=document.getElementById('container'); video.addEventListener('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault(); console.log("clicked"); }, false); container.addEventListener('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault(); console.log("clicked"); }, false); On desktop safari/chrome everything is working fine. I can see two "clicked" in the console. But on ipad there is nothing. First I tried with iOS versin 3.2, then I updated it to the latest one 4.2.1 without any success.I found a similar question HTML5 Video Element on iPad doesn't fire onclick or touchstart events? where it suggests not to use controls in video tag and I am not using it.

    Read the article

  • load different div with different conten and not reload the page?

    - by Lars Holmqvist
    I have the following code to load different div with different content by clicking on a link. My question is how can I write so that not reload the page every time I click on a link. #content > div { display: none; } #content > div:target { display: block; } <a href="#div1">Div one</a> <a href="#div2">Div two</a> <a href="#div3">Div three</a> <a href="#div4">Div four</a> <div id="content"> <div id="div1">This is div one</div> <div id="div2">This is div two</div> <div id="div3">This is div three</div> <div id="div4">This is div four</div> </div>

    Read the article

  • Why does VS2005 skip execution of lines when debugging managed C++ without optimizations?

    - by Sakin
    I ran into a rather odd behavior that I don't even know how to start describing. I wrote a piece of managed C++ code that makes calls to native methods. A (very) simplified version of the code would look like this (I know it looks like a full native function, just assume there is managed stuff being done all over the place): int somefunction(ptrHolder x) { // the accessptr method returns a native pointer if (x.accessptr() != nullptr) // I tried this with nullptr, NULL, 0) { try { x->doSomeNativeVeryImportantStuff(); // or whatever, doesn't matter } catch (SomeCustomExceptionClass &) { return 0; } } SomeOtherNativeClass::doStaticMagic(); return 1; } I compiled this code without optimizations using the /clr flag (VS.NET 2005, SP2) and when running it in the debugger I get to the if statement, since the pointer is actually null, I don't enter the if, but surprisingly, the cursor jumps directly to the return 1 statement, ignoring the doStaticMagic() method completely!!! When looking at the assembly code, I see that it really jumps directly to that line. If I force the debugger to enter the if block, I also jump to the return 1 statement after I press F10. Any ideas why this is happening? Thanks, Ariel

    Read the article

  • using .append to build a complex menu

    - by gneandr
    To build a menu block which should be switchable with hide/unhide of the menu items, I'm using .append html. The code idea is this: navigat += '<h3 class="infoH3"> <a id="' + menuID +'"' + ' href="javascript:slideMenu(\'' + menuSlider + '\');">' + menuName + '</a></h3>'; navigat += '<div id="' + menuSlider + '" style="display:none">'; navigat += ' <ul>'; navigat += ' <li>aMenu1</li>' navigat += ' <li>aMenu2</li>' navigat += ' <li>aMenu3</li>' navigat += ' </ul>'; navigat += '<!-- menuName Slider --></div>'; $("#someElement").append (navigat); This is doing well .. so far. But the point is:: I use JS to read the required menu items (eg. 'aMenu1' together with title and/or link info) from a file to build all that, eg. for 'aMenu1' a complex is composed and $("#someElement").append(someString) is used to add that the 'someElement'. At the moment I build those html elements line by line. Also OK .. as far as the resulting string has the opening and closing tag, eg. "<li>aMenu2</li>". As can be seen from above posted code there is a line "<div id="' + menuSlider + '" style="display:none">". Appending that -- AFAIS -- the .append is automatically (????) adding "</div>" which closes the statement. That breaks my idea of the whole concept! The menu part isn't included in the 'menuSlider '. QQ: How to change it -- NOT to have that "</div" added to it?? Günter

    Read the article

  • How to run an async task afor every x mins in android?

    - by Shan
    how to run the async task at specific time? (I want to run it every 2 mins) I tried using post delayed but it's not working? tvData.postDelayed(new Runnable(){ @Override public void run() { readWebpage(); }}, 100); In the above code readwebpage is function which calls the async task for me.. Right now below is the method which I am using public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { readwebapage(); } public void readWebpage() { DownloadWebPageTask task = new DownloadWebPageTask(); task.execute("http://www.google.com"); } private class DownloadWebPageTask extends AsyncTask<String, Void, String> { @Override protected String doInBackground(String... urls) { String response1 = ""; response1=read(); //read is my another function which does the real work response1=read(); super.onPostExecute(response1); return response1; } protected void onPostExecute(String result) { try { Thread.sleep(100); } catch (InterruptedException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } TextView tvData = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.TextView01); tvData.setText(result); DownloadWebPageTask task = new DownloadWebPageTask(); task.execute(new String[] { "http://www.google.com" }); } } This is what I my code is and it works perfectly fine but the big problem I drains my battery?

    Read the article

  • Display one div if nothing is selected

    - by Levani
    I use this javascript to display different div classes upon selection. I need to display one div class if nothing is selected, for example when page is loaded, and that replace it with one of the divs according to the selection... <script type="text/javascript"><!-- var lastDiv = ""; function showDiv(divName) { // hide last div if (lastDiv) { document.getElementById(lastDiv).className = "hiddenDiv"; } //if value of the box is not nothing and an object with that name exists, then change the class if (divName && document.getElementById(divName)) { document.getElementById(divName).className = "visibleDiv"; lastDiv = divName; } } //--> </script> css: <style type="text/css" media="screen"><!-- .hiddenDiv { display: none; } .visibleDiv { display: block; border: 1px grey solid; } --></style> HTML: <form id="FormName" action="blah.php" method="get" name="FormName"> <select name="selectName" size="1" onChange="showDiv(this.value);"> <option value="">Choose One...</option> <option value="one">first</option> <option value="two">second</option> <option value="three">third</option> </select> </form> <p id="one" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 1.</p> <p id="two" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 2.</p> <p id="three" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 3.</p> Can anyone please help?

    Read the article

  • drawRect gets called on UIView subclass but not on UIViewController

    - by HotFudgeSunday
    My code is working so far but I had to create a Class for the UIView. This is a bit inconvenient because I need to interact with the ViewController too. BTW, I did try [self setNeedsDisplay] on the ViewDidLoad of the UIViewController subclass file but it didn't work. Here's the code, which works on UIView Subclass but doesn't get called on a UIViewController one: - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { UIColor *currentColor = [UIColor redColor]; CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); someNum = 1; CGContextBeginPath(context); CGContextMoveToPoint(context, 30, 40); [self addDotImageX:30 andY:40]; CGContextSetLineWidth(context, 2); CGContextSetStrokeColorWithColor(context, currentColor.CGColor); CGContextStrokePath(context); } Any ideas on what to try? BTW, this is a TabBar App. I know those can somehow block the calls to drawRect. The Tabs where created programatically, not through a Nib. Eg: NSMutableArray *listOfViewControllers = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; UIViewController *vc; vc = [[Education alloc] init]; vc.title = @"Education"; [listOfViewControllers addObject:vc]; vc.tabBarItem.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"info.png"]; [vc release]; I would appreciate any ideas. I've been through the answers on this site related to setNeedsDisplay not calling drawRect and haven't found an answer for my particular case. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • tbody td borders not scrolling with content in tbody overflow:auto;

    - by tester
    I am unable to get the borders of these td's to follow their rows as I scroll through this overflow:auto; . Any ideas on a fix? Note: Setting table-layout:fixed or making rows display:block isn't an option as the rows will lose their fluidity.. You can see the issue in the latest Firefox, so I assume it's messed up elsewhere. Here is a test I setup (scroll to the bottom for the demo): http://www.webdevout.net/test?01y HTML: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html lang="en"> <head> <title>Test</title> </head> <body> <table> <thead><th>One</th><th>Two</th><th>Three</th></thead> <tbody> <tr><td>Item</td><td>Item</td><td>Item</td></tr> <tr><td>Item</td><td>Item</td><td>Item</td></tr> <tr><td>Item</td><td>Item</td><td>Item</td></tr> <tr><td>Item</td><td>Item</td><td>Item</td></tr> </tbody> </table> </body> </html> CSS: table {width:100%;border-collapse:collapse;} tbody {height:200px;overflow:auto;} td {border-bottom:1px solid #f00;}

    Read the article

  • Need help with threads in a client/server

    - by nunos
    For college, I am developing a local relay chat. I have to program a chat server and client that will only work on sending messages on different terminal windows on the same computer with threads and fifos. The fifos part I am having no trouble, the threads part is the one that is giving me some headaches. The server has one thread for receiving commands from a fifo (used by all clients) and another thread for each client that is connected. For each client that is connected I need to know a certain information. Firstly, I was using global variables, which worked as longs as there was only one client connected, which is much of a chat, to chat alone. So, ideally I would have some data like: -nickname -name -email -etc... per client that is connected. However, I don't know how to do that. I could create a client_data[MAX_NUMBER_OF_THREADS] where client_data was a struct with everything I needed to have access to, but this would require to, in every communication between server and client to ask for the id of the client in the array client_data and that does not seem very pratical I could also instantiate a client_data immediately after creating the thread but it would only be available in that block, and that is not very pratical either. As you can see I am in need of a little guidance here. Any comment, piece of code or link to any relevant information is greatly appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • java.awt.Robot.keyPress for continuous keystrokes

    - by Deb
    So, here's my problem. I have a java program which will send keystroke messages to a game (built in Unity), based on how the user interacts with an android phone. (My java program is a listener for the android interaction over wi-fi) Now, in order to do this, I am using java.awt.Robot to send keyPresses to the game window. I have the following code block written in my listener program: if(interacting) { Robot robot = new Robot(); robot.keyPress(VK_A); robot.delay(20); //to simulate the normal keyboard rate } Now the variable interacting will be true as long as the user presses down on the touch screen of the phone, and what I intend to achieve is a continuous chain of keystroke messages being delivered to the game (through the listener). However, this is severely affecting performance, for some reason. I am noticing that the game becomes slow (rapidly dropping frame rates), and even the computer becomes slow, in general. What's going wrong? Should I use a robot.keyRelease(VK_A) after each keyPress? But my game has a different action mapped to the release of a key, and I do not want rapid key presses and releases; what I really want is to simulate continuous keystrokes, in exactly the way it would behave if the user were pressing down the A key on their keyboard manually. Please help.

    Read the article

  • Django, url tag in template doesn't work: NoReverseMatch

    - by Lukasz Jocz
    I've encountered a problem with generating reverse url in templates in django. I'm trying to solve it since a few hours and I have no idea what the problem might be. URL reversing works great in models and views: # like this in models.py @models.permalink def get_absolute_url(self): return ('entry', (), { 'entry_id': self.entry.id, }) # or this in views.py return HttpResponseRedirect(reverse('entry',args=(entry_id,))) but when I'm trying to make it in template I get such an error: NoReverseMatch at /entry/1/ Reverse for ''add_comment'' with arguments '(1L,)' and keyword arguments '{}' not found. My file structure looks like this: project/ +-- frontend ¦   +-- models.py ¦   +-- urls.py ¦   +-- views.py +-- settings.py +-- templates ¦   +-- add_comment.html ¦   +-- entry.html +-- utils ¦   +-- with_template.py +-- wsgi.py My urls.py: from project.frontend.views import * from django.conf.urls import patterns, include, url urlpatterns = patterns('project.frontend.views', url(r'^entry/(?P<entry_id>\d+)/', 'entry', name="entry"), (r'^entry_list/', 'entry_list'), Then entry_list.html: {% extends "base.html" %} {% block content %} {% for entry in entries %} {% url 'entry' entry.id %} {% endfor %} {% endblock %} In views.py I have: @with_template def entry(request, entry_id): entry = Entry.objects.get(id=entry_id) entry.comments = entry.get_comments() return locals() where with_template is following decorator(but I don't think this is a case): class TheWrapper(object): def __init__(self, default_template_name): self.default_template_name = default_template_name def __call__(self, func): def decorated_func(request, *args, **kwargs): extra_context = kwargs.pop('extra_context', {}) dictionary = {} ret = func(request, *args, **kwargs) if isinstance(ret, HttpResponse): return ret dictionary.update(ret) dictionary.update(extra_context) return render_to_response(dictionary.get('template_name', self.default_template_name), context_instance=RequestContext(request), dictionary=dictionary) update_wrapper(decorated_func, func) return decorated_func if not callable(arg): return TheWrapper(arg) else: default_template_name = ''.join([ arg.__name__, '.html']) return TheWrapper(default_template_name)(arg) Do you have any idea, what may cause the problem? Great thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • AFNetworking iOS

    - by Jeromiin
    I have a problem with a request in my app, I want to receive a json but because of the completion block my "PRINT 2" is print before my "PRINT 1" and of course my "PRINT 2" is null. I want the contrary and my "PRINT 2" to be filled but I can't manage to do it. -(void) makeConnection { NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:[@"http://monsite.com/iPhonej/verifPseudo.php?login="stringByAppendingString:[_loginField.text stringByAppendingString:[@"&password=" stringByAppendingString:_passField.text]]]]; NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; AFHTTPRequestOperation *operation = [[AFHTTPRequestOperation alloc] initWithRequest:request]; operation.responseSerializer = [AFJSONResponseSerializer serializer]; [operation setCompletionBlockWithSuccess:^(AFHTTPRequestOperation *operation, id responseObject) { self.response = (NSDictionary *)responseObject; NSLog(@"PRINT 1 : %@", self.response[@"la"][@"reponse"][0][@"rep"]); [_dataLock lock]; } failure:^(AFHTTPRequestOperation *operation, NSError *error) { NSLog(@"Request Failed: %@, %@", error, error.userInfo); }]; [operation start]; } - (IBAction)logIn:(id)sender { [self makeConnection]; NSLog(@"PRINT 2 : %@", self.response[@"la"][@"reponse"][0][@"rep"]); } I know that AFNetworking is asynchronous but is there an other way to do the request and receive my json well ? Thank you

    Read the article

  • Is locking on the requested object a bad idea?

    - by Quick Joe Smith
    Most advice on thread safety involves some variation of the following pattern: public class Thing { private static readonly object padlock = new object(); private string stuff, andNonsense; public string Stuff { get { lock (Thing.padlock) { if (this.stuff == null) this.stuff = "Threadsafe!"; } return this.stuff; } } public string AndNonsense { get { lock (Thing.padlock) { if (this.andNonsense == null) this.andNonsense = "Also threadsafe!"; } return this.andNonsense; } } // Rest of class... } In cases where the get operations are expensive and unrelated, a single locking object is unsuitable because a call to Stuff would block all calls to AndNonsense, degrading performance. And rather than create a lock object for each call, wouldn't it be better to acquire the lock on the member itself (assuming it is not something that implements SyncRoot or somesuch for that purpose? For example: public string Stuff { get { lock (this.stuff) { // Pretend that this is a very expensive operation. if (this.stuff == null) this.stuff = "Still threadsafe and good?"; } return this.stuff; } } Strangely, I have never seen this approach recommended or warned against. Am I missing something obvious?

    Read the article

  • tiemout for a function that waits indefiinitely (like listen())

    - by Fantastic Fourier
    Hello, I'm not quite sure if it's possible to do what I'm about to ask so I thought I'd ask. I have a multi-threaded program where threads share a memory block to communicate necessary information. One of the information is termination of threads where threads constantly check for this value and when the value is changed, they know it's time for pthread_exit(). One of the threads contains listen() function and it seems to wait indefinitely. This can be problematic if there are nobody who wants to make connection and the thread needs to exit but it can't check the value whether thread needs to terminate or not since it's stuck on listen() and can't move beyond. while(1) { listen(); ... if(value == 1) pthread_exit(NULL); } My logic is something like that if it helps illustrate my point better. What I thought would solve the problem is to allow listen() to wait for a duration of time and if nothing happens, it moves on to next statement. Unfortunately, none of two args of listen() involves time limit. I'm not even sure if I'm going about the right way with multi-threaded programming, I'm not much experienced at all. So is this a good approach? Perhaps there is a better way to go about it? Thanks for any insightful comments.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293  | Next Page >