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• How to pass common arguments to Perl modules

  - by Leonard

  I'm not thrilled with the argument-passing architecture I'm evolving for the (many) Perl scripts that have been developed for some scripts that call various Hadoop MapReduce jobs. There are currently 8 scripts (of the form run_something.pl) that are run from cron. (And more on the way ... we expect anywhere from 1 to 3 more for every function we add to hadoop.) Each of these have about 6 identical command-line parameters, and a couple command line parameters that are similar, all specified with Euclid. The implementations are in a dozen .pm modules. Some of which are common, and others of which are unique.... Currently I'm passing the args globally to each module ... Inside run_something.pl I have: set_common_args (%ARGV); set_something_args (%ARGV); And inside Something.pm I have sub set_something_args { (%MYARGS) =@_; } So then I can do if ( $MYARGS{'--needs_more_beer'} ) { $beer++; } I'm seeing that I'm probably going to have additional "common" files that I'll want to pass args to, so I'll have three or four set_xxx_args calls at the top of each run_something.pl, and it just doesn't seem too elegant. On the other hand, it beats passing the whole stupid argument array down the call chain, and choosing and passing individual elements down the call chain is (a) too much work (b) error-prone (c) doesn't buy much. In lots of ways what I'm doing is just object-oriented design without the object-oriented language trappings, and it looks uglier without said trappings, but nonetheless ... Anyone have thoughts or ideas?

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• Reading XML or objects from a Web service

  - by Shawn

  This is my first time working with webservices and I am a bit lost. I successfully called the functions, but I only can get one value from the service. I read that the easiest way is to read xml or create objects and then call their values. Currently I use functions that return the desired value but I need to call them 3 times to get all the data witch is a waste of time and resources. I tried to call the service with the URL and use it as a website or getting the service to work the same way without importing into the program. The thing is that i cant find a way to pass the values into the url, because of that i get only blank pages. What is the fastest way to get my data from the services? I need city name, temperature and a flag if the city is valid. I need to pass the zip code to the service. Thank you. My current code wetther.Weather wether = new wetther.Weather(); string farenhait = wether.GetCityWeatherByZIP(zip).Temperature; string city = wether.GetCityWeatherByZIP(zip).City; bool correct = wether.GetCityWeatherByZIP(zip).Success; I tried it that way // Retrieve XML document XmlTextReader reader = new XmlTextReader("http://xml.weather.yahoo.com/forecastrss?p=94704"); // Skip non-significant whitespace reader.WhitespaceHandling = WhitespaceHandling.Significant; // Read nodes one at a time while (reader.Read()) { // Print out info on node Console.WriteLine("{0}: {1}", reader.NodeType.ToString(), reader.Name); } This one works for the yahoo page but not for mine. I need to use this webservice - http://wsf.cdyne.com/WeatherWS/Weather.asmx

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• Server side aggregation using Spring MVC Controllers

  - by Venu

  Hi! We have a web site with multiple pages each with lot of AJAX calls. All the Ajax calls go to a data proxy layer written in Spring 3 MVC application. In order to reduce the load on the server we are planning to aggregate calls on the client and send to the proxy layer. For ex: we have two calls /controller1/action1 and /controller2/action2 in different controllers. I want to write an aggregate controller and call it from the client instead of making two calls to the individual controllers. Something like /aggregatecontroller/aggregate (and we will post the information regarding which calls are being aggregated and required parameters). Is there any way we can call another controller/action from a controller/action and get output? The flow will be something like this: a. Call /aggregatecontroller/aggregate with info regd call1 and call2 b. aggregate action understands that it needs to aggregate call1 and call2 c. it calls /controller1/action1 and gets the response d. it calls /controller2/action2 and gets the response e. it merges both in a json response and sends it back to browser. Please let me know if you have any suggestion regd how to do this or if you think there is a better approach to do the server side aggregation. Thanks for your time.

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• Uncommitted reads in SSIS

  - by OldBoy

  I'm trying to debug some legacy Integration Services code, and really want some confirmation on what I think the problem is: We have a very large data task inside a control flow container. This control flow container is set up with TransactionOption = supported - i.e. it will 'inherit' transactions from parent containers, but none are set up here. Inside the data flow there is a call to a stored proc that writes to a table with pseudo code something like: "If a record doesn't exist that matches these parameters then write it" Now, the issue is that there are three records being passed into this proc all with the same parameters, so logically the first record doesn't find a match and a record is created. The second record (with the same parameters) also doesn't find a match and another record is created. My understanding is that the first 'record' passed to the proc in the dataflow is uncommitted and therefore can't be 'read' by the second call. The upshot being that all three records create a row, when logically only the first should. In this scenario am I right in thinking that it is the uncommitted transaction that stops the second call from seeing the first? Even setting the isolation level on the container doesn't help because it's not being wrapped in a transaction anyway.... Hope that makes sense, and any advice gratefully received. Work-arounds confer god-like status on you.

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• Request header field x-user-session is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Headers

  - by Saurabh Bhandari

  I am trying to do a CORS call to a WCF service endpoint hosted on IIS7.5. I have configured custom headers in IIS. My configuration looks like below <customHeaders> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Methods" value="GET,PUT,POST,DELETE,OPTIONS" /> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Headers" value="x-user-session,origin, content-type, accept" /> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Credentials" value="true" /> </customHeaders> When I do a POST request I get following error message "Request header field x-user-session is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Headers" If I remove my custom header from the call and run it, everything works fine. Also if I do a GET call with custom header then also API works correctly. $.ajax({ type:"POST", success: function(d) { console.log(d) }, timeout: 9000, url: "http://api.myserver.com/Services/v2/CreditCard.svc/update_cc_detail", data: JSON.stringify({"card_id": 1234,"expire_month":"11","expire_year":"2020","full_name":"Demo Account", "number":"4111111111111111","is_primary":true}), xhrFields: { withCredentials: true}, headers: { x-user-session': "B23680D0B8CB5AFED9F624271F1DFAE5052085755AEDDEFDA3834EF16115BCDDC6319BD79FDCCB1E199BB6CC4D0C6FBC9F30242A723BA9C0DFB8BCA3F31F4C7302B1A37EE0A20C42E8AFD45FAB85282FCB62C0B4EC62329BD8573FEBAEBC6E8269FFBF57C7D57E6EF880E396F266E7AD841797792619AD3F1C27A5AE" }, crossDomain: true, contentType: 'application/json' });

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• Can I use drawRect to refresh a UIView subclass?

  - by Timbo

  I've created a subclass of UIView called Status which is designed to display a rectangle of a certain size (within a view) depending on the value of a variable. // Interface #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import <QuartzCore/QuartzCore.h> @interface Status: UIView { NSString* name; int someVariable; } @property int someVariable; @property (assign) NSString *name; - (void) createStatus: (NSString*)withName; - (void) drawRect:(CGRect)rect; @end // Implementation #import "Status.h" @implementation Status @synthesize name, someVariable; - (void) createStatus: (NSString*)withName { name = withName; someVariable = 10000; } - (void) drawRect:(CGRect)rect { CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); //Draw Status CGContextSetRGBFillColor(context, 0.0, 0.0, 1.0, 1); // fill CGContextFillRect(context, CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, someVariable, 40.0)); } //// myviewcontroller implementation - (void) viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; myStatus = [[Status alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(8,8,200,56)]; myStatus.backgroundColor = [UIColor grayColor]; [self.view addSubview:myStatus]; } How do I set this up so I can repeatedly call a refresh of the status bar? I'll probably call the refresh 4 times per second using a NSTimer, I'm just not sure what to call or if I should move this rectangle drawing to a separate function or something... Thanks in advance for your help :)

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• Outstanding issues with jQuery.ajax() in IE8?

  - by RyanV

  I am loading feed-items into a ul using this jQuery .ajax() call, which I basically lifted from http://www.makemineatriple.com/2007/10/bbcnewsticker/ var timestamp = true; //set whether timestamp is displayed in $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "sample-feed.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { $(xml).find('item').each(function(){ var title = $(this).find('title').text(); var link = $(this).find('link').text(); if(title.length >=57){ title = title.substring(0,54) + "..."; } var addItem = '<li class="tickerTitle"><a href="'+link+'">'+title+'</a>'; if (Boolean(timestamp)== true){ var time = new Date(Date.parse($(this).find('pubDate').text())); addItem +='<span class="timestamp">' + makestamp(time) +'</span></li>'; } $('ul#news').append(addItem); }); It works in Chrome 4 and Firefox 3.6, but I load it up in IE8 and somehow the ajax call fails. I have tried to use IE8's Developer tools to see where exactly it fails, but I haven't been successful yet. So two questions Is there anything blatantly wrong with my ajax call here that could be preventing me from seeing it in IE where it works in FF/Chrome? Are there any special considerations I have to make for the Internet Explorer family of browsers with regards to this particular jQuery method? I've done some googling on this but nothing obvious is coming up. One other note: I am currently using jQuery 1.3.2 due to some legacy scripts on the same site. I did try loading 1.4.2 and it had the same results on IE8

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• No operations allowed after statement closed issue

  - by Washu

  I have the next methods in my singleton to execute the JDBC connections public void openDB() throws ClassNotFoundException, IllegalAccessException, InstantiationException, SQLException { Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); String url = "jdbc:mysql://localhost/mbpe_peru";//mydb conn = DriverManager.getConnection(url, "root", "admin"); st = conn.createStatement(); } public void sendQuery(String query) throws SQLException { st.executeUpdate(query); } public void closeDB() throws SQLException { st.close(); conn.close(); } And I'm having a problem in a void where i have to call this twice. private void jButton1ActionPerformed(ActionEvent evt) { Main.getInstance().openDB(); Main.getInstance().sendQuery("call insertEntry('"+EntryID()+"','"+SupplierID()+"');"); Main.getInstance().closeDB(); Main.getInstance().openDB(); for(int i=0;i<dataBox.length;i++){ Main.getInstance().sendQuery("call insertCount('"+EntryID()+"','"+SupplierID()+"','"+BoxID()+"'); Main.getInstance().closeDB(); } } I have already tried to keep the connection open and send the 2 querys and after that closed and it didnt work... The only way it worked was to not use the methods, declare the commands for the connection and use different variables for the connection and the statement. I thought that if i close the Connecion and the Statement I could use the variable once again since is a method but I'm not able to. Is there any way to solve this using my methods for the JDBC connection?

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• C++ design related question

  - by Kotti

  Hi! Here is the question's plot: suppose I have some abstract classes for objects, let's call it Object. It's definition would include 2D position and dimensions. Let it also have some virtual void Render(Backend& backend) const = 0 method used for rendering. Now I specialize my inheritance tree and add Rectangle and Ellipse class. Guess they won't have their own properties, but they will have their own virtual void Render method. Let's say I implemented these methods, so that Render for Rectangle actually draws some rectangle, and the same for ellipse. Now, I add some object called Plane, which is defined as class Plane : public Rectangle and has a private member of std::vector<Object*> plane_objects; Right after that I add a method to add some object to my plane. And here comes the question. If I design this method as void AddObject(Object& object) I would face trouble like I won't be able to call virtual functions, because I would have to do something like plane_objects.push_back(new Object(object)); and this should be push_back(new Rectangle(object)) for rectangles and new Circle(...) for circles. If I implement this method as void AddObject(Object* object), it looks good, but then somewhere else this means making call like plane.AddObject(new Rectangle(params)); and this is generally a mess because then it's not clear which part of my program should free the allocated memory. ["when destroying the plane? why? are we sure that calls to AddObject were only done as AddObject(new something).] I guess the problems caused by using the second approach could be solved using smart pointers, but I am sure there have to be something better. Any ideas?

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• Setting WCF service for multiple client calls

  - by user348255

  Hi all, I have made a WCF service which is defined like this: [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Multiple)] binding is done using netTcpBinding. We support 50+ clients that call the server from time to time. Each client opens a channel using channelfactory once it is loaded and uses that channel for all calls (creates the channel and proxy only once). we have built a small load tester that imitates the client by calling the server by 50 different threads at once (using 50 different channels). when we run this tester, after the 10th client tries to connect, all other client fail connecting. We have set throttling to 100. My questions are: 1. is it correct for each client to create a channel and use it through the client life time? or, do i need to use a using statement for each call to the server (create and distroy a new channel for each call). 2. does the service have a limit of channel connections to it? other then throttling? thanks alot, Guy.

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• What's the correct way to pass parameters from VBScript to COM interface implemented in C#?

  - by nopopem

  I'm trying to expose a fairly simple C# class to COM which should be usable from VBScript (among others). Some objects need to be created via COM calls and will be used in furter calls later on. The definition of the exposed classes and interfaces looks like this: namespace Test { [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IComInterface { IFoo CreateFoo(); void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public sealed class CComInterface : IComInterface { public CComInterface() {} public IFoo CreateFoo() { return new Foo(); } public void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f) { f.Bar(); } } [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IFoo { void Bar(); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public class Foo : IFoo { internal Foo() {} public void Bar() {} } } The simplest thinkable COM client in VBScript does this: Dim ci Set ci = WScript.CreateObject("Test.CComInterface") Dim foo Set foo = ci.CreateFoo foo.Bar ci.UseFoo 0, foo While the call to Bar succeeds, calling UseFoo fails with "Error 5: invalid procedure call or invalid argument" The generated IDL seems ok to me: dispinterface IComInterface { properties: methods: [id(0x60020003)] IFoo* CreateFoo(); [id(0x60020004)] void UseFoo( [in] long x, [in] IFoo* f); }; The vbs call succeeds when I wrap the second parameter in parentheses like this: ci.UseFoo 0, (foo) As far as I understand (I'm no VBScript expert however) this forces the reference to foo to be passed by value, i.e. a copy of the reference is being made. How can I change the interface so that it can be called with the foo reference directly? Since this will be a public interface used by customers I don't like the idea of having to explain why all the objects created need to be passed back in an extra pair of parentheses...

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• Asp.Net 2 integrated sites How to Logout second site programatically.

  - by NBrowne

  Hi , I am working with an asp.net 2.0 site (call it site 1) which has an iframe in it which loads up another site (site2) which is also an asp.net site which is developed by our team. When you log onto site 1 then behind the scenes site 2 is also logged in so that when you click the iframe tab then this displays site 2 with the user logged in (to prevent the user from having to log in twice). The problem i have is that when a user logs out of site 1 then we call some cleanup methods to perform FormsAuthentication.SignOut and clean session variables etc but at the moment no cleanup is called when the user on site 2. So the issue is that if the user opens up Site 2 from within a browser then website 2 opens with the user still logged in which is undesired. Can anyone give me some guidance as to the best approach for this?? One possible approach i though of was just that on click of logout button i could do a call to a custom page on Site 2 which would do the logout. Code below HttpWebRequest request; request = ((HttpWebRequest)(WebRequest.Create("www.mywebsite.com/Site2Logout.aspx"))); request.Method = "POST"; HttpCookie cookie = HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName]; Cookie authenticationCookie = new Cookie( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, cookie.Value, cookie.Path, HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority); request .CookieContainer = new CookieContainer(); request .CookieContainer.Add(authenticationCookie); response.GetResponse(); Problem i am having with this code is that when i run it and debug on Site 2 and check to see if the user is Authenticated they are not which i dont understand because if i open browser and browse to Site 2 i am Still authenticated. Any ideas , different direction to take etc ??? Please let me know if you need any more info or if i something i have said dosent make sense. Thanks

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• RMagick transparent_color deprecated? What's the alternative?

  - by user315975

  I'm developing an app that does a fair amount of generating transparent pngs on the fly. These are used as overlays, to show areas of interest in a graphic, so they have to have transparent backgrounds. I am developing in Ruby on Rails, deploying on Heroku. What works fine in development is not working in production. I get this error when I call a drawing routine using RMagick: NotImplementedError (the `transparent_color=' method is not supported by ImageMagick 6.2.4): /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rmagick-1.15.17/lib/RMagick.rb:1691:in `transparent_color=' I'm using RMagick version 2.12.1 on the development machine, but I'm not exactly certain how to discover the version of ImageMagick that it's running, so I'm not sure if this is a case of my local code being behind or ahead. I'm hoping behind, because perhaps then there'll be a replacement for this call. Does anyone know what the fix is here? What's required to generate a transparent background, if not the call I'm using? I can't find this in the documentation: in fact, it was on a third-party site that I found mention of this capability.

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• How do C++ compilers actually pass reference parameters?

  - by T.E.D.

  This question came about as a result of some mixed-langauge programming. I had a Fortran routine I wanted to call from C++ code. Fortran passes all its parameters by reference (unless you tell it otherwise). So I thought I'd be clever (bad start right there) in my C++ code and define the Fortran routine something like this: extern "C" void FORTRAN_ROUTINE (unsigned & flag); This code worked for a while but (of course right when I needed to leave) suddenly started blowing up on a return call. Clear indication of a munged call stack. Another engineer came behind me and fixed the problem, declaring that the routine had to be deinfed in C++ as extern "C" void FORTRAN_ROUTINE (unsigned * flag); I'd accept that except for two things. One is that it seems rather counter-intuitive for the compiler to not pass reference parameters by reference, and I can find no documentation anywhere that says that. The other is that he changed a whole raft of other code in there at the same time, so it theoretically could have been another change that fixed whatever the issue was. So the question is, how does C++ actually pass reference parameters? Is it perhaps free to do copy-in, copy-out for small values or something? In other words, are reference parameters utterly useless in mixed-language programming? I'd like to know so I don't make this same code-killing mistake ever again.

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• Constructor and Destructors in C++ work?

  - by Jack

  I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

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• ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

  - by user251660

  We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

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• How do you use glFrustrum in OpenGL ES1 on iPhone

  - by Paul

  So I am using Xcode 3.2.1 and am trying to make an iPhone OpenGL ES1 project. The default template for an opengl project is ok, but I have been trying to split the code up so not everything is done per frame on the drawView() call. I have a seperate setupRC method that sets the lighting, turns on depth test, turns on culling and sets the clear color. This is called on the init of the EAGLView and this works just fine. I have took the glViewport() and glFrustrum() calls and put them at the end of the resizeFromLayer() method in the ES1Renderer.m file. This gets hit when the app starts and when the app gets resized as it should. Now the problem is the frustrum's far seems to be messed up, as in all my objects get cut / clipped off. I tried adjusting the camera position and angle and it still all objects are cut / clipped. I increased the far from 1000.0f to 30000.0f and still get the same result. What is crazy is that if i call both the glViewport() and glFrustrum() calls in the drawView() every frame everything looks right. Nothing is clipped and looks like i want it. From everything I've been reading the frustrum and viewport calls only need to be called when the window / gets made and resizes, but If I don't call it every frame in my project it doesn't work. Any ideas? Thanks In Advance

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• Ajax request not receiving xml from Django

  - by amougeot

  I have a Django server which handles requests to a URL which will return some HTML for use in an image gallery. I can navigate to the URL and the browser will display the HTML that is returned, but I can't get that same HTML by doing an AJAX call (using jQuery) to the same URL. This is the view that generates the response: def gallery_images(request, gallery_name): return render_to_response('galleryimages.html', {'images': get_images_of_gallery(gallery_name)}, mimetype='text/xml') This is the 'galleryimages.html' template: {% for image in images %} <div id="{{image.name}}big"> <div class="actualImage" style="background-image:url({{image.image.name}});"> <h1>{{image.caption|safe}}</h1> </div> </div> {% endfor %} This is the jQuery call I am making: $("#allImages").load("http://localhost:8000/galleryimages/Web"); However, this loads nothing into my #allImages div. I've used firebug and ran jQuery's Ajax method .get("http://localhost:8000/galleryimages/Web") and firebug says that the response text is completely empty. When I check my Django server log, this is the entry I see for when I navigate to the URL manually, through my browser: [16/Jan/2010 17:34:10] "GET /galleryimages/Web HTTP/1.1" 200 215 This is the entry in the server log for when I make the AJAX call: [16/Jan/2010 17:36:19] "OPTIONS /galleryimages/Web HTTP/1.1" 200 215 Why does the AJAX request not get the xml that my Django page is serving?

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• unresolved token/symbol in MC++ wrapper class calling native code

  - by rediVider

  I'm new to MC++ and have basically no idea what's going on yet. In trying to get this working i've determined many things that don't work, i'm just looking for one of the ways that will work. I have a mc++ class as follows that seems to have to be a "ref" class to allow me to see any methods/properties. public ref class EmCeePlusPlus { static void Open(void) { Testor* t = new Testor(); Testor::Open(); }; }; extern public class Testor { public: Testor() { }; static void Open(void) { int x = 3; int xx = cli_lock(x); }; }; Now, the only reason i created the class Testor, and moved the call to cli_open to it, is because i was getting a unresolved external symbol if i put the same call in the ref class. In this current code, however, I get an uresolved token error and unresolved symbol error ONLY if i have the call to Testor::Open(). If that line is commented then it compiles fine. As it is I get the errors below. cli_lock() is native code that is able to be called externally by other native DLLs with not problems. Any ideas where i should be looking? error LNK2028: unresolved token (0A000056) "extern "C" int __cdecl cli_lock(int)" (?cli_lock@@$$J0YAHH@Z) referenced in function "public: static void __cdecl Giga::Testor::Open(void)" (?Open@Testor@Giga@@$$FSAXXZ) error LNK2019: unresolved external symbol "extern "C" int __cdecl cli_lock(int)" (?cli_lock@@$$J0YAHH@Z) referenced in function "public: static void __cdecl Giga::Testor::Open(void)" (?Open@Testor@Giga@@$$FSAXXZ)

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• How do I execute queries upon DB connection in Rails?

  - by sycobuny

  I have certain initializing functions that I use to set up audit logging on the DB server side (ie, not rails) in PostgreSQL. At least one has to be issued (setting the current user) before inserting data into or updating any of the audited tables, or else the whole query will fail spectacularly. I can easily call these every time before running any save operation in the code, but DRY makes me think I should have the code repeated in as few places as possible, particularly since this diverges greatly from the ideal of database agnosticism. Currently I'm attempting to override ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection in an initializer to set it up so that the queries are run as soon as I connect automatically, but it doesn't behave as I expect it to. Here is the code in the initializer: class ActiveRecord::Base # extend the class methods, not the instance methods class << self alias :old_establish_connection :establish_connection # hide the default def establish_connection(*args) ret = old_establish_connection(*args) # call the default # set up necessary session variables for audit logging # call these after calling default, to make sure conn is established 1st db = self.class.connection db.execute("SELECT SV.set('current_user', 'test@localhost')") db.execute("SELECT SV.set('audit_notes', NULL)") # end "empty variable" err ret # return the default's original value end end end puts "Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base" sycobuny:~/rails$ ruby script/server = Booting WEBrick = Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base This doesn't give me any errors, and unfortunately I can't check what the method looks like internally (I was using ActiveRecord::Base.method(:establish_connection), but apparently that creates a new Method object each time it's called, which is seemingly worthless cause I can't check object_id for any worthwhile information and I also can't reverse the compilation). However, the code never seems to get called, because any attempt to run a save or an update on a database object fails as I predicted earlier. If this isn't a proper way to execute code immediately on connection to the database, then what is?

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• exit /B 0 does not work...

  - by murxx

  Hi, I have the following problem: I have created a batch script which calls itself in there (for being able to write a log in parallel). In the script I start another process (like start startServer.bat) which starts up a java process and keeps opened up all the time. In my original script I wait 30 seconds, check if the process is running and do an: exit /B 0 Unfortunately that does not work, the window shows that the exit /B 0 is being evaluated, but the window still keeps open. When I close the window with the other process (meaning the "child" processes started up in my .bat) my script continues its run. So: scriptA.bat - in there I call: start startServer.bat - wait 30 seconds - check is server is started - exit /B 0 Process hangs up! What's very odd, if I wrap another script around, like: scriptB.bat - call scriptA.bat ----- in there I call: start startServer.bat ----- wait 30 seconds ----- check is server is started ----- exit /B 0 - scriptA.bat continues without any hangup! I also tried the same with exit 0 (without /B) also, same result! In the first case it hangs up, in the second case my window closes as expected... Has anyone of you ever had such a problem before and knows what's wrong here? Process hangs up!

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• how to fetch more than 1000 entities NON keybased?

  - by user291071

  If I should be approaching this problem through a different method, please suggest so. I am creating an item based collaborative filter. I populate the db with the LinkRating2 class and for each link there are more than a 1000 users that I need to call and collect their ratings to perform calculations which I then use to create another table. So I need to call more than 1000 entities for a given link. For instance lets say there are over a 1000 users rated 'link1' there will be over a 1000 instances of this class for the given link property that I need to call. How would I complete this example? class LinkRating2(db.Model): user = db.StringProperty() link = db.StringProperty() rating2 = db.FloatProperty() query =LinkRating2.all() link1 = 'link string name' a = query.filter('link = ', link1) aa = a.fetch(1000)##how would i get more than 1000 for a given link1 as shown? ##keybased over 1000 in other post example i need method for a subset though not key class MyModel(db.Expando): @classmethod def count_all(cls): """ Count *all* of the rows (without maxing out at 1000) """ count = 0 query = cls.all().order('__key__') while count % 1000 == 0: current_count = query.count() if current_count == 0: break count += current_count if current_count == 1000: last_key = query.fetch(1, 999)[0].key() query = query.filter('__key__ > ', last_key) return count

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• Fortran pointer as an argument to interface procedure

  - by icarusthecow

  Im trying to use interfaces to call different subroutines with different types, however, it doesnt seem to work when i use the pointer attribute. for example, take this sample code MODULE ptr_types TYPE, abstract :: parent INTEGER :: q END TYPE TYPE, extends(parent) :: child INTEGER :: m END TYPE INTERFACE ptr_interface MODULE PROCEDURE do_something END INTERFACE CONTAINS SUBROUTINE do_something(atype) CLASS(parent), POINTER :: atype ! code determines that this allocation is correct from input ALLOCATE(child::atype) WRITE (*,*) atype%q END SUBROUTINE END MODULE PROGRAM testpass USE ptr_types CLASS(child), POINTER :: ctype CALL ptr_interface(ctype) END PROGRAM This gives error Error: There is no specific subroutine for the generic 'ptr_interface' at (1) however if i remove the pointer attribute in the subroutine it compiles fine. Now, normally this wouldnt be a problem, but for my use case i need to be able to treat that argument as a pointer, mainly so i can allocate it if necessary. Any suggestions? Mind you I'm new to fortran so I may have missed something edit: forgot to put the allocation in the parents subroutine, the initial input is unallocated EDIT 2 this is my second attempt, with caller side casting MODULE ptr_types TYPE, abstract :: parent INTEGER :: q END TYPE TYPE, extends(parent) :: child INTEGER :: m END TYPE TYPE, extends(parent) :: second INTEGER :: meow END TYPE CONTAINS SUBROUTINE do_something(this, type_num) CLASS(parent), POINTER :: this INTEGER type_num IF (type_num == 0) THEN ALLOCATE (child::this) ELSE IF (type_num == 1) THEN ALLOCATE (second::this) ENDIF END SUBROUTINE END MODULE PROGRAM testpass USE ptr_types CLASS(child), POINTER :: ctype SELECT TYPE(ctype) CLASS is (parent) CALL do_something(ctype, 0) END SELECT WRITE (*,*) ctype%q END PROGRAM however this still fails. in the select statement it complains that parent must extend child. Im sure this is due to restrictions when dealing with the pointer attribute, for type safety, however, im looking for a way to convert a pointer into its parent type for generic allocation. Rather than have to write separate allocation functions for every type and hope they dont collide in an interface or something. hopefully this example will illustrate a little more clearly what im trying to achieve, if you know a better way let me know

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• Ajax response takes time and status is 503

  - by Suresh S

  guys, i have a html page where onclick of a button a ajax request is sent to server , the request calls a jsp page which runs an oracle procedure.The procedure runs the logic and places it in a temp table . once procedure is completed , the values are returned to the client by selecting values from tmp table. as the response is too late . the data is not received at the client side. solution: i tried to run the procedure in a separate thread using a ajax call. when the procedure is completed a global flag is set to indicate that the data is generated. if the response is 500 , a second ajax call invoked by timeout function after 10000 ms . the second call checks the global flag ,if true then reads from table and sends the response. if not again a timeout is set at the client side. this solution is not mature enough. , as the procedure may take long time to respond. please let me know a good solution for this problenm?

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• Why cant we create Object if constructor is in private section?

  - by Abhi

  Dear all I want to know why cant we create object if the constructor is in private section. I know that if i make a method static i can call that method using <classname> :: <methodname(...)>; But why cant we create object is my doubt... I also know if my method is not static then also i can call function by the following... class A { A(); public: void fun1(); void fun2(); void fun3(); }; int main() { A *obj =(A*)malloc(sizeof(A)); //Here we can't use new A() because constructor is in private //but we can use malloc with it, but it will not call the constructor //and hence it is harmful because object may not be in usable state. obj->fun1(); obj->fun2(); obj->fun3(); } So only doubt is why cant we create object when constructor is in private section? Thanks in advance

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