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  • Multiple generic types in one container

    - by Lirik
    I was looking at the answer of this question regarding multiple generic types in one container and I can't really get it to work: the properties of the Metadata class are not visible, since the abstract class doesn't have them. Here is a slightly modified version of the code in the original question: public abstract class Metadata { } public class Metadata<T> : Metadata { // ... some other meta data public T Function{ get; set; } } List<Metadata> metadataObjects; metadataObjects.Add(new Metadata<Func<double,double>>()); metadataObjects.Add(new Metadata<Func<int,double>>()); metadataObjects.Add(new Metadata<Func<double,int>>()); foreach( Metadata md in metadataObjects) { var tmp = md.Function; // <-- Error: does not contain a definition for Function } The exact error is: error CS1061: 'Metadata' does not contain a definition for 'Function' and no extension method 'Function' accepting a first argument of type 'Metadata' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) I believe it's because the abstract class does not define the property Function, thus the whole effort is completely useless. Is there a way that we can get the properties?

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  • How do C++ compilers actually pass reference parameters?

    - by T.E.D.
    This question came about as a result of some mixed-langauge programming. I had a Fortran routine I wanted to call from C++ code. Fortran passes all its parameters by reference (unless you tell it otherwise). So I thought I'd be clever (bad start right there) in my C++ code and define the Fortran routine something like this: extern "C" void FORTRAN_ROUTINE (unsigned & flag); This code worked for a while but (of course right when I needed to leave) suddenly started blowing up on a return call. Clear indication of a munged call stack. Another engineer came behind me and fixed the problem, declaring that the routine had to be deinfed in C++ as extern "C" void FORTRAN_ROUTINE (unsigned * flag); I'd accept that except for two things. One is that it seems rather counter-intuitive for the compiler to not pass reference parameters by reference, and I can find no documentation anywhere that says that. The other is that he changed a whole raft of other code in there at the same time, so it theoretically could have been another change that fixed whatever the issue was. So the question is, how does C++ actually pass reference parameters? Is it perhaps free to do copy-in, copy-out for small values or something? In other words, are reference parameters utterly useless in mixed-language programming? I'd like to know so I don't make this same code-killing mistake ever again.

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  • Should a programmer have mastery over C++

    - by Yogendra
    I was wondering if it is necessary for programmers to have expertise on at least 1 programming language? Programming languages like C#, java, VB.Net etc change every year or two. Should a programmer have mastery over C++, which is a stable language and rarely undergoes changes? I am a C# developer and using it for about 7 years now, I still don't have mastery on it. EDIT I think my question is being misunderstood. I am not against changes or evolution. I love the new features and abstraction provided by languages such as C#, VB, Java. And I keep waiting for new features if it makes a programmers life easy. But this fact also make this languages very difficult to master. They are continuously evolving. Languages like C++ have slow evolution cycle. So given this scenario, Is it helpful to be master of C++? This is what my original question meant. Note:- Based on the answers by friends below, I have understood that languages and framework are tools for expressing the concepts. Also it might be a good idea to express the concepts in different programming languages.

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  • Scalable Full Text Search With Per User Result Ordering

    - by jeremy
    What options exist for creating a scalable, full text search with results that need to be sorted on a per user basis? This is for PHP/MySQL (Symfony/Doctrine as well, if relevant). In our case, we have a database of workouts that have been performed by users. The workouts that the user has done before should appear at the top of the results. The more frequently they've done the workout, the higher it should appear in search matches. If it helps, you can assume we know the number of times a user has done a workout in advance. Possible Solutions Sphinx - Use Sphinx to implement full text search, do all the querying and sorting in MySQL. This seems promising (and there's a Symfony Plugin!) but I don't know much about it. Lucene - Use Lucene to perform full text search and put the users' completions into the query. As is suggested in this Stack Overflow thread. Alternatively, use Lucene to retrieve the results, then reorder them in PHP. However, both solutions seem clunky and potentially unscalable as a user may have completed hundreds of workouts. Mysql - No native full text support (InnoDB), so we'd have use LIKE or REGEX, which isn't scalable.

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  • Java Enumeration of Musical Notes

    - by Crupler
    How would you create an enumeration of the musical notes in Java, with each notes having an octave and then a keyed variable? This is what I have so far... public enum Notes { c, cS, d, dS, e, f, fS, g, gS, a, aS, b; int octave; boolean isPlaying; } So when I access the enums in my code I write something like this... Notes.c.octave = 4; Notes.c.isPlaying = true; Now here is my question: How can I have an isPlaying boolean for each note in each octave? Like so: Notes.c.octave.isPlaying = true; Or would I have to go like: public enum Notes { c1, cS1, d1, dS1, e1, f1, fS1, g1, gS1, a1, aS1, b1 c2, cS2, d2, dS2, e2, f2, fS2, g2, gS2, a2, aS2, b2; etc... boolean isPlaying; } Thank you in advance for taking your time to answer this question!

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  • Java string to double conversion.

    - by wretrOvian
    Hi, I've been reading up on the net about the issues with handling float and double types in java. Unfortunately, the image is still not clear. Hence, i'm asking here direct. :( My MySQL table has various DECIMAL(m,d) columns. The m may range from 5 to 30. d stays a constant at 2. Question 1. What equivalent data-type should i be using in Java to work (i.e store, retrieve, and process) with the size of the values in my table? (I've settled with double - hence this post). Question 2. While trying to parse a double from a string, i'm getting errors Double dpu = new Double(dpuField.getText()); for example - "1" -> java.lang.NumberFormatException: empty String "10" -> 1.0 "101" -> 10.0 "101." -> 101.0 "101.1" -> 101.0 "101.19" -> 101.1 What am i doing wrong? What is the correct way to convert a string to a double value? And what measures should i take to perform operations on such values?

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  • Chrome renders button links completely screwed up when placed inside a paragraph

    - by Ferdy
    I am fairly proficient in CSS but now I am running into a very strange rendering issue in Google Chrome 9. I am trying to create some fancy looking link buttons (basically heavily styled anchors). Here is some example markup: <a href="" class="button"> <figure class="sprite icon icon_back"></figure> Link button with icon</a> This markup may look a litte strange to you, there's a few things you should know: I am using HTML5's figure class to include an icon as part of the button. I have the proper reset CSS applied and Chrome can render this tag for sure. Instead of actually pointing to an image I am applying CSS classes to the figure element. Within the CSS I am using the spriting technique to show the correct portion of a single large sprite image. All of this is working fine in Firefox, and actually also in Chrome. The correct rendering can be seen in the following image: It renders like that in both Firefox and Chrome. Here comes the problem, if I place such a button within paragraph tags <p></p> this is what happens in Chrome only: Notice how the button is ripped apart? Only in Chrome and only when placed inside a paragraph. It gets even stranger: this only happens for the first button inside the paragraph, if I would place three buttons inside a paragraph, only the 1st one is screwed up. Your first question would probably be about the CSS. It is rather verbose so hereby a temporary link to the page in question: Edit: link to live page removed, was only temporary for problem inspection.

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  • Does the managed main UI thread stay on the same (unmanaged) Operation System thread?

    - by Daniel Rose
    I am creating a managed WPF UI front-end to a legacy Win32-application. The WPF front-end is the executable; as part of its startup routines I start the legacy app as a DLL in a second thread. Any UI-operation (including CreateWindowsEx, etc.) by the legacy app is invoked back on the main UI-thread. As part of the shutdown process of the app I want to clean up properly. Among other things, I want to call DestroyWindow on all unmanaged windows, so they can properly clean themselves up. Thus, during shutdown I use EnumWindows to try to find all my unmanaged windows. Then I call DestroyWindow one the list I generate. These run on the main UI-thread. After this background knowledge, on to my actual question: In the enumeration procedure of EnumWindows, I have to check if one of the returned top-level windows is one of my unmanaged windows. I do this by calling GetWindowThreadProcessId to get the process id and thread id of the window's creator. I can compare the process id with Process.GetCurrentProcess().Id to check if my app created it. For additional security, I also want to see if my main UI-thread created the window. However, the returned thread id is the OS's ThreadId (which is different than the managed thread id). As explained in this question, the CLR reserves the right to re-schedule the managed thread to different OS threads. Can I rely on the CLR to be "smart enough" to never do this for the main UI thread (due to thread-affinity of the UI)? Then I could call GetCurrentThreadId to get the main UI-thread's unmanaged thread id for comparison.

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  • How to change the width of displayed text nested in a div?

    - by romaintaz
    Hello, Imagine I have the following code (simplified regarding my real context of course): <div id="box" style="width: 120px;" onmouseover="this.style.width='200px'" onmouseout="this.style.width='120px'"> <div>A label</div> <div>Another label</div> <div>Another label, but a longer label</div> </div> What I want to achieve is the following: My div box has a fixed width (120px by default). In this configuration, every label nested in the box must be written in a single line. If the text is too long, then the overflow must be hidden. In my example, the third item will be displayed Another label, but a or Another label, but a .... When the cursor is entering the div box, the width of the box is modified (for example to 200px). In this configuration, the labels that were shorten in the first configuration are now displayed in the whole space. With my code snippet, the third label is displayed in two lines when the box has a 120px, and I do not want that... How can I achieve that? Note that I would be great if the solution works also for IE6! Even if I prefer a pure CSS/HTML solution, (simple) Javascript (and jQuery) is allowed!

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  • How do I capture keystrokes on the web?

    - by Sean
    Using PHP, JS, or HTML (or something similar) how would I capture keystokes? Such as if the user presses ctrl+f or maybe even just f, a certain function will happen. ++++++++++++++++++++++++EDIT+++++++++++++++++++ Ok, so is this correct, because I can't get it to work. And I apologize for my n00bness is this is an easy question, new to jQuery and still learning more and more about JS. <script> var element = document.getElementById('capture'); element.onkeypress = function(e) { var ev = e || event; if(ev.keyCode == 70) { alert("hello"); } } </script> <div id="capture"> Hello, Testing 123 </div> ++++++++++++++++EDIT++++++++++++++++++ Here is everything, but I can't get it to work: <link rel="icon" href="favicon.ico" type="image/x-icon"> <style> * { margin: 0px } div { height: 250px; width: 630px; overflow: hidden; vertical-align: top; position: relative; background-color: #999; } iframe { position: absolute; left: -50px; top: -130px; } </style> <script> document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].onkeyup = function(e) { var ev = e || event; if(ev.keyCode == 70 && ev.ctrlKey) { //control+f alert("hello"); } } </script> <div id="capture"> Hello, Testing 123<!--<iframe src="http://www.pandora.com/" scrolling="no" width="1000" height="515"frameborder="0"></iframe>--> </div>

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  • How to marshal an object and its content (also objects)

    - by Waldo Spek
    I have a question for which I suspect the answer is a bit complex. At this moment I am programming a DLL (class library) in C#. This DLL uses a 3rd party library and therefore deals with 3rd party objects of which I do not have the source code. Now I am planning to create another DLL, which is going to be used in a later stadium in my application. This second DLL should use the 3rd party objects (with corresponding object states) created by the first DLL. Luckily the 3rd party objects extend the MarshalByRefObject class. I can marshal the objects using System.Runtime.Remoting.Marshal(...). I then serialize the objects using a BinaryFormatter and store the objects as a byte[] array. All goes well. I can deserialize and unmarshal in a the opposite way and end up with my original 3rd party objects...so it appears... Nevertheless, when calling methods on my 3rd party deserialized objects I get object internal exceptions. Normally these methods return other 3rd party objects, but (obviously - I guess) now these objects are missing because they weren't serialized. Now my global question: how would I go about marshalling/serializing all the objects which my 3rd party objects reference...and cascade down the "reference tree" to obtain a full and complete serialized object? Right now my guess is to preprocess: obtain all the objects and build my own custom object and serialize it. But I'm hoping there is some other way...

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  • 3D and AI basics. The foundation before the coding.

    - by Allan
    Hi, everyone. (If you have the time and patience:) I've recently made the decision to study programming seriously and I'm about to order TAOCP and Concrete Mathematics to begin my studies (please don't get caught up on this). I'm very much interested in learning and understanding how 3D works but I'm aware that if I plan to do it right there's still a long walk before I get to actually play with 3D coding. Now to the question.. (tl;dr) Excluding programming itself, what disciplines do I have to be familiar with to code 3D? What kinds of mathematics? Physics? What else? What books do you recommend on such subjects? Now read it all again but replacing "3D" with "AI". Please don't recommend computer-specific books. The question is about the foundation to be learned before using the machine. Also, if possible, please keep the list brief; I plan to order one book on each subject but no more than that for now. Excuse me for any English mistakes, it's not my first language. Thank you.

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  • LINQ extention SelectMany in 3.5 vs 4.0?

    - by Moberg
    Hi When I saw Darins suggestion here .. IEnumerable<Process> processes = new[] { "process1", "process2" } .SelectMany(Process.GetProcessesByName); ( http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3059667/process-getprocessesbyname/3059733#3059733 ) .. I was a bit intrigued and I tried it in VS2008 with .NET 3.5 - and it did not compiling unless I changed it to .. IEnumerable<Process> res = new string[] { "notepad", "firefox", "outlook" } .SelectMany(s => Process.GetProcessesByName(s)); Having read some Darins answers before I suspected that it was me that were the problem, and when I later got my hands on a VS2010 with.NET 4.0 - as expected - the original suggestion worked beautifully. My question is : What have happend from 3.5 to 4.0 that makes this (new syntax) possible? Is it the extentionmethods that have been extended(hmm) or new rules for lambda syntax or? I've tried to search but my google-fu was not strong enough. Please forgive if the question is a bit naive and note that I've taged it as beginner :)

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  • S3 file Uploading from Mac app though PHP?

    - by Ilija Tovilo
    I have asked this question before, but it was deleted due too little information. I'll try to be more concrete this time. I have an Objective-C mac application, which should allow users to upload files to S3-storage. The s3 storage is mine, the users don't have an Amazon account. Until now, the files were uploaded directly to the amazon servers. After thinking some more about it, it wasn't really a great concept, regarding security and flexibility. I want to add a server in between. The user should authenticate with my server, the server would open a session if the authentication was successful, and the file-sharing could begin. Now my question. I want to upload the files to S3. One option would be to make a POST-request and wait until the server would receive the file. Problems here are, that there would be a delay, when the file is being uploaded from my server to the S3 servers, and it would double the uploading time. Best would be, if I could validate the request, and then redirecting it, so the client uploads it directly to the s3-storage. Not sure if this is possible somehow. Uploading directly to S3 doesn't seem to be very smart. After looking into other apps like Droplr and Dropmark, it looks like they don't do this. Btw. I did this using Little Snitch. They have their api on their own web-server, and that's it. Could someone clear things up for me? EDIT How should I transmit my files to S3? Is there a way to "forward" it, or do I have to upload it to my server and then upload it from there to S3? Like I said, other apps can do this efficiently and without the need of communicating with S3 directly.

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  • Why are changes to classes ignored after dom changes?

    - by Lg102
    I have a price grid that uses relative positioning to move a field around, beneath a box with: overflow: hidden;. In this is field, there are absolute-positioned boxes containing prices. When this box is hovered, the matching values above and left of the will change color. In order to achieve this, a class is toggled using jQuery. This initially works. However, after the grid is moved, the class change doesn't affect the block above the grid anymore. In the Chrome console, i can see the class being added, but it's css-styling isn't applied. No other styles for the element have changed. I am 100% sure there is no other style-rule influencing the element, it just stops responding to the change in class after the DOM has been altered. Can i 'refresh' the DOM somehow? Edit: I've tried to get the relevant code only: Adding the cell in the first place: $("#price_dates_cells").append("<div id='"+weekday[theBeginDate.getDay()]+"-"+theBeginDate.getDate()+"-"+(theBeginDate.getMonth()-1)+"' class='datecell' style='left: "+( Math.floor( difference / ( 3600 * 24 * 1000) ) * ( cellwidth ) )+"px'>"+weekday[theBeginDate.getDay()]+"<br>"+theBeginDate.getDate()+" "+yearmonth[theBeginDate.getMonth()]+"</div>"); Toggle the class: var str_element = "#"+weekday[Bdate.getDay()]+"-"+Bdate.getDate()+"-"+(Bdate.getMonth()-1); $(str_element).toggleClass("red"); and the movement that seems to cause the problem: $('#price_grid').animate({"top": (( ( horizontalMovement ) * cellheight)) }, 'fast', 'linear');

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  • How to get the set of beans that are to be created in Spring?

    - by cyborg
    So here's the scenario: I have a Spring XML configuration with some lazy-beans, some not lazy-beans and some beans that depend on other beans. Eventually Spring will resolve all this so that only the beans that are meant to be created are created. The question: how can I programmatically tell what this set is? When I use context.getBean(name) that initializes the bean. BeanDefinition.isLazyInit() will only tell me how I defined the bean. Any other ideas? ETA: In DefaultListableBeanFactory: public void preInstantiateSingletons() throws BeansException { if (this.logger.isInfoEnabled()) { this.logger.info("Pre-instantiating singletons in " + this); } synchronized (this.beanDefinitionMap) { for (Iterator it = this.beanDefinitionNames.iterator(); it.hasNext();) { String beanName = (String) it.next(); RootBeanDefinition bd = getMergedLocalBeanDefinition(beanName); if (!bd.isAbstract() && bd.isSingleton() && !bd.isLazyInit()) { if (isFactoryBean(beanName)) { FactoryBean factory = (FactoryBean) getBean(FACTORY_BEAN_PREFIX + beanName); if (factory instanceof SmartFactoryBean && ((SmartFactoryBean) factory).isEagerInit()) { getBean(beanName); } } else { getBean(beanName); } } } } } The set of instantiable beans is initialized. When initializing this set any beans not in this set referenced by this set will also be created. From looking through the source it does not look like there's going to be any easy way to answer my question.

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  • How to configure Server Topology for exposing an internal application for external access?

    - by ronaldwidha
    Hi All, I guess this question is bordering to a Server Fault question. I'd like to know the best configuration for exposing an internal application (in this case a load balanced Asp.Net MVC application) for external access. More details about the situation: The Asp.Net MVC Application is currently running on 2 servers The 2 servers are behind a Windows Network Load Balancer All the servers are on premise/internal network I'm thinking of introducing an F5 Load balancer on off premise DMZ to replace the Windows Network Load Balancer. F5 will act as the public traffic gateway and load balancers to the 2 servers. However, I'd like the internal users to not have go through the Internet to access the app. The idea that I have so far is to keep both Windows Network Load Balancer and the F5. Each appliance will have its own IP and will have its own domain name. External users can use the public domain name which will hit F5, whereas internal users can use the internal domain name which will hit the Windows Network Load Balancer. Is this a good idea? Or is there a better way of doing this?

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  • Span with white-space style in IE (7) applied _past_ end of span

    - by WaldenL
    We've got an application where users can enter "notes" into a rich edit control (Telerik's RedEditor, but that doesn't matter here). We had a user enter notes from w/in Safari that had a <span></span> in the middle of the note, and that span had a style on it specifying white-space:pre The HTML of the note was in the form of: <div> This is a note <span class="Apple-tab-span" style="white-space: pre; "> </span> and here's more of the note. </div> Simple enough, the style should apply to the span, and the span had 4 spaces in it. There should have been 4 spaces in the resulting output. Here's the problem. IE seems to apply that white-space: pre; style not only to the span, but to the enclosing div! Therefore, this long line that should have wrapped since it's not in the span, now pushed the document out until the line fits on the page. What am I missing. I know IE has problems, but this doesn't seem right, even for IE. So, the question(s): 1) Am I correct that the white-space attribute should only have applied to the span? 2) Can this be resolved somehow? Remember, I'm not in control of the content being entered. And it's entered from a mac w/Safari and being viewed in IE. Edit: The doctype on the page in question is: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd">

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  • Responsive logo (image replacement) in html5boilerplate

    - by Barbara
    I'm using the responsive version of html5 boilerplate via initializr.com. My site uses a custom logo so i added the .ir class to h1 .ir { background-color: transparent; border: 0; overflow: hidden; *text-indent: -9999px; } like this <h1 class="title ir">h1.title</h1> The documentation says Add the .ir class to any element you are applying image-replacement to. When replacing an element's content with an image, make sure to also set a specific background-image: url(pathtoimage.png);, width, and height so that your replacement image appears. So I added to the code these lines .ir { background-image: url(http://i.imgur.com/yYnyJ.jpg); background-size: 100% auto; width:450px; height:450px } The problem are the specific width and height. I can't get rid of them but the logo is not responsive this way. Ideas? Here's the fiddle. http://jsfiddle.net/qeW3e/

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  • Why can't I play videos on my Samsung Moment w/Android 2.1 that did play on 1.5?

    - by cpcarroll71
    Hello all. I was directed here by the Google Android Devs Group. I'm still not sure if this is the place I need to be. I've been on forum after forum and asked the same question but no one seems to know the answer or will tell me the REAL correct place to find it. I have a Samsung Moment with Android 2.1. I can not get videos that DID play on Android 1.5 to play on 2.1 now with very few exceptions. I'm not just talking about different videos with the same format, I'm talking about some of the exact same videos that did play in 1.5 will no longer play in 2.1. These are almost all AVI files. If Android doesn't support AVI natively with it's own stock media player then why or how was I able to play these videos flawlessly on 1.5? The way I always played the videos was viewing my SD card, tapping the thumbnail of the video I wanted, and it would automatically open up in the phones media player right away. Now the phone locks up and then eventually gives an error message. Please tell me someone here knows what is going on and if there is a way to fix this. Or if nothing else, tell me where I do need to look to ask this question and find an answer. Thank you.

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  • text-align:justify is not getting applied

    - by vDeepak
    I have added the following code sample in my .html file: <div Class="Frame" Style="left:85.8pt; top:198.5pt; width:415.5pt; height:43pt; position:absolute; background-color:rgb(201,201,201); overflow:hidden; border:0px Solid rgb(0,0,0);"> <p Style="text-align:justify; text-align-last:justify; padding-top:0pt; padding-bottom:0pt;"> <span Style="height:14.4pt; width:415.5pt;" class="ln"> <span Style="font-size:12pt; font-family:F0; word-spacing:5.09135818481445em; letter-spacing:0em; color: rgb(0,0,0);">Sample Text Here</span> </span> </p> </div> But the text-align:justify is not getting applied.

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  • Synchronous Android activities

    - by rayman
    Ive made mis-leading topic in my last question, so i open this new question to clear what I realy want. sorry for the inconvenience. I wanna run two system(Android) activities one after another in specific order from my main activity. now as we know, startActivity is an asynchronous operation, so i cant keep on a specific order. so i thought maybe I should try to do it with dialogBox in the middle but also running a dialogBox is an asynchronous. now as i said the activities which i try to run are Android activities, so i cant even start them with startActivityForResult (or mybe i can, but i dont get any result back to my main(calling) activity) Any tricks how could i manage with this issue? Some code: first activity: Intent intent = new Intent(); intent.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); intent.setAction(Settings.ACTION_APPLICATION_SETTINGS); startActivity(intent); second activity: Intent intent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); intent.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); intent.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(tmpPackageFile .getAbsoluteFile()), "application/vnd.android.package-archive"); startActivity(intent); as you can see, i dont have any access to those activites, i can just run thire intents from my main activity.

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  • Is it getting to be time for C# to support compile-time macros?

    - by Robert Rossney
    Thus far, Microsoft's C# team has resisted adding formal compile-time macro capabilities to the language. There are aspects of programming with WPF that seem (to me, at least) to be creating some compelling use cases for macros. Dependency properties, for instance. It would be so nice to just be able to do something like this: [DependencyProperty] public string Foo { get; set; } and have the body of the Foo property and the static FooProperty property be generated automatically at compile time. Or, for another example an attribute like this: [NotifyPropertyChanged] public string Foo { get; set; } that would make the currently-nonexistent preprocessor produce this: private string _Foo; public string Foo { get { return _Foo; } set { _Foo = value; OnPropertyChanged("Foo"); } } You can implement change notification with PostSharp, and really, maybe PostSharp is a better answer to the question. I really don't know. Assuming that you've thought about this more than I have, which if you've thought about it at all you probably have, what do you think? (This is clearly a community wiki question and I've marked it accordingly.)

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  • Performing centralized authorization for multiple applications

    - by Vaibhav
    Here's a question that I have been wrestling with for a while. We have a situation wherein we have a number of applications that we have created. These have grown organically over a period of time. All of these applications have permissions code built into them that controls access to various parts of the application depending on whether the currently logged in user has the necessary permissions or not. Alongside these applications is a utility application which allows an administrator to map users to permissions for all applications - the way it works is that every application has code which reads this external database of the said utility application to check if the currently logged in user has the necessary permission or not. Now, the question is this. Should the user-permissions mapping information reside in and be owned by the applications themselves, or is it okay to have this information reside within an external entity/DB (as in this case the utility application's database). Part of me thinks that application permissions are very specific to the application context itself, so shouldn't be separated from the application itself. But I am not sure. Any comments?

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  • C++: Copy contructor: Use Getters or access member vars directly?

    - by cbrulak
    Have a simple container class: public Container { public: Container() {} Container(const Container& cont) //option 1 { SetMyString(cont.GetMyString()); } //OR Container(const Container& cont) //option 2 { m_str1 = cont.m_str1; } public string GetMyString() { return m_str1;} public void SetMyString(string str) { m_str1 = str;} private: string m_str1; } So, would you recommend this method or accessing the member variables directly? In the example, all code is inline, but in our real code there is no inline code. Update (29 Sept 09): Some of these answers are well written however they seem to get missing the point of this question: this is simple contrived example to discuss using getters/setters vs variables initializer lists or private validator functions are not really part of this question. I'm wondering if either design will make the code easier to maintain and expand. Some ppl are focusing on the string in this example however it is just an example, imagine it is a different object instead. I'm not concerned about performance. we're not programming on the PDP-11

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