Search Results

Search found 7799 results on 312 pages for 'changing'.

Page 287/312 | < Previous Page | 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293 294  | Next Page >

  • How to move a google doc into a folder using Zend Gdata

    - by Andre
    Hi Guys I am really struggling with moving a document from my root folder to another folder using zend gdata here is how i am trying to do it, but its not working. $service = Zend_Gdata_Docs::AUTH_SERVICE_NAME; $client = Zend_Gdata_ClientLogin::getHttpClient($gUser, $gPass, $service); $link = "https://docs.google.com/feeds/documents/private/full/spreadsheet:0AUFNVEpLOVg2U0E"; // Not real id for privacy purposes $docs = new Zend_GData_Docs($client); // Attach a category object of folder to this entry // I have tried many variations of this including attaching label categories $cat = new Zend_Gdata_App_Extension_Category('My Folder Name','http://schemas.google.com/docs/2007#folder'); $entry = $docs->getDocumentListEntry($link); $entry->setCategory(array($cat)); $return = $docs->updateEntry($entry,$entry->getEditLink()->href); When I run this I get No errors, but nothing seems to change, and the return data does not contain the new category. EDIT: Ok I realised that its not the category but the link that decides which "collection" (folder) a resource belongs too. https://developers.google.com/google-apps/documents-list/#managing_collections_and_their_contents says that each resource has as et of parent links, so I tried changing my code to do set link instead of set category, but this did not work. $folder = "https://docs.google.com/feeds/documents/private/full/folder%3A0wSFA2WHc"; $rel = "http://schemas.google.com/docs/2007#parent"; $linkObj = new Zend_Gdata_App_Extension_Link($folder,$rel,'application/atom+xml', NULL,'Folder Name'); $links = $entry->getLink(); array_push($links,$linkObj); $entry->setLink($links); $return = $docs->updateEntry($entry,$entry->getEditLink()->href); EDIT: SOLVED [nearly] OK Here is how to move/copy, sort of, from one folder to another: simpler than initially thought, but problem is it creates a reference and NOT a move! It now in both places at the same time.... // Folder you wnat to move too $folder = "https://docs.google.com/feeds/folders/private/full/folder%asdsad"; $data = $docs->insertDocument($entry, $folder); // Entry is the entry you want moved using insert automatically assigns link & category for you...

    Read the article

  • Loading external pngs into an AS2 swf that is loaded into an AS3 swf wrapper

    - by James Fassett
    I have a Wrapper SWF that loads a series of AS2 movies. Each AS2 movie loads a series of .png files. AS3_wrapper.swf |-> AS2_1.swf |-> image_1.png |-> image_2.png |-> AS2_2.swf |-> image_1.png |-> image_2.png Inside of the AS2 I listen for the load of the pngs using onLoadInit and update my UI. This works fine for the first AS2 swf. But when I load the second AS2 swf the onLoadInit isn't triggered for the pngs. My guess is that the images are in a cache or something like that. I put a random string on the end of the request to try and avoid the cache but that doesn't seem to work. The code in the as2 looks roughly like this: var flagLoader:MovieClipLoader = new MovieClipLoader(); var listener:Object = new Object(); listener.onLoadInit = Delegate.create(this, handleImageLoad); flagLoader.addListener(listener); var row:MovieClip = frame1["row" + (numLoaded + 1)]; flagLoader.loadClip(predictionData[numLoaded].flag + "?r="+Math.random(), row.flag); I'm making sure to load only one image at a time (I've read anecdotal evidence loading more than one thing at a time can confuse the MovieClipLoader). For the first as2 file everything works great. When I load the second as2 file the handleImageLoad never gets called. Update: Even more perplexing is if I reload the first AS2 movie (after the second AS2 movie fails to load the images) the first AS2 movie loads the images again fine. Update 2: After trying to change from using a MovieClipLoader to polling (as was helpfully suggested) I have found some more evidence that is relevant. When I load the first AS2 files and trace from the top level clip it prints out _root. The second AS2 file when loaded traces the same _root. This lead me to check if they were clashing on names and they are. Both have a child called frame. The first one, when I trace it comes out as _root.frame as expected. The second AS2 file traces _level0.instance3.instance118.instance111.frame. I'm guessing this is related to the problem. Flash is keeping the _root of the two files the same but it is changing the locations of their children (for subsequently loaded files that have children with the same names). So either the onLoad is going to the wrong clip or the events about it loading are.

    Read the article

  • How to customize android analog clock widget through configuration screen

    - by michJ
    I'm trying to develop my own analog clock widget on the home screen. It's based on the stock ICS analog clock widget, but when added to the homescreen, my widget opens a configuration screen first. On this screen you can choose the color you want the clock to be (through a colorpicker dialog). You also see a preview of the clock in the chosen color on this screen. (See picture). My problem is changing the color of the widget on the home screen to the chosen color (when you hit the apply button). I have three .png files that I use for the dial, hour hand and minute hand. I color them using this code in my widgetconfig class: Drawable dial = getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.clockbackground); dial.setColorFilter(color, PorterDuff.Mode.MULTIPLY); //hour Drawable hour = getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.hourhand); hour.setColorFilter(color, PorterDuff.Mode.MULTIPLY); //minute Drawable min = getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.minutehand); min.setColorFilter(color, PorterDuff.Mode.MULTIPLY); // clock AnalogClock clockpreview = (AnalogClock) findViewById(R.id.ACconfig); clockpreview.setBackgroundDrawable(dial); This works fine because I can find the AnalogClock since it's in the layout xml file of the configuration screen, which I set in the OnCreate() through setContentView(). The problem is that for the clock widget on my screen I have to use RemoteViews. So I tried setting the new background of the clock widget through RemoteViews. But RemoteViews seems too limited to do this. I need something like setTextViewText() but then for the background of my analog clock widget, like for example: RemoteViews views = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.clockwidget); views.setAnalogClockBackgroundDrawable(dial); The clock widget background seems sort of unchangeable. How can I recolor my clockwidget on homescreen in widgetconfig class? There must be a way because it seems so easy to do at first... My project consists of the widget config class and clockwidget class, widgetconfig.xml, clockwidget.xml, and widget_info.xml (for appwidgetprovider).

    Read the article

  • UIIMageView, warning: check_safe_call: could not restore current frame

    - by lukya
    Hi, I am changing the image in UIImageView based on accelerometer input. The images are stored in an array. The application runs fine for a while and then crashes. warning: check_safe_call: could not restore current frame I am not using "UIImage ImageNamed" method when populating the array. The total size of all images is around 12 Mb. But individual images are very light (<100 kb) and i am using only one image at a time from the array. Just in case there are any autoreleases, I have allocated a NSAutoreleasePool in view did load and am draining it in the didReceiveMemoryWarning method (which does get called 2, 3 times before the app crashes?). Following is the code that creates images array: //create autorelease pool as we are creating many autoreleased objects NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *finalarr = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:9]; NSLog(@"start loading"); for(int y = 0; y < 100; y+=10) { NSMutableArray *arr = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:10]; for(int x = 0; x < 10; x++) { NSString *imageName = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"0%d",y + x]; UIImage *img = [[UIImage alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:[[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:imageName ofType:@"png"]]; [arr addObject:img]; [imageName release]; [img release]; } [finalarr addObject:arr]; [arr release]; } NSLog(@"done loading"); // Override point for customization after app launch viewController.imagesArray = finalarr; [finalarr release]; //retain the array of images [viewController.imagesArray retain]; //release the aurtorelease pool to free memory taken up by objects enqued for release [pool release]; As the app runs smoothly for a while, which means array creation is definitely not the problem. After this the following method is called from [accelerometer didAccelerate] -(BOOL)setImageForX:(int)x andY:(int)y { [self.imageView setImage:(UIImage*)[(NSArray*)[self.imagesArray objectAtIndex:y] objectAtIndex:x]]; return TRUE; } So the only code being executed is the "UIImageView setImage". But no objects are being created here. Please let me know if the code seems to have any leaks or i am doing something wrong. Thanks, Swapnil

    Read the article

  • .NET WinForms INotifyPropertyChanged updates all bindings when one is changed. Better way?

    - by Dave Welling
    In a windows forms application, a property change that triggers INotifyPropertyChanged, will result in the form reading EVERY property from my bound object, not just the property changed. (See example code below) This seems absurdly wasteful since the interface requires the name of the changing property. It is causing a lot of clocking in my app because some of the property getters require calculations to be performed. I'll likely need to implement some sort of logic in my getters to discard the unnecessary reads if there is no better way to do this. Am I missing something? Is there a better way? Don't say to use a different presentation technology please -- I am doing this on Windows Mobile (although the behavior happens on the full framework as well). Here's some toy code to demonstrate the problem. Clicking the button will result in BOTH textboxes being populated even though one property has changed. using System; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Drawing; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace Example { public class ExView : Form { private Presenter _presenter = new Presenter(); public ExView() { this.MinimizeBox = false; TextBox txt1 = new TextBox(); txt1.Parent = this; txt1.Location = new Point(1, 1); txt1.Width = this.ClientSize.Width - 10; txt1.DataBindings.Add("Text", _presenter, "SomeText1"); TextBox txt2 = new TextBox(); txt2.Parent = this; txt2.Location = new Point(1, 40); txt2.Width = this.ClientSize.Width - 10; txt2.DataBindings.Add("Text", _presenter, "SomeText2"); Button but = new Button(); but.Parent = this; but.Location = new Point(1, 80); but.Click +=new EventHandler(but_Click); } void but_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { _presenter.SomeText1 = "some text 1"; } } public class Presenter : INotifyPropertyChanged { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private string _SomeText1 = string.Empty; public string SomeText1 { get { return _SomeText1; } set { _SomeText1 = value; _SomeText2 = value; // <-- To demonstrate that both properties are read OnPropertyChanged("SomeText1"); } } private string _SomeText2 = string.Empty; public string SomeText2 { get { return _SomeText2; } set { _SomeText2 = value; OnPropertyChanged("SomeText2"); } } private void OnPropertyChanged(string PropertyName) { PropertyChangedEventHandler temp = PropertyChanged; if (temp != null) { temp(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(PropertyName)); } } } }

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET application developed in 32 bit environment not working in 64 bit environment

    - by jgonchik
    We have developed an ASP.NET website on a Windows 7 - 32 bit platform using Visual Studio 2008. This website is being hosted at a hosting company where we share a server with hundreds of other ASP.NET websites. We are in the process of changing our hosting to a dedicated Windows 2008 - 64 bit server. We have installed Visual Studio on this new server in order to debug our application. If we try to start the application on this new server using Visual Studios 2008's own web server (not IIS 7) we get the error below. We have tried to compile the application in both 32 as well as 64 bit mode. We also tried to compile to "Any CPU". But nothing helps. We also tried running Visual Studio as an administrator but without success. We get the following error: Server Error in '/' Application. The specified module could not be found. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007007E) Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.IO.FileNotFoundException: The specified module could not be found. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007007E) Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [FileNotFoundException: The specified module could not be found. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007007E)] System.Reflection.Assembly._nLoad(AssemblyName fileName, String codeBase, Evidence assemblySecurity, Assembly locationHint, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean throwOnFileNotFound, Boolean forIntrospection) +0 System.Reflection.Assembly.nLoad(AssemblyName fileName, String codeBase, Evidence assemblySecurity, Assembly locationHint, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean throwOnFileNotFound, Boolean forIntrospection) +43 System.Reflection.Assembly.InternalLoad(AssemblyName assemblyRef, Evidence assemblySecurity, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean forIntrospection) +127 System.Reflection.Assembly.InternalLoad(String assemblyString, Evidence assemblySecurity, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean forIntrospection) +142 System.Reflection.Assembly.Load(String assemblyString) +28 System.Web.Configuration.CompilationSection.LoadAssemblyHelper(String assemblyName, Boolean starDirective) +46 [ConfigurationErrorsException: The specified module could not be found. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007007E)] System.Web.Configuration.CompilationSection.LoadAssemblyHelper(String assemblyName, Boolean starDirective) +613 System.Web.Configuration.CompilationSection.LoadAllAssembliesFromAppDomainBinDirectory() +203 System.Web.Configuration.CompilationSection.LoadAssembly(AssemblyInfo ai) +105 System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.GetReferencedAssemblies(CompilationSection compConfig) +178 System.Web.Compilation.BuildProvidersCompiler..ctor(VirtualPath configPath, Boolean supportLocalization, String outputAssemblyName) +54 System.Web.Compilation.ApplicationBuildProvider.GetGlobalAsaxBuildResult(Boolean isPrecompiledApp) +232 System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.CompileGlobalAsax() +51 System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.EnsureTopLevelFilesCompiled() +337 [HttpException (0x80004005): The specified module could not be found. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007007E)] System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.ReportTopLevelCompilationException() +58 System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.EnsureTopLevelFilesCompiled() +512 System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.Initialize(ApplicationManager appManager, IApplicationHost appHost, IConfigMapPathFactory configMapPathFactory, HostingEnvironmentParameters hostingParameters) +729 [HttpException (0x80004005): The specified module could not be found. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007007E)] System.Web.HttpRuntime.FirstRequestInit(HttpContext context) +8897659 System.Web.HttpRuntime.EnsureFirstRequestInit(HttpContext context) +85 System.Web.HttpRuntime.ProcessRequestInternal(HttpWorkerRequest wr) +259 Does anyone know why this error appears and how to solve it?

    Read the article

  • Should I deal with files longer than MAX_PATH?

    - by John
    Just had an interesting case. My software reported back a failure caused by a path being longer than MAX_PATH. The path was just a plain old document in My Documents, e.g.: C:\Documents and Settings\Bill\Some Stupid FOlder Name\A really ridiculously long file thats really very very very..........very long.pdf Total length 269 characters (MAX_PATH==260). The user wasn't using a external hard drive or anything like that. This was a file on an Windows managed drive. So my question is this. Should I care? I'm not saying can I deal with the long paths, I'm asking should I. Yes I'm aware of the "\?\" unicode hack on some Win32 APIs, but it seems this hack is not without risk (as it's changing the behaviour of the way the APIs parse paths) and also isn't supported by all APIs . So anyway, let me just state my position/assertions: First presumably the only way the user was able to break this limit is if the app she used uses the special Unicode hack. It's a PDF file, so maybe the PDF tool she used uses this hack. I tried to reproduce this (by using the unicode hack) and experimented. What I found was that although the file appears in Explorer, I can do nothing with it. I can't open it, I can't choose "Properties" (Windows 7). Other common apps can't open the file (e.g. IE, Firefox, Notepad). Explorer will also not let me create files/dirs which are too long - it just refuses. Ditto for command line tool cmd.exe. So basically, one could look at it this way: a rouge tool has allowed the user to create a file which is not accessible by a lot of Windows (e.g. Explorer). I could take the view that I shouldn't have to deal with this. (As an aside, this isn't an vote of approval for a short max path length: I think 260 chars is a joke, I'm just saying that if Windows shell and some APIs can't handle 260 then why should I?). So, is this a fair view? Should I say "Not my problem"? Thanks! John

    Read the article

  • Managing multiple AJAX calls to PHP scripts

    - by relativelycoded
    I have a set of 5 HTML dropdowns that act as filters for narrowing results returned from a mySQL database. The three pertinent filters are for "Province", "Region", and "City" selection, respectively. I have three functions: findSchools(), which runs when any of the filters (marked with CSS class .filter) are changed, and fetches the results via AJAX from a PHP script. Once that is done, two other functions are called... changeRegionOptions(), which, upon changing the "Province" filter, and updates the available options using the same method as the first function, but posting to a different script. changeCityOptions(), which runs if the "Region" filter was changed, and updates options, again using the same method. The problem is that since I want these AJAX functions to run simultaneously, and they by nature run asynchronously, I've tried using $.when to control the execution of the functions, but it doesn't fix the problem. The functions run, but the Region and City filters return blank (no options); the FireBug report shows absolutely no output, even though the POST request went through. The posted parameter for filter_province gets sent normally, but the one for region gets cut off at the end -- it sends as filter_region=, with no value passed. So I'm presuming my logic is wrong somewhere. The code is below: // When any of the filters are changed, let's query the database... $("select.filter").change(function() { findSchools(); }); // First, we see if there are any results... function findSchools() { var sch_province = document.filterform.filter_province.value; var sch_region = document.filterform.filter_region.value; var sch_city = document.filterform.filter_city.value; var sch_cat = document.filterform.filter_category.value; var sch_type = document.filterform.filter_type.value; $.post("fetch_results.php", { filter_province : sch_province, filter_region : sch_region, filter_city : sch_city, filter_category : sch_cat, filter_type : sch_type }, function(data) { $("#results").html(""); $("#results").hide(); $("#results").html(data); $("#results").fadeIn(600); } ); // Once the results are fetched, we want to see if the filter they changed was the one for Province, and if so, update the Region and City options to match that selection... $("#filter_province").change(function() { $.when(findSchools()) .done(changeRegionOptions()); $.when(changeRegionOptions()) .done(changeCityOptions()); }); }; This is just one of the ways I've tried to solve it; I've tried using an IF statement, and tried calling the functions directly inside the general select.filter.change() function (after findSchools(); ), but they all return the same result. Any help with this would be great!

    Read the article

  • Java "compare cannot be resolved to a type" error

    - by King Triumph
    I'm getting a strange error when attempting to use a comparator with a binary search on an array. The error states that "compareArtist cannot be resolved to a type" and is thrown by Eclipse on this code: Comparator<Song> compare = new Song.compareArtist(); I've done some searching and found references to a possible bug with Eclipse, although I have tried the code on a different computer and the error persists. I've also found similar issues regarding the capitalization of the compare method, in this case compareArtist. I've seen examples where the first word in the method name is capitalized, although it was my understanding that method names are traditionally started with a lower case letter. I have experimented with changing the capitalization but nothing has changed. I have also found references to this error if the class doesn't import the correct package. I have imported java.util in both classes in question, which to my knowledge allows the use of the Comparator. I've experimented with writing the compareArtist method within the class that has the binary search call as well as in the "Song" class, which according to my homework assignment is where it should be. I've changed the constructor accordingly and the issue persists. Lastly, I've attempted to override the Comparator compare method by implementing Comparator in the Song class and creating my own method called "compare". This returns the same error. I've only moved to calling the comparator method something different than "compare" after finding several examples that do the same. Here is the relevant code for the class that calls the binary search that uses the comparator. This code also has a local version of the compareArtist method. While it is not being called currently, the code for this method is the same as the in the class Song, where I am trying to call it from. Thanks for any advice and insight. import java.io.*; import java.util.*; public class SearchByArtistPrefix { private Song[] songs; // keep a direct reference to the song array private Song[] searchResults; // holds the results of the search private ArrayList<Song> searchList = new ArrayList<Song>(); // hold results of search while being populated. Converted to searchResults array. public SearchByArtistPrefix(SongCollection sc) { songs = sc.getAllSongs(); } public int compareArtist (Song firstSong, Song secondSong) { return firstSong.getArtist().compareTo(secondSong.getArtist()); } public Song[] search(String artistPrefix) { String artistInput = artistPrefix; int searchLength = artistInput.length(); Song searchSong = new Song(artistInput, "", ""); Comparator<Song> compare = new Song.compareArtist(); int search = Arrays.binarySearch(songs, searchSong, compare);

    Read the article

  • wrong operator() overload called

    - by user313202
    okay, I am writing a matrix class and have overloaded the function call operator twice. The core of the matrix is a 2D double array. I am using the MinGW GCC compiler called from a windows console. the first overload is meant to return a double from the array (for viewing an element). the second overload is meant to return a reference to a location in the array (for changing the data in that location. double operator()(int row, int col) const ; //allows view of element double &operator()(int row, int col); //allows assignment of element I am writing a testing routine and have discovered that the "viewing" overload never gets called. for some reason the compiler "defaults" to calling the overload that returns a reference when the following printf() statement is used. fprintf(outp, "%6.2f\t", testMatD(i,j)); I understand that I'm insulting the gods by writing my own matrix class without using vectors and testing with C I/O functions. I will be punished thoroughly in the afterlife, no need to do it here. Ultimately I'd like to know what is going on here and how to fix it. I'd prefer to use the cleaner looking operator overloads rather than member functions. Any ideas? -Cal the matrix class: irrelevant code omitted class Matrix { public: double getElement(int row, int col)const; //returns the element at row,col //operator overloads double operator()(int row, int col) const ; //allows view of element double &operator()(int row, int col); //allows assignment of element private: //data members double **array; //pointer to data array }; double Matrix::getElement(int row, int col)const{ //transform indices into true coordinates (from sorted coordinates //only row needs to be transformed (user can only sort by row) row = sortedArray[row]; result = array[usrZeroRow+row][usrZeroCol+col]; return result; } //operator overloads double Matrix::operator()(int row, int col) const { //this overload is used when viewing an element return getElement(row,col); } double &Matrix::operator()(int row, int col){ //this overload is used when placing an element return array[row+usrZeroRow][col+usrZeroCol]; } The testing program: irrelevant code omitted int main(void){ FILE *outp; outp = fopen("test_output.txt", "w+"); Matrix testMatD(5,7); //construct 5x7 matrix //some initializations omitted fprintf(outp, "%6.2f\t", testMatD(i,j)); //calls the wrong overload }

    Read the article

  • Proper way to use Linq with WPF

    - by Ingó Vals
    I'm looking for a good guide into the right method of using Linq to Sql together with WPF. Most guides only go into the bare basics like how to show data from a database but noone I found goes into how to save back to the database. Can you answer or point out to me a guide that can answer these questions. I have a separate Data project because the same data will also be used in a web page so I have the repository method. That means I have a seperate class that uses the DataContext and there are methods like GetAllCompanies() and GetCompanyById ( int id ). 1) Where there are collections is it best to return as a IQueryable or should I return a list? Inside the WPF project I have seen reccomendations to wrap the collection in a ObservabgleCollection. 2) Why should I use ObservableCollection and should I use it even with Linq / IQueryable Some properties of the linq entities should be editable in the app so I set them to two-way mode. That would change the object in the observableCollection. 3) Is the object in the ObservableCollection still a instance of the original linq entity and so is the change reflected in the database ( when submitchanges is called ) I should have somekind of save method in the repository. But when should I call it? What happens if someone edits a field but decides not to save it, goes to another object and edits it and then press save. Doesn't the original change also save? When does it not remember the changes to a linq entity object anymore. Should I instance the Datacontext class in each method so it loses scope when done. 4) When and how to call the SubmitChanges method 5) Should I have the DataContext as a member variable of the repository class or a method variable To add a new row I should create a new object in a event ( "new" button push ) and then add it to the database using a repo method. 6) When I add the object to the database there will be no new object in the ObservableCollection. Do I refresh somehow. 7) I wan't to reuse the edit window when creating new but not sure how to dynamically changing from referencing selected item from a listview to this new object. Any examples you can point out.

    Read the article

  • What's the best Scala build system?

    - by gatoatigrado
    I've seen questions about IDE's here -- Which is the best IDE for Scala development? and What is the current state of tooling for Scala?, but I've had mixed experiences with IDEs. Right now, I'm using the Eclipse IDE with the automatic workspace refresh option, and KDE 4's Kate as my text editor. Here are some of the problems I'd like to solve: use my own editor IDEs are really geared at everyone using their components. I like Kate better, but the refresh system is very annoying (it doesn't use inotify, rather, maybe a 10s polling interval). The reason I don't use the built-in text editor is because broken auto-complete functionalities cause the IDE to hang for maybe 10s. rebuild only modified files The Eclipse build system is broken. It doesn't know when to rebuild classes. I find myself almost half of the time going to project-clean. Worse, it seems even after it has finished building my project, a few minutes later it will pop up with some bizarre error (edit - these errors appear to be things that were previously solved with a project clean, but then come back up...). Finally, setting "Preferences / Continue launch if project contains errors" to "prompt" seems to have no effect for Scala projects (i.e. it always launches even if there are errors). build customization I can use the "nightly" release, but I'll want to modify and use my own Scala builds, not the compiler that's built into the IDE's plugin. It would also be nice to pass [e.g.] -Xprint:jvm to the compiler (to print out lowered code). fast compiling Though Eclipse doesn't always build right, it does seem snappy -- even more so than fsc. I looked at Ant and Maven, though haven't employed either yet (I'll also need to spend time solving #3 and #4). I wanted to see if anyone has other suggestions before I spend time getting a suboptimal build system working. Thanks in advance! UPDATE - I'm now using Maven, passing a project as a compiler plugin to it. It seems fast enough; I'm not sure what kind of jar caching Maven does. A current repository for Scala 2.8.0 is available [link]. The archetypes are very cool, and cross-platform support seems very good. However, about compile issues, I'm not sure if fsc is actually fixed, or my project is stable enough (e.g. class names aren't changing) -- running it manually doesn't bother me as much. If you'd like to see an example, feel free to browse the pom.xml files I'm using [github]. UPDATE 2 - from benchmarks I've seen, Daniel Spiewak is right that buildr's faster than Maven (and, if one is doing incremental changes, Maven's 10 second latency gets annoying), so if one can craft a compatible build file, then it's probably worth it...

    Read the article

  • Double Buffering for Game objects, what's a nice clean generic C++ way?

    - by Gary
    This is in C++. So, I'm starting from scratch writing a game engine for fun and learning from the ground up. One of the ideas I want to implement is to have game object state (a struct) be double-buffered. For instance, I can have subsystems updating the new game object data while a render thread is rendering from the old data by guaranteeing there is a consistent state stored within the game object (the data from last time). After rendering of old and updating of new is finished, I can swap buffers and do it again. Question is, what's a good forward-looking and generic OOP way to expose this to my classes while trying to hide implementation details as much as possible? Would like to know your thoughts and considerations. I was thinking operator overloading could be used, but how do I overload assign for a templated class's member within my buffer class? for instance, I think this is an example of what I want: doublebuffer<Vector3> data; data.x=5; //would write to the member x within the new buffer int a=data.x; //would read from the old buffer's x member data.x+=1; //I guess this shouldn't be allowed If this is possible, I could choose to enable or disable double-buffering structs without changing much code. This is what I was considering: template <class T> class doublebuffer{ T T1; T T2; T * current=T1; T * old=T2; public: doublebuffer(); ~doublebuffer(); void swap(); operator=()?... }; and a game object would be like this: struct MyObjectData{ int x; float afloat; } class MyObject: public Node { doublebuffer<MyObjectData> data; functions... } What I have right now is functions that return pointers to the old and new buffer, and I guess any classes that use them have to be aware of this. Is there a better way?

    Read the article

  • multiple definition of inline function

    - by K71993
    Hi, I have gone through some posts related to this topic but was not able to sort out my doubt completly. This might be a very navie question. Code Description I have a header file "inline.h" and two translation unit "main.cpp" and "tran.cpp". Details of code are as below inline.h file details #ifndef __HEADER__ #include <stdio.h> extern inline int func1(void) { return 5; } static inline int func2(void) { return 6; } inline int func3(void) { return 7; } #endif main.c file details are below #define <stdio.h> #include <inline.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { printf("%d\n",func1()); printf("%d\n",func2()); printf("%d\n",func3()); return 0; } tran.cpp file details (Not that the functions are not inline here) #include <stdio.h> int func1(void) { return 500; } int func2(void) { return 600; } int func3(void) { return 700; } Question The above code does not compile in gcc compiler whereas compiles in g++ (Assuming you make changes related to gcc in code like changing the code to .c not using any C++ header files... etc). The error displayed is "duplicate definition of inline function - func3". Can you clarify why this difference is present across compile? When you run the program (g++ compiled) by creating two seperate compilation unit (main.o and tran.o and create an executable a.out), the output obtained is 500 6 700 Why does the compiler pick up the definition of the function which is not inline. Actually since #include is used to "add" the inline definiton I had expected 5,6,7 as the output. My understanding was during compilation since the inline definition is found, the function call would be "replaced" by inline function definition. Can you please tell me in detailed steps the process of compilation and linking which would lead us to 500,6,700 output. I can only understand the output 6. Thanks in advance for valuable input.

    Read the article

  • a question about rails general practice with REST, json, and ajax

    - by Nik
    Hi all, I have this question concerning REST I think: I have read a few rest tutorials and the feeling I get from them is that each action in a restful controller tends to be lean and almost single purpose: "Index gives off a collection of a model show gives off one model edit/new a prep place for changing/create a model update/create changes and makes new model deletes removes one model" After reading all these tutorials, rest seems to be to be a means to create an interface for a model, much like active resource type of thing. the mantra seems to be "controller provides data and data only and is also pretty convention over configuration, so expect projects_path to return a bunch of projects" I can understand that, and I like the cleanliness. But here's when I run into some trouble in reality in applying these guidelines: say three models, Project with attrib title, User with attrib name, and Location with attrib address. Say in views/users/index.html.erb, I want to use Ajax to fetch and display a project in a div#project_display when the user clicks on a project element, I know that I can use views/projects/show.js.rjs like this: page.replace_html 'project_display' "#{@project.name}" where in the projects_controller.rb def show @project = Project.find(params[:id]) repsond_to do |format| format.js and other formats... end end I have no problem in doing that for a couple of years now. BUT doesn't that mean that my JS response for the project#show action is LOCkED to present data to div#project_display element and show only whatever I that rjs template says it should show? That's very limiting and doesn't sound very "interface" like. I have never used JSON before or much XML, so I thought, maybe the JS response should send back raw stuff, like JSON and somehow the page on which the ajax request was called has the instruction on what do to with these raw data. That sounds a lot more flexible, doesn't it? Because look back at that exmpale, what if in the views/locations/index.html.erb, I want to do the exact same thing except I want to put the response in div#project_goes_here and the response should be #{project.name} I know this is a trivial change but that's the point: the RJS only allows one template at a time. So I think the JSON route is the way to go, but how does the already loaded page, the one that the ajax call came from, know when or how to "look forward" to incoming data? I read that PrototypeJS has this template thing, I wouldn't mind using it with JSON, but if you can demonstrate this or other means for displaying received-from-ajax data, I am all attention. Thank You

    Read the article

  • Streaming binary data to WCF rest service gives Bad Request (400) when content length is greater than 64k

    - by Mikey Cee
    I have a WCF service that takes a stream: [ServiceContract] public class UploadService : BaseService { [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(BodyStyle=WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, Method=WebRequestMethods.Http.Post)] public void Upload(Stream data) { // etc. } } This method is to allow my Silverlight application to upload large binary files, the easiest way being to craft the HTTP request by hand from the client. Here is the code in the Silverlight client that does this: const int contentLength = 64 * 1024; // 64 Kb var request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://localhost:8732/UploadService/"); request.AllowWriteStreamBuffering = false; request.Method = WebRequestMethods.Http.Post; request.ContentType = "application/octet-stream"; request.ContentLength = contentLength; using (var outputStream = request.GetRequestStream()) { outputStream.Write(new byte[contentLength], 0, contentLength); outputStream.Flush(); using (var response = request.GetResponse()); } Now, in the case above, where I am streaming 64 kB of data (or less), this works OK and if I set a breakpoint in my WCF method, and I can examine the stream and see 64 kB worth of zeros - yay! The problem arises if I send anything more than 64 kB of data, for instance by changing the first line of my client code to the following: const int contentLength = 64 * 1024 + 1; // 64 kB + 1 B This now throws an exception when I call request.GetResponse(): The remote server returned an error: (400) Bad Request. In my WCF configuration I have set maxReceivedMessageSize, maxBufferSize and maxBufferPoolSize to 2147483647, but to no avail. Here are the relevant sections from my service's app.config: <service name="UploadService"> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" bindingName="StreamedRequestWebBinding" contract="UploadService" behaviorConfiguration="webBehavior"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="http://localhost:8732/UploadService/" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> <bindings> <webHttpBinding> <binding name="StreamedRequestWebBinding" bypassProxyOnLocal="true" useDefaultWebProxy="false" hostNameComparisonMode="WeakWildcard" sendTimeout="00:05:00" openTimeout="00:05:00" receiveTimeout="00:05:00" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxBufferPoolSize="2147483647" transferMode="StreamedRequest"> <readerQuotas maxArrayLength="2147483647" maxStringContentLength="2147483647" /> </binding> </webHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="webBehavior"> <webHttp /> </behavior> <endpointBehaviors> </behaviors> How do I make my service accept more than 64 kB of streamed post data?

    Read the article

  • Flip clock showing time issue (animations invovled)

    - by Hwang
    I'm creating a flip clock (clock where you always see in airport), but I can't seems to get the time to show at the correct timing. After the flip, then will see the number changing. But I want it to change before it flips. Currently I'm not sure whether is the animation problem, or isit I have to do something else on the script. I've uploaded the FLA so that you could have a look on how I set up the flipping animation. http://www.mediafire.com/?nzmymjgtntz Below is the AS3 code: package { import flash.display.MovieClip; import flash.events.TimerEvent; import flash.utils.Timer; public class flipClock extends MovieClip { private var clock:clockMC=new clockMC(); //seconds private var secTop1=clock.second.top1.digit; private var secTop2=clock.second.top2.digit; private var secBot1=clock.second.bot1.digit; private var secBot2=clock.second.bot2.digit; private var seconds:Number; private var minutes:Number; private var hours:Number; private var days:Number; public function flipClock():void { decrease(); addChild(clock); } private function decrease():void { var countdownTimer:Timer=new Timer(1000); //Adding an event listener to the timer object countdownTimer.addEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER,updateTime); //Initializing timer object countdownTimer.start(); } private function updateTime(event:TimerEvent):void { decreasTimerFunction(); updateSecond(); //updateMinute(); } private function updateSecond():void { clock.second.play(); secTop1.text=num2; secTop2.text=num1; if (num1<10) { num1="0"+num1; } if (num2<10) { num2="0"+num2; } if (num1==60) { num1=0; } if (num2==60) { num2=0; } secTop1.text=num1; secTop2.text=num2; //secBot1.text=num1; //secBot2.text=num2; } private function decreasTimerFunction():void { //Create a date object for Christmas Morning var endTime:Date=new Date(2010,4,26,0,0,0,0); //Current date object var now:Date=new Date(); // Set the difference between the two date and times in milliseconds var timeDiff:Number=endTime.getTime()-now.getTime(); seconds=Math.floor(timeDiff/1000); minutes=Math.floor(seconds/60); hours=Math.floor(minutes/60); days=Math.floor(hours/24); // Set the remainder of the division vars above hours%=24; minutes%=60; seconds%=60; } } }

    Read the article

  • Saving image to database as varbinary, arraylength (part 2)

    - by Thomas Schoof
    This is a followup to my previous question, which got solved (thank you for that) but now I am stuck at another error. I'm trying to save an image in my database (called 'Afbeelding'), for that I made a table which excists of: id: int souce: varbinary(max) I then created a wcf service to save an 'Afbeelding' to the database. private static DataClassesDataContext dc = new DataClassesDataContext(); [OperationContract] public void setAfbeelding(Afbeelding a) { //Afbeelding a = new Afbeelding(); //a.id = 1; //a.source = new Binary(bytes); dc.Afbeeldings.InsertOnSubmit(a); dc.SubmitChanges(); } I then put a reference to the service in my project and when I press the button I try to save it to the datbase. private void btnUpload_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { Afbeelding a = new Afbeelding(); OpenFileDialog openFileDialog = new OpenFileDialog(); openFileDialog.Filter = "JPEG files|*.jpg"; if (openFileDialog.ShowDialog() == true) { //string imagePath = openFileDialog.File.Name; //FileStream fileStream = new FileStream(imagePath, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); //byte[] buffer = new byte[fileStream.Length]; //fileStream.Read(buffer, 0, (int)fileStream.Length); //fileStream.Close(); Stream stream = (Stream)openFileDialog.File.OpenRead(); Byte[] bytes = new Byte[stream.Length]; stream.Read(bytes, 0, (int)stream.Length); string fileName = openFileDialog.File.Name; a.id = 1; a.source = new Binary { Bytes = bytes }; } EditAfbeeldingServiceClient client = new EditAfbeeldingServiceClient(); client.setAfbeeldingCompleted +=new EventHandler<System.ComponentModel.AsyncCompletedEventArgs>(client_setAfbeeldingCompleted); client.setAfbeeldingAsync(a); } void client_setAfbeeldingCompleted(object sender, System.ComponentModel.AsyncCompletedEventArgs e) { if (e.Error != null) txtEmail.Text = e.Error.ToString(); else MessageBox.Show("WIN"); } However, when I do this, I get the following error: System.ServiceModel.FaultException: The formatter threw an exception while trying to deserialize the message: There was an error while trying to deserialize parameter :a. The InnerException message was 'There was an error deserializing the object of type OndernemersAward.Web.Afbeelding. The maximum array length quota (16384) has been exceeded while reading XML data. This quota may be increased by changing the MaxArrayLength property on the XmlDictionaryReaderQuotas object used when creating the XML reader.'. Please see InnerException for more details. at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.HandleReply(ProxyOperationRuntime operation, ProxyRpc& rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.EndCall(String action, Object[] outs, IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.ClientBase`1.ChannelBase`1.EndInvoke(String methodName, Object[] args, IAsyncResult result) atOndernemersAward.EditAfbeeldingServiceReference.EditAfbeeldingServiceClient.EditAfbeeldingServiceClientChannel.EndsetAfbeelding(IAsyncResult result) at OndernemersAward.EditAfbeeldingServiceReference.EditAfbeeldingServiceClient.OndernemersAward.EditAfbeeldingServiceReference.EditAfbeeldingService.EndsetAfbeelding(IAsyncResult result) at OndernemersAward.EditAfbeeldingServiceReference.EditAfbeeldingServiceClient.OnEndsetAfbeelding(IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.ClientBase`1.OnAsyncCallCompleted(IAsyncResult result) I'm not sure what's causing this but I think it has something to do with the way I write the image to the database? (The array length is too big big, I don't really know how to change it) Thank you for your help, Thomas

    Read the article

  • How to know when a user has really released a key in Java?

    - by Luis Soeiro
    (Edited for clarity) I want to detect when a user presses and releases a key in Java Swing, ignoring the keyboard auto repeat feature. I also would like a pure Java approach the works on Linux, Mac OS and Windows. Requirements: When the user presses some key I want to know what key is that; When the user releases some key, I want to know what key is that; I want to ignore the system auto repeat options: I want to receive just one keypress event for each key press and just one key release event for each key release; If possible, I would use items 1 to 3 to know if the user is holding more than one key at a time (i.e, she hits 'a' and without releasing it, she hits "Enter"). The problem I'm facing in Java is that under Linux, when the user holds some key, there are many keyPress and keyRelease events being fired (because of the keyboard repeat feature). I've tried some approaches with no success: Get the last time a key event occurred - in Linux, they seem to be zero for key repeat, however, in Mac OS they are not; Consider an event only if the current keyCode is different from the last one - this way the user can't hit twice the same key in a row; Here is the basic (non working) part of code: import java.awt.event.KeyListener; public class Example implements KeyListener { public void keyTyped(KeyEvent e) { } public void keyPressed(KeyEvent e) { System.out.println("KeyPressed: "+e.getKeyCode()+", ts="+e.getWhen()); } public void keyReleased(KeyEvent e) { System.out.println("KeyReleased: "+e.getKeyCode()+", ts="+e.getWhen()); } } When a user holds a key (i.e, 'p') the system shows: KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271673 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271923 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271923 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271956 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271956 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271990 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271990 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637272023 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637272023 ... At least under Linux, the JVM keeps resending all the key events when a key is being hold. To make things more difficult, on my system (Kubuntu 9.04 Core 2 Duo) the timestamps keep changing. The JVM sends a key new release and new key press with the same timestamp. This makes it hard to know when a key is really released. Any ideas? Thanks

    Read the article

  • ColdFusion's cfquery failing silently

    - by johnthexiii
    I have a query that retrieves a large amount of data. <cfsetting requesttimeout="9999999" > <cfquery name="randomething" datasource="ds" timeout="9999999" > SELECT col1, col2 FROM table </cfquery> <cfdump var="#randomething.recordCount#" /> <!---should be about 5 million rows ---> I can successfully retrieve the data with python's cx_Oracle and using sys.getsizeof on the python list returns 22621060, so about 21 megabytes. ColdFusion does not return an error on the page, and I can't find anything in any of the logs. Why is cfdump not showing the number of rows? Additional Information The reason for doing it this way is because I have about 8000 smaller queries to run against the randomthing query. In other words when I run those 8000 queries against the database it takes hours for that process to complete. I suspect this is because I am competing with several other database users, and the database is getting bogged down. The 8000 smaller queries are getting counts of col1 over a period of col2. SELECT count(col1) as count WHERE col2 < 20121109 AND col2 > 20121108 According to Adam Cameron's suggestions. cflog is suggesting that the query isn't finishing. I tried changing the queries timeout both in the code and in the CFIDE/administrator, apparently CF9 no long respects the timeout attribute, regardless of what I tried I couldn't get the query to timeout. I also started playing around with the maxrows attribute to see if I could discern any information that way. when maxrows is set to 1300000 everything works fine when maxrows is 1400000 or greater I get this error when maxrows is 2000000 I observe my original problem Update So this isn't a limit of cfquery. By using QueryNew then looping over it to add data and I can get well past the 2 million mark without any problems. I also created a ThinClient datasource using the information in this question, I didn't observe any change in behavior. The messages on the database end are SQL*Net message from client and SQL*Net more data to client I just discovered that by using the thin client along with blockfactor1="100" I can retrieve more rows (appx. 3000000).

    Read the article

  • Scrolling RelativeLayout- white border over part of the content

    - by Tanis.7x
    I have a fairly simply Fragment that adds a handful of colored ImageViews to a RelativeLayout. There are more images than can fit on screen, so I implemented some custom scrolling. However, When I scroll around, I see that there is an approximately 90dp white border overlapping part of the content right where the edges of the screen are before I scroll. It is obvious that the ImageViews are still being created and drawn properly, but they are being covered up. How do I get rid of this? I have tried: Changing both the RelativeLayout and FrameLayout to WRAP_CONTENT, FILL_PARENT, MATCH_PARENT, and a few combinations of those. Setting the padding and margins of both layouts to 0dp. Example: Fragment: public class MyFrag extends Fragment implements OnTouchListener { int currentX; int currentY; RelativeLayout container; final int[] colors = {Color.BLACK, Color.RED, Color.BLUE}; @Override public View onCreateView(LayoutInflater inflater, ViewGroup fragContainer, Bundle savedInstanceState) { return inflater.inflate(R.layout.fragment_myfrag, null); } @Override public void onActivityCreated(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onActivityCreated(savedInstanceState); container = (RelativeLayout) getView().findViewById(R.id.container); container.setOnTouchListener(this); // Temp- Add a bunch of images to test scrolling for(int i=0; i<1500; i+=100) { for (int j=0; j<1500; j+=100) { int color = colors[(i+j)%3]; ImageView image = new ImageView(getActivity()); image.setScaleType(ImageView.ScaleType.CENTER); image.setBackgroundColor(color); LayoutParams lp = new RelativeLayout.LayoutParams(100, 100); lp.setMargins(i, j, 0, 0); image.setLayoutParams(lp); container.addView(image); } } } @Override public boolean onTouch(View v, MotionEvent event) { switch (event.getAction()) { case MotionEvent.ACTION_DOWN: { currentX = (int) event.getRawX(); currentY = (int) event.getRawY(); break; } case MotionEvent.ACTION_MOVE: { int x2 = (int) event.getRawX(); int y2 = (int) event.getRawY(); container.scrollBy(currentX - x2 , currentY - y2); currentX = x2; currentY = y2; break; } case MotionEvent.ACTION_UP: { break; } } return true; } } XML: <FrameLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:tools="http://schemas.android.com/tools" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" tools:context=".FloorPlanFrag"> <RelativeLayout android:id="@+id/container" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" /> </FrameLayout>

    Read the article

  • Selecting one row when working with typed datasets.

    - by Wodzu
    I have a typed dataset in my project. I would like to populate a datatable with only one row instead of all rows. The selected row must be based on the primary key column. I know I could modify the designer code to achive this functionality however if I change the code in the designer I risk that this code will be deleted when I update my datased via designer in the future. So I wanted to alter the SelectCommand not in the designer but just before firing up MyTypedTableAdapter.Fill method. The strange thing is that the designer does not create a SelectCommand! It creates all other commands but not this one. If it would create SelectCommand I could alter it in this way: this.operatorzyTableAdapter.Adapter.SelectCommand.CommandText += " WHERE MyColumn = 1"; It is far from perfection but atleast I would not have to modify the designer's work. unfortunately as I said earlier the SelectCommand is not created. Instead designer creates something like this: [global::System.Diagnostics.DebuggerNonUserCodeAttribute()] private void InitCommandCollection() { this._commandCollection = new global::System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand[1]; this._commandCollection[0] = new global::System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand(); this._commandCollection[0].Connection = this.Connection; this._commandCollection[0].CommandText = "SELECT Ope_OpeID, Ope_Kod, Ope_Haslo, Ope_Imie, Ope_Nazwisko FROM dbo.Operatorzy"; this._commandCollection[0].CommandType = global::System.Data.CommandType.Text; } It doesn't make sense in my opinion. Why to create UpdateCommand, InsertCommand and DeleteCommand but do not create SelectCommand? I could bear with this but this._commandCollection is private so I cannot acces it outside of the class code. I don't know how to get into this collection without changing the designer's code. The idea which I have is to expose the collection via partial class definition. However I want to introduce many typed datasets and I really don't want to create partial class definition for each of them. Please note that I am using .NET 3.5. I've found this article about accessing private properties but it concerns .NET 4.0 Thanks for your time.

    Read the article

  • Sitecore E-Commerce Module - Discount/Promotional Codes

    - by Zachary Kniebel
    I am working on a project for which I must use Sitecore's E-Commerce Module (and Sitecore 6.5 rev. 120706 - aka 'Update 5') to create a web-store. One of the features that I am trying to implement is a generic promotional/discount code system - customer enters a code at checkout which grants a discount like 'free shipping', '20% off', etc. At the moment, I am looking for some guidance (a high-level solution, a few pseudo-ideas, some references to review, etc) as to how this can be accomplished. Summary: What I am looking for is a way to detect whether or not the user entered a promo code at a previous stage in the checkout line, and to determine what that promo code is, if they did. Progress Thus Far: I have thoroughly reviewed all of the Sitecore E-Commerce Services (SES) documentation, especially "SES Order Line Extension" documentation (which I believe will have to be modified/extended in order to accomplish this task). Additionally, I have thoroughly reviewed the Sitecore Community article Extending Sitecore E-Commerce - Pricing and believe that it may be a useful guide for applying a discount statically, but does not say much in the way of applying a discount dynamically. After reviewing these documents, I have come up with the following possible high-level solution to start from: I create a template to represent a promotional code, which holds all data relevant to the promotion (percent off, free shipping, code, etc). I then create another template (based on the Product Search Group template) that holds a link to an item within a global "Promotional Code" items folder. Next, I use the Product Search Group features of my new template to choose which products to apply the discount to. In the source code for the checkout I create a class that checks if a code has been entered and, if so, somehow carry it through the rest of the checkout process. This is where I get stuck. More Details: No using cookies No GET requests No changing/creating/deleting items in the Sitecore Database during the checkout process (e.g., no manipulation of fields of a discount item during checkout to signal that the discount has been applied) must stay within the scope of C# Last Notes: I will update this post with any more information that I find/progress that I make. I upgrade all answers that are relevant and detailed, thought-provoking, or otherwise useful to me and potentially useful to others, in addition to any high-level answers that serve as a feasible solution to this problem; even if your idea doesn't help me, if I think it will help someone else I will still upgrade it. Thanks, in advance, for all your help! :)

    Read the article

  • Why is the W3C box model considered better?

    - by Mel
    Why do most developers consider the W3C box-model to be better than the box-model used by Internet Explorer? I know it's very frustrating developing pages that look the way you want them on Internet Explorer, but I find the W3C box-model to be counter-intuitive. For example, if margins, padding, and border were factored into the width, I could assign fixed width values for all my columns without having to worry about how many columns I have and what changes I make to my padding and margins. Under W3C box model I have to worry about how many columns I have, and develop something akin to a mathematical formula to calculate my values. Changing them would nightmarish, especially for complex layouts. My novice opinion is that it's more restrictive. Consider this small frame-work I wrote: #content { margin:0 auto 30px auto; padding:0 30px 30px 30px; width:900px; } #content .column { float:left; margin:0 20px 20px 20px; } #content .first { margin-left:0; } #content .last { margin-right:0; } .width_1-4 { width:195px; } .width_1-3 { width:273px; } .width_1-2 { width:430px; } .width_3-4 { width:645px; } .width_1-1 { width:900px; } These values I have assigned here will falter unless there are three columns, and thus the margins at 0(first)+20+20+20+20+0(last). It would be a disaster if I wanted to add padding to my columns too, as my entire setup would have to be re calibrated. Now imagine if column width incorporated all the other elements, all I would need to do is change one associated value, and I have my layout. I'm less criticizing it and more hoping to understand why it's better, or why I'm finding it more difficult. Am I doing this whole thing wrong? I don't know very much about this topic, but it seems counter intuitive to use W3C's box-model. Some advice would be really appreciated. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Want to set 'src' of script to my IP-Won't load in Safari or Chrome. Relative link asp.netmvc

    - by Ozaki
    I have a script that links to the server I am hosting (IP can change) usually I would just use for links: var url ='http://' + window.location.hostname + 'end of url'; But in this case it isnt appearing to be so easy. I have tried: (1) $('#scriptid').attr('src', url); as well as: (2) var script = document.createElement( 'script' ); script.type = 'text/javascript'; script.src = url; $("#insert").append( script ); Now case (2) works loads the script runs the script. But when at the end of my script it hits the 'write data' it decides to replace the entire page with just the data. Any idea on how I can do this? Note: I am using plain html not ASP. With ASP backend that is just the way it has to be. Ok it now is <script src="myscript.js"></script> C# router.AddAsyncRoute("myscript.js"...... It workes in IE & FF. But I get blank pages in Chrome & Safari. I am using document.write to write a script onto my page. Any ideas why Chrome & Safari don't like this? I am so far assuming that in Crhome & Safari it takes longer to run the script therefore launching the document.write after the DOM has loaded therefore replacing the page with a blank one. edit the script im trying to run is a modification of: d = new dTree('d'); d.add(0,-1,'My example tree'); d.add(1,0,'Node 1','default.html'); d.add(2,0,'Node 2','default.html'); d.add(3,1,'Node 1.1','default.html'); d.add(4,0,'Node 3','default.html'); d.add(5,3,'Node 1.1.1','default.html') document.write(d); Any ideas how I can get around this? I am not to sure how to implement an appenChild in this case as the script is changing constantly with live data. So every refresh it will generally have changed some...

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293 294  | Next Page >