Search Results

Search found 15860 results on 635 pages for 'document oriented databas'.

Page 290/635 | < Previous Page | 286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293 294 295 296 297  | Next Page >

  • Does video tag (HTML 5) injection via JavaScript work in any browsers?

    - by JoshNaro
    I'm trying to dynamically spawn a video element on a page using JavaScript. JavaScript <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var video = $(document.createElement('video')) .attr('id', 'VideoElement') .attr('controls', 'controls') .attr('src', 'videopath.mp4') // Changed 'href' attribute to 'src' .css({ width: 640, height: 360 }); $('#VideoContainer').append(video); }); HTML <body> <div id="VideoContainer"></div> </body> In Firefox I get the video harness, but the actual video doesn't load. In IE8 the video harness doesn't even appear. Is HTML 5 just not supported enough to accomplish this yet? Edit: Got this to work with Artiom's fix. Looks like this works fine with Chrome and Safari. I'm using a codec Firefox doesn't support, so it doesn't work there; although I suspect it will work with a supported codec. IE8 sure enough doesn't work (high five IE).

    Read the article

  • XPath Query - Select relative top level nodes

    - by John
    I'm trying to iterate over some elements in an XML document that may be nested, but as I iterate over them I may be removing some from the tree. I'm thinking the best way is to do this recursively, so I'm trying to come up with an XPath Query that will select all the top-level nodes relative to the current node. //foo[not(ancestor::foo)] works great at the document level, but I'm trying to figure out how to do this from a relative query. <foo id="1"> <foo id="2" /> <foo id="3"> <foo id="4"> <bar> <foo id="5"> <foo id="6" /> </foo> <foo id="7" /> </bar> </foo> </foo> </foo> If the current node is foo#3, I only want to select foo#4. When the current node is foo#4, I only want to select foo#5 and foo#7. I think I'm trying to select any descendant foo nodes of the current node, but without any ancestor foo nodes between the current node and the node I'm selecting. My conundrum is if we're already inside a foo node, not(ancestor::foo) doesn't help.

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC - Set an actionURL parameter with Javascript

    - by jeffl8n
    Is it possible to dynamically set a Spring MVC portlet:actionURL portlet:param using javascript? I have tried with the following code, but the id value always comes across as null to the controller. I have verified that setting the portlet:param manually passes the value correctly: <portlet:param name="id" value="2" /> I have also verified the value in the javascript is being set correctly and is not null. (Note: I've changed the variable names, etc. from the original code to simplify it and obfuscate it since it is my employer's code.) JSP: <portlet:actionURL var="modifyURL"> <portlet:param name="do" value="modify" /> <portlet:param name="id" value="${model.id}" /> </portlet:actionURL> ... <form:form action="${modifyURL}" id="modifyForm" modelAttribute="model"> <form:hidden path="id" id="id" /> </form:form> Javascript called when the update URL is clicked: function update() { document.forms[0]["id"].value = selectedId; document.forms[0].submit(); } Controller: @RequestMapping(params = {"do=modify"}) public void modify(@ModelAttribute("model") Model model, @RequestParam(value = "id", required=true) Long id, ActionRequest request, ActionResponse response, SessionStatus sessionStatus, ModelMap modelMap) { ....

    Read the article

  • What's your take on this Javascript thingy?

    - by Nischal
    We've been having a discussion at our workplace on this with some for and some against the behavior. Wanted to hear views from you guys : <html> <body> <div> Test! <script> document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); </script> </div> </body> </html> Should the above script work and do what it's supposed to do? First, let's see what's happening here : I have a javascript that's inside the <div> element. This javascript will delete the child node within body which happens to hold the div inside which the script itself exists. Now, the above script works fine in Firefox, Opera and IE8. But IE6 and IE7 give an alert saying they cannot open the page. Let's not debate on how IE should have handled this (they've accepted it as a bug and hence fixed it in IE8). The point here is since the 'SCRIPT' tag itself is a part of DOM, should it be allowed to do something like this? Should it even exist after such an operation?

    Read the article

  • Iteration through the HtmlDocument.All collection stops at the referenced stylesheet?

    - by Jonas
    Since "bug in .NET" is often not the real cause of a problem, I wonder if I'm missing something here. What I'm doing feels pretty simple. I'm iterating through the elements in a HtmlDocument called doc like this: System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("*** " + doc.Url + " ***"); foreach (HtmlElement field in doc.All) System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("Tag = {0}, ID = {1} ", field.TagName, field.Id)); I then discovered the debug window output was this: Tag = !, ID = Tag = HTML, ID = Tag = HEAD, ID = Tag = TITLE, ID = Tag = LINK, ID = ... when the actual HTML document looks like this: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <title>Protocol</title> <link rel="Stylesheet" type="text/css" media="all" href="ProtocolStyle.css"> </head> <body onselectstart="return false"> <table> <!-- Misc. table elements and cell values --> </table> </body> </html> Commenting out the LINK tag solves the issue for me, and the document is completely parsed. The ProtocolStyle.css file exist on disk and is loaded properly, if that would matter. Is this a bug in .NET 3.5 SP1, or what? For being such a web-oriented framework, I find it hard to believe there would be such a major bug in it.

    Read the article

  • direction line color google map v2

    - by user1328645
    I'm using this code to change direction line color in google map v2, but still it won't work even after using getpolyine? How can I change it? ` function direction() { var txtAddress = document.getElementById("<%=txtAddress.ClientID %>"); var address = txtAddress.value; var TextBox1 = document.getElementById("<%=TextBox1.ClientID %>"); var address1 = TextBox1.value; directions = new GDirections(map, directionsPanel); directions.load("from: " + address1 + " to: " + address + "", { getPolyline: true }); setTimeout(handle, 1000); // var address =txtAddress.value + " " + TextBox3.value; } function handle() { var points = []; var poly = direction.getPolyline(); for (var i = o; i < poly.getVertexCount(); i++) { points[i] = poly.getVertex(i); } var mypoly = new GPolyline(point, "#ff627", 3, 1) map.addOverlay(mypoly); } `

    Read the article

  • Perl: Value of response code in HTTP::Request

    - by lola
    Hi all, So, I am writing a code to get a document from the internet. The document size is around 200 KB. This is the code: !/usr/local/bin/perl -w use strict; use LWP::UserAgent; my $ua = LWP::UserAgent->new; my $url = "SOME URL"; my $req = HTTP::Request->new(GET => $url); my $res = $ua->request($req); if($res->is_success){ print $res->content ."\n"; } else{ print "Error: " . $res->status_line; } Now, the only problem is I can't mention what the URL is. However, the output is: "Error: 500 read timeout". When I checked the link externally, the data is being downloaded in under 5 seconds. I even changed the timeout to 1000s, but it still didn't work. How should I go about finding more information related to the response. The size of the file (around 200KB) is also not too great to warrant a read timeout. The server is also not a busy one, didn't give a problem whenever I checked the link on the browser. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why does the onclick function run on onclick, but not when I call it manually?

    - by Codemonkey
    This is my code // Register onclick var old_onclick = link.onclick; link.onclick = function() { astr_track_action(param); if(typeof(old_onclick) == "function") old_onclick(); } And this is the html <a onclick="alert('hello!');" href="http://www.google.com?acme=link&foo=bar">To google!</a> When I click the link, the alert pops up. But when I override the onclick with my JS code, the alert does not pop up. Any ideas? Edit: I just want to add, I have debugged and confirmed that old_onclick() is run, but no alert message shows up. Edit: Here is the full code from the loop start. I don't see how it's relevant, but it was requested: for(var i = 0; i < document.links.length; i++) { var link = document.links[i]; var eventlink = link.href.split("acme="); if(eventlink.length > 1) { var param = eventlink[1].split("&")[0]; var newlink = link.href; // Register onclick var old_onclick = link.onclick; link.onclick = function() { astr_track_action(param); if(typeof(old_onclick) == "function") old_onclick(); }

    Read the article

  • How to submit to the server with JQuery.UI Dialog and ASP.Net?

    - by Paul
    Hi, I'm looking for a way to submit information captured in a JQuery Dialog to the server in ASP.Net. I originally thought it would work with a 'hidden' asp button, but the click doesn't seem to be submitting the form. Here's the code I have so far: <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery(document).ready(function() { var dlg = jQuery("#dialog").dialog({ bgiframe: true, autoOpen: false, height: 150, width: 300, modal: true, buttons: { "Add": function() { var btn = document.getElementById("<%=btnAdd.ClientID %>"); if (btn) btn.click(); $(this).dialog("close"); } } }); $("#dialog").parent().appendTo("#dialog_target"); }); </script> <div id="hidden" style="visibility:hidden" > <!-- Hidden button that actually triggers server add --> <asp:Button ID="btnAdd" runat="server" style="display:none" OnClick="btnAdd_Click" /> <!-- Hidden Delete Dialog --> <div id="dialog" title="New Additional Skill"> <label>Additional Skill Name:</label> <asp:TextBox ID="_txtNewSkillName" runat="server" /> </div> Any pointers?

    Read the article

  • Event triggering inside prototype

    - by shivesh
    When I try to call "Test" function I get an error. How to fix that? (no jquery!) Browser:firefox error: TypeError: this.Test is not a function <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1"> <title>Untitled Document</title> <script type="text/javascript"> MyClass = function(){ } MyClass.prototype = { Init: function(){ var txt = document.getElementById("text"); if (txt.addEventListener) { txt.addEventListener("keyup", this.Foo, true) } }, Foo: function(){ this.Test(); }, Test: function(){ alert('OK'); } } window.onload = function(){ obj = new MyClass; obj.Init(); } </script> </head> <body> <textarea id="text" rows="10"> </textarea> </div> </body>

    Read the article

  • How to give "Share with" option while opening documents in iphone mail

    - by rishabh
    So I've been going through the "Document Interaction Programming Topics for iOS". I've been able to achieve the "Open with myapp" option through Mail, was wondering how can I change the option to "Share with myapp" depending upon the file types specified? This is what I've tried: <key>CFBundleDocumentTypes</key> <array> <dict> <key>CFBundleTypeName</key> <string>Document</string> <key>LSHandlerRank</key> <string>Alternate</string> <key>CFBundleTypeRole</key> <string>Owner</string> <key>LSItemContentTypes</key> <array> <string>public.data</string> </array> </dict> </array>

    Read the article

  • java script is not working in mozila

    - by Piyush
    I have added some javascript in html page for input validation.same page is working correct in IE and chrome but in mozila its not working.The problem is when user inputs invalid data its supposed to show alert msg box and when user clicks OK it should return false to form...BUT mozila is not waiting for alert box it just shows alert box for 5-6 sec and then goes to next page defined in form action="nextpage.php" function validate_form(thisform) { with (thisform) { if (validate_required(oldpassword, "<b>Error: </b>Please enter the Old Password!") == false) { changeColor("oldpassword"); return false; } else if (valid_length(newpassword, "<b>Error: </b>Please enter the New Password!!") == false) {newpassword.value=""; changeColor("newpassword"); return false; } else if (valid_length(cnfpassword, "<b>Error: </b>Please enter the Confirm Password!!") == false) {cnfpassword.value=""; changeColor("cnfpassword"); return false; } else if (document.getElementById('newpassword').value != document.getElementById('cnfpassword').value) {changeColor("newpassword");cool.error("<b>Error: </b>Passwords entered are not same!"); newpassword.value="";cnfpassword.value="";return false;} } }function validate_required(field, alerttxt) { with (field) { if (value == null || value == "") { cool.error(alerttxt);return false; } else { return true; } } } cool.error is nothing but CSS nd Js for alert box.I thing there is not any problem in my code weather problem is in some browser settings.Is it so??? because it is working fine in IE and Chrome.

    Read the article

  • jQuery/Javascript Cookies and variable returning with value [object Object]

    - by user1706661
    I am attempting to set a cookie to a site using jQuery, ONLY if the user came from a specific site. In this case, lets use -http://referrersite.com- as the site they must come from for the cookie to be created as an example. The cookie value is being stored in a variable and everything up to this point is working fine. There is a conditional statement checking whether the user came from the referred site, if the cookie exists already and if the cookie doesn't exist and the user did not come from the referred site. If the user came from the referred site the cookie is created and stored in a variable. If the cookie already exists, it is then stored in a variable. If the cookie does not exist and the user did not come from the referred site I am assigning the variable a static string of characters - this is where the issue lies. When the variable is alerted from the non referred site and no existing cookie, it returns: [object Object], not the static string of characters. The code I am using is below: $(document).ready(function() { var referrer = document.referrer; if(referrer == "http://referrersite.com") { $.cookie("code","123456", { expires: 90, path: '/' }); cookieContainer = $.cookie("code"); alert(cookieContainer); } else if($.cookie("code")) { cookieContainer = $.cookie("code"); alert(cookieContainer); } else if($.cookie("code") == null && referrer != "http://referrersite.com") { cookieContainer = "67890"; alert(cookieContainer); } }); Please let me know if there is something I am missing as the code to me looks like it should work. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Javascript Conflict on PHP page

    - by patrick
    I am having trouble running two javascript files on the same page. I used JQuery.noConflict() (http://api.jquery.com/jQuery.noConflict/) but no luck. <script src="http://www.google.com/jsapi"></script> <script> google.load("prototype", "1.6.0.3",{uncompressed:false}); google.load("scriptaculous", "1.8.1",{uncompressed:false}); </script> <script src="js/jquery.tools.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $jQuery.noConflict(); jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $("#download_now").tooltip({ effect: 'slide'}); }); function show_text() { new Ajax.Request('./new.php', { method: 'post', parameters: { userid: $('userid').value }, onSuccess: function(r) { $('update').update(r.responseText) } }); } document.observe("dom:loaded", function() { $('loading').hide(); Ajax.Responders.register({ onCreate: function() { new Effect.Opacity('loading',{ from: 1.0, to: 0.3, duration: 0.7 }); new Effect.toggle('loading', 'appear'); }, onComplete: function() { new Effect.Opacity('loading', { from: 0.3, to: 1, duration: 0.7 }); new Effect.toggle('loading', 'appear'); } }); }); </script>

    Read the article

  • Select All in Javascript (Firefox extension) not working right

    - by leezer3
    I'm having some problems with a select all/ none function. (I didn't write it, I'm trying to fix it!) It currently looks like this: rsfindmod.SelAll = function(){ document.getElementById("ListBox").selectAll(); document.getElementById("ListBox").focus(); } It's being used on a dynamically generated set of links, so there's no set number of items in this listbox. This seems to work most of the time, but randomly it only selects those which are visible at the time. Scrolling the list or hitting the button again seems to normally make it work as expected. My first (Obvious?) thought was to replace the function entirely with the one from this link for testing: http://viralpatel.net/blogs/2009/06/listbox-select-all-move-left-right-up-down-javascript.html Trouble is that I can't get this one to work whatsoever! This gives me the error that listbox.options is not defined Any thoughts please? I'm by no means certain whether it's the original function at fault, or something in the generation of this listbox.

    Read the article

  • Divs don't toggle

    - by stackoverflowuser
    I have following divs on my page <div id="rpttimeline">div 1</div> <div id="rptareaview">div 2</div> <div id="rptgalleria">div 3</div> <div id="rptremainingwork">div 4</div> <div id="rptremainingspec">div 5</div> <div id="rptremainingreq">div 6</div> <div id="rptremaininguserstory">div 7</div> Initially through css I have the first two divs set to visible and the remaining are hidden. in my document ready function I have $(document).ready(function () { window.setInterval(toggleDivs, 5000); }); function toggleDivs() { $('#rpttimeline').toggle(); $('#rptareaview').toggle(); $('#rptgalleria').toggle(); $('#rptremainingwork').toggle(); $('#rptremainingspec').toggle(); $('#rptremainingreq').toggle(); $('#rptremaininguserstory').toggle(); } when toggledivs is called the first two divs get hidden but the other divs are not visible. It seems the toggle is affecting just the first two divs. Am I missing something here?

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC Table selected row

    - by ich-bin-drin
    Hi, in a Spring MVC 2.5 application i'm using a spring <form:form> component and in this form a table with c:forEach is rendered. In each row a submit button is placed in. If i start a submit by clicking a button i would like to knwo, which button has processed the submit. <form:form commandName="formObject"> <table class="data-table" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" border="0"> <thead> <tr> </tr> </thead> <c:forEach items="${list}" var="document" varStatus="row"> <tr> <td> <input type="submit" value="${document.title}"/> <td> </tr> </c:forEach> </table> </form:form> THX.

    Read the article

  • What are the benefits of a classical structure over a prototyple one?

    - by Rixius
    I have only recently started programming significantly, and being completely self-taught, I unfortunately don't have the benefits of a detailed Computer science course. I've been reading a lot about JavaScript lately, and I'm trying to find the benefit in classes over the prototype nature of JavaScript. The question seems to be drawn down the middle of which one is better, and I want to see the classical side of it. When I look at the prototype example: var inst_a = { "X": 123, "Y": 321, add: function () { return this.X+this.Y; } }; document.write(inst_a.add()); And then the classical version function A(x,y){ this.X = x; this.Y = y; this.add = function(){ return this.X+this.Y; }; }; var inst_a = new A(123,321); document.write(inst_a.add()); I begun thinking about this because I'm looking at the new ecmascript revision 5 and a lot of people seem up in arms that they didn't add a Class system.

    Read the article

  • jQuery .ready() automatically assigning variables for each element with ID in DOM

    - by Greg
    I have noticed some unexpected behaviour when using the jQuery .ready() function, whereby afterwards you can reference an element in the DOM simply by using its ID without prior declaration or assignment: <html> <script src="jquery.js"></script> <script> $(document).ready(function() { myowndiv.innerHTML = 'wow!' }); </script> <body> <div id="myowndiv"></div> </body> </html> I would have expected to have to declare and assign myowndiv with document.getElementById("myowndiv"); or $("#myowndiv"); before I could call innerHTML or anything else on it? Is this behaviour by design? Can anyone explain why? My fear is that if I refactor and end up not using .ready() or even using jQuery at all then my code will fail to execute. Cheers!

    Read the article

  • loading remote page into DOM with javascript

    - by scoobydoo
    I am trying to write a web widget which will allow users to display customized information (from my website) in their own web page. The mechanism I want to use (for creating the web widget) is javascript. So basically, I want to be able to write some javascript code like this (this is what the end user copies into their HTML page, to get my widget displayed in their page) <script type="text/javascript"> /* javascript here to fetch page from remote url and insert into DOM */ </script> I have two questions: how do I write a javascript code to fetch the page from the remote url? Ideally this will be PLAIN javascript (i.e. not using jQuery etc - since I dont want to force the user to get third party scripts jQuery which may conflict with other scripts on their page etc) The page I am fetching contains inline javascript, which gets executed in an body.onLoad event, as well as other functions which are used in response to user actions - my questions are: i). will the body.onLoad event be triggered for the retrieved document?. ii). If the retrieved page is dumped directly into the DOM, then the document will contain two <body> sections, which is no longer valid (X)HTML - however, I need the body.onLoad event to be triggered for the page to be setup correctly, and I also need the other functions in the retrieved page, for the retrieved page to be able to respond to the user interaction. Any suggestions/tips on how I can solve these problems?

    Read the article

  • call FB.login() after FB.init() automatically

    - by Tobi Projectx
    i`m developing an app for Facebook. My Code: function init() { window.fbAsyncInit = function() { var appID = 'xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx'; FB.init({ appId: appID, status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); login(); }; (function() { var e = document.createElement("script"); e.async = true; e.src = "https://connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js?xfbml=1"; document.getElementById("fb-root").appendChild(e); }()); }; function login() { FB.login(function(response) { if (response.session) { if (response.perms) { // user is logged in and granted some permissions. // perms is a comma separated list of granted permissions } else { // user is logged in, but did not grant any permissions } } else { // user is not logged in } }, {perms:'read_stream,publish_stream,offline_access'}); }; I want to call the "init" function and after "init" should call the "login" function (open up the Facebook Login Window) automatically. But i always get "b is null" FB.provide('',{ui:function(f,b){if(!f....onent(FB.UIServer._resultToken));}}); Error in Firebug. Can anybody help me? Does anybody have the same problem? Thanks

    Read the article

  • JavaScript: When does JavaScript evaluate a function, onload or when the function is called?

    - by Benj
    When does JavaScript evaluate a function? Is it on page load or when the function is called? The reason why I ask is because I have the following code: function scriptLoaded() { // one of our scripts finished loading, detect which scripts are available: var jQuery = window.jQuery; var maps = window.google && google.maps; if (maps && !requiresGmaps.called) { requiresGmaps.called = true; requiresGmaps(); } if (jQuery && !requiresJQuery.called) { requiresJQuery.called = true; requiresJQuery(); } if (maps && jQuery && !requiresBothJQueryGmaps.called) { requiresBothJQueryGmaps.called = true; requiresBothJQueryGmaps(); } } // asynch download of script function addScript(url) { var script = document.createElement('script'); script.src = url; // older IE... script.onreadystatechange=function () { if (this.readyState == 'complete') scriptLoaded.call(this); } script.onload=scriptLoaded; document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(script); } addScript('http://google.com/gmaps.js'); addScript('http://jquery.com/jquery.js'); // define some function dependecies function requiresJQuery() { // create JQuery objects } function requiresGmaps() { // create Google Maps object, etc } function requiresBothJQueryGmaps() { ... } What I want to do is perform asynchronous download of my JavaScript and start at the earliest possible time to begin executing those scripts but my code has dependencies on when the scripted have been obviously downloaded and loaded. When I try the code above, it appears that my browser is still attempting to evaluate code within my require* functions even before those functions have been called. Is this correct? Or am I misunderstanding what's wrong with my code?

    Read the article

  • Dynamic jQuery dialog after data append w/o reloading page. Possible?

    - by Arun
    Howdy, So I have a page with an enormous table in a CRUD interface of sorts. Each link within a span calls a jQuery UI Dialog Form which fetches it's content from another page. When the action taking place (in this case, a creation) has completed, it appends the resulting new data to the table and forces a resort of the table. This all happens within the JS and the DOM. The problem with this, is that the new table row's CRUD links don't actually trigger the dialog form creation as all the original links in spans are only scanned on document.ready and since I'm not reloading the page, the new links cannot be seen. Code is as follows: $(document).ready(function() { var $loading = $('<img src="/images/loading.gif" alt="Loading">'); $('span a').each(function() { var $dialog = $('<div></div>') .append($loading.clone()); var $link = $(this).one('click', function() { // Dialog Stuff success: function(data) { $('#studies tbody').append( '<tr>' + '<td><span><a href="./?action=update&study=' + data.study_id + '" title="Update Study">Update</a></span></td>' + '</tr>' ); fdTableSort.init(#studies); // This re-sorts the table. $(this).dialog('close'); } $link.click(function() { $dialog.dialog('open'); return false; }); return false; }); }); }); Basically, my question is if there is any way in which to trigger a jQuery re-evaluation of the pages links without forcing me to do a browser page refresh?

    Read the article

  • How to check Isavailablity in ajax?

    - by udaya
    Hi This is what i have in my view page <td width=""><input type="text" name="txtUserName" id="txtUserName" /></td> <td><input type="button" name="CheckUsername" id="CheckUsername" value="Check Availablity" onclick="Check_User_Name();"/></td> Onclick of the button the Check_User_Name function in my ajax.js loads This is the Check_User_Name function function Check_User_Name(source) { var UserName = document.getElementById('txtUserName').value; if(window.ActiveXObject) User_Name = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); else if(window.XMLHttpRequest) User_Name = new XMLHttpRequest(); var URL = newURL+"ssit/system/application/views/ssitAjax.php"; URL = URL +"?CheckUsername="+UserName; User_Name.onreadystatechange = User_Name_Fun; User_Name.open("GET",URL,true); User_Name.send(null); } function User_Name_Fun() { document.getElementById('User_div').innerHTML=User_Name.responseText; } Then I can have the value in echo username then the $result has all the user name Hows can i checkIsavailablity of username from here if(($_GET['CheckUsername']!="") || (isset($_GET['CheckUsername']))) { echo $UserName = $_GET['CheckUsername'];//echo username $_SESSION['state'] = $State; $queryres = "SELECT dUser_name FROM tbl_login WHERE dIsDelete='0'"; $result = mysql_query($queryres,$cn) or die("Selection Query Failed !!!");

    Read the article

  • How to load src in html5 Video tag from JavaScript?

    - by luis_laurent
    Here is the thing, I'm working with ASP.NET and I'm using this particular SignalR library to broadcast a video to my clients, but as far as I know I can not stream video because signalR is a messaging system and it is not intended to stream video, files or things like that. Now what I am trying to do is to split the video into buffers that is Base64-encoded into a string, then on the client I am decoding this string and I am trying to load it into the source of a Video tag. Here I show you what I am doing on the client: HTML Code: <video id="myVideo"> <source id="video_source"> </video> Javascript Code: //here somehow I am getting the string with the base64-encoded video function playVideo(message) { var myVideo = document.getElementById("myVideo"); var mySource = document.getElementById("video_source"); mySource.setAttribute("src", getEncodedVideoString("avi", message)); myVideo.load(); myVideo.play(); }; // here I am formatting and concatenating the string for my source attribute function getEncodedVideoString(type, file) { return 'data:video/' + type + ';base64,' + $.base64.decode(file); } Well as you can see, at the moment I'm facing a scenario a little weird, but I already have the video encoded on the client, now I just need to find out the way to reproduce that video. And here is when my question comes up, does any one has done something like this before, or you have any idea or suggestion to do that? P.S I am using this jquery-base64 library to decode my string

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293 294 295 296 297  | Next Page >