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• Bundle a Python app as a single file to support add-ons or extensions?

  - by Brandon Craig Rhodes

  There are several utilities — all with different procedures, limitations, and target operating systems — for getting a Python package and all of its dependencies and turning them into a single binary program that is easy to ship to customers: http://wiki.python.org/moin/Freeze http://www.pyinstaller.org/ http://www.py2exe.org/ http://svn.pythonmac.org/py2app/py2app/trunk/doc/index.html My situation goes one step further: third-party developers will be wanting to write plug-ins, extensions, or add-ons for my application. It is, of course, a daunting question how users on platforms like Windows would most easily install plugins or addons in such a way that my app can easily discover that they have been installed. But beyond that basic question is another: how can a third-party developer bundle their extension with whatever libraries the extension itself needs (which might be binary modules, like lxml) in such a way that the plugin's dependencies become available for import at the same time that the plugin becomes available. How can this be approached? Will my application need its own plug-in area on disk and its own plug-in registry to make this tractable? Or are there general mechanisms, that I could avoid writing myself, that would allow an app that is distributed as a single executable to look around and find plugins that are also installed as single files?

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• What's the best practice to setup testing for ASP.Net MVC? What to use/process/etc?

  - by melaos

  hi there, i'm trying to learn how to properly setup testing for an ASP.Net MVC. and from what i've been reading here and there thus far, the definition of legacy code kind of piques my interests, where it mentions that legacy codes are any codes without unit tests. so i did my project in a hurry not having the time to properly setup unit tests for the app and i'm still learning how to properly do TDD and unit testing at the same time. then i came upon selenium IDE/RC and was using it to test on the browser end. it was during that time too that i came upon the concept of integration testing, so from my understanding it seems that unit testing should be done to define the test and basic assumptions of each function, and if the function is dependent on something else, that something else needs to be mocked so that the tests is always singular and can be run fast. Questions: so am i right to say that the project should have started with unit test with proper mocks using something like rhino mocks. then anything else which requires 3rd party dll, database data access etc to be done via integration testing using selenium? because i have a function which calls a third party dll, i'm not sure whether to write a unit test in nunit to just instantiate the object and pass it some dummy data which breaks the mocking part to test it or just cover that part in my selenium integration testing when i submit my forms and call the dll. and for user acceptance tests, is it safe to say we can just use selenium again? Am i missing something or is there a better way/framework? i'm trying to put in more tests for regression testing, and to ensure that nothing breaks when we put in new features. i also like the idea of TDD because it helps to better define the function, sort of like a meta documentation. thanks!! hope this question isn't too subjective because i need it for my case.

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• Convert a Unit Vector to a Quaternion

  - by Hmm

  So I'm very new to quaternions, but I understand the basics of how to manipulate stuff with them. What I'm currently trying to do is compare a known quaternion to two absolute points in space. I'm hoping what I can do is simply convert the points into a second quaternion, giving me an easy way to compare the two. What I've done so far is to turn the two points into a unit vector. From there I was hoping I could directly plug in the i j k into the imaginary portion of the quaternion with a scalar of zero. From there I could multiply one quaternion by the other's conjugate, resulting in a third quaternion. This third quaternion could be converted into an axis angle, giving me the degree by which the original two quaternions differ by. Is this thought process correct? So it should just be [ 0 i j k ]. I may need to normalize the quaternion afterwards, but I'm not sure about that. I have a bad feeling that it's not a direct mapping from a vector to a quaternion. I tried looking at converting the unit vector to an axis angle, but I'm not sure this would work, since I don't know what angle to give as an input.

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• Need Advice on designing ATL inproc Server (dll) that serves as both a soure and a sink of events.

  - by Andrew

  Hi, I need to design an ATL inproc server that besides exposing methods and properties, also can fire events (source) and serve as a sink for a third party COM control that fires events. I would assume that this is a fairly common requirement. I can also foresee several "gotchas" that I would like to read up on before commencing the design. My questions/concerns are: Can someone point me to an example? Which threading model to use? Should I have a seperate COM object for the sink? Should I, and how do I, protect certain memory. For example, my server will receive data from the third party control. It will save this, and in some cases, fire an event to interested clients. The interested clients will request the data through a standard method or property. I did try to research this myself. I can find many examples of COM servers that are soures, and some that are sinks, but never both. The only post I did find was this: http://www.generation-nt.com/us/atl-control-an-event-source-sink-help-9098542.html Which strongly advocates putting the sink on a seperate COM object. Any leads, tutorials or ideas would be much appreciated. Thanks, Andrew

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• Table borders don't display properly when converted from HTML page into MS Word 2003

  - by Daria

  Hello everyone, I've got a bit of a complicated set up. I specialise in XSLT which I write for 3rd party system. All CSS looks fine in the browser. Now that system provides a button that converts my generated HTML into MS Word 2003. However, table borders don't convert as they appear in a Browser. There are lots of tables and they have different borders setup. For example there is one that uses only outside border and no borders inside it. When converting to MS Word, a table appears with ALL the borders in between cells. Which I don't want. I've tried search the Internet, but didn't come across anything useful. Maybe there are tips or tricks on how to set up tables borders so it's understood properly by MS Word. The third party said the following: "The system just passes the HTML created through the converter it finds in the installed version of Word". I would really appreciate any tips and help! Dasha

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• How to get around the event bubble using jQuery's: .live()

  - by Nick

  Hi there. Here is the code in question: $(".navItems>ul>li").live('click', function(){ var selectorID = $(this).attr('id'); $(".infoList").slideUp('fast', function(){ switchTabInfo(selectorID); }); function switchTabInfo(selectorID){ var actionID = selectorID.substring(4); actionID = "#" + actionID; $(actionID).slideDown(); } So in short i have a these .infoList classes with id names tied to back to the nav li id. That lists item's id might be nav_testsHistory for example. With all the content boxes hidden by class name this javascript makes a pleasing slide up, down effect. But the third content box flickers as will the second one after a third box push. It slides up and down a second unnecessary time. If I add an alert like this: $(".navItems>ul>li").live('click', function(){ var selectorID = $(this).attr('id'); $(".infoList").slideUp('fast', function(){ switchTabInfo(selectorID); alert('bubble'); }); The alert fires 3 times?! So my research took to reading about the event bubble. What I cannot find is how to check if it has been fired. I have not tried setting an input val and doing a tf test around the nested slider action. Cause that's crude. More info, all the code above is in a function, which is in an init() function, which is called on document ready. That's the only js file besides jquery 1.3.2. What do you guys think?

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• .NET - A way to add my own clipboard format to existing formats

  - by A9S6

  I have a Excel addin that displays some structures on the worksheet. Users can copy the structures and paste them in another worksheet or another application which is handled by the Clipboard formats. When a user copies the structure, I convert the structure into a specific format and put it on the clipboard using the DataObject::SetData(). Please note that when a copy is initiated in Excel, it puts a number of formats on the clipboard (see image). The problem is that there is a third party application that depends on the data on the clipboard(Copy from Excel and paste into this 3rd party app) but the funny thing is that I am not sure which format it depends on. I need to preserve the existing formats that Excel has put up there and also add my own format to it. Currently when I use the Clipboard class in .NET (taking the DataObject and calling SetData inside it), all the other formats are replaced by new ones. I then tried to create a new DataObject, copy the existing format data to this data object and then set this data object in the Clipboard. This works fine but it takes time to copy the data. // Copying existing data in clipboard to our new DataObject IDataObject existingDataObject = Clipboard.GetDataObject(); DataObject dataObject = new DataObject(); string[] existingFormats = existingDataObject.GetFormats(); foreach (string existingFormat in existingFormats) dataObject.SetData(existingFormat, existingDataObject.GetData(existingFormat)); I am looking for a solution to just access the existing DataObject and quietly add my own data to it without affecting other formats. Excel Clipboard Formats - (Ignore the Native Format)

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• Is there anyway to close a StreamWriter without closing it's BaseStream?

  - by Binary Worrier

  My root problem is that when using calls Dispose on a StreamWriter, it also disposes the BaseStream (same problem with Close). I have a workaround for this, but as you can see it involves copying the stream. Is there any way to do this without copying the stream? The purpose of this is to get the contents of a string (originally read from a database) into a stream, so the stream can be read by a third party component. NB I cannot change the third party component. public System.IO.Stream CreateStream(string value) { var baseStream = new System.IO.MemoryStream(); var baseCopy = new System.IO.MemoryStream(); using (var writer = new System.IO.StreamWriter(baseStream, System.Text.Encoding.UTF8)) { writer.Write(value); writer.Flush(); baseStream.WriteTo(baseCopy); } baseCopy.Seek(0, System.IO.SeekOrigin.Begin); return baseCopy; } Used as public void Noddy() { System.IO.Stream myStream = CreateStream("The contents of this string are unimportant"); My3rdPartyComponent.ReadFromStream(myStream); } Ideally I'm looking for an imaginery method called BreakAssociationWithBaseStream, e.g. public System.IO.Stream CreateStream_Alternate(string value) { var baseStream = new System.IO.MemoryStream(); using (var writer = new System.IO.StreamWriter(baseStream, System.Text.Encoding.UTF8)) { writer.Write(value); writer.Flush(); writer.BreakAssociationWithBaseStream(); } return baseStream; }

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• LotusScript - Setting element in for loop

  - by Kris.Mitchell

  I have an array set up Dim managerList(1 To 50, 1 To 100) As String what I am trying to do, is set the first, second, and third elements in the row managerList(index,1) = tempManagerName managerList(index,2) = tempIdeaNumber managerList(index,3) = 1 But get an error when I try to do that saying that the object variable is not set. I maintain index as an integer, and the value corresponds to a single manager, but I can't seem to manually set the third element. The first and second elements set correctly. On the flip side, I have the following code that will allow for the element to be set, For x=1 To 50 If StrConv(tempManagerName,3) = managerList(x,1) Then found = x For y=3 to 100 If managerList(x,y) = "" Then managerList(x,y) = tempIdeaNumber Exit for End If Next Exit For End If Next It spins through the array (laterally) trying to find an empty element. Ideally I would like to set the index of the element the y variable is on into the 3rd element in the row, to keep a count of how many ideas are on the row. What is the best way to keep a count like this? Any idea why I am getting a Object variable not set error when I try to manually set the element?

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• Can you help with this assembly language code?

  - by Mugen

  Hi, I've been looking through a piece of code of a pc game that I'm trying to "improve". (ok so maybe I suck at the game but I still want to play it). Could you please look into the following code: fld dword ptr[ebp+00007B1C] fsub dword ptr[esp+64] fst dword ptr[ebp+00007B1C] call 004A2E48 This code is called every second for the level countdown timer. I need to stay on a particular level for a few minutes. If I can modify the above code so that the value pushed into the address [ebp+00007B1C] is 0 then the game level will always time out and it will save me playing those crazy "survival" minigames. I'll explain what I understand from this code. Dont worry, you dont have to go deep into this. In the first line we get the timer value. For example if 97 seconds are remaining then it is here that this value is loaded. In the second line a value (1 second) is subtracted from 97. In the third line 96 is again moved to memory. And finally we have the function call that will do other processing based on the time remaining. Now all I need to do is patch this piece of code somehow so that the value that is pushed is 0 (in the third step). Can you please help me out with this?

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• Flex 3: should I provide prepared data to my component or make it to process data before display?

  - by grapkulec

  I'm starting to learn a little Flex just for fun and maybe to prove that I still can learn something new :) I have some idea for a project and one of its parts is a tree component which could display data in different ways depending on configuration. The idea There is list of objects having properties like id, date, time, name, description. And sometimes list should be displayed like this: first level: date second level: time third level: name and sometimes like this: first level: year second level: month third level: day fourth level: time and name By level I mean level of nesting of course. So, we can have years, that have months, that have days, that have hours and so forth. The problem What could be the best way to do it? I mean, should I prepare data for different ways of nesting outside of component or even outside of flex? I can do it at web service level in C# where I plan to have database access layer and send to flex nice and ready to display XML or array of objects. But I wonder if that won't cause additional and maybe unneccessary network traffic. I tried to hack some code in my component to convert my data objects into XML or ArrayCollection but I don't know enough of Flex and got stuck on elimination of duplicates or getting specific data by some key value. Usually to do such things I have STL with maps, sets and vectors and I find Flex arrays and even Dictionary a little bit confusing (I've read language reference and googled without any significant luck). The question So, to sum things up: should I give my tree component data prepared just for chosen type of display or should I try to do it internally inside component (or some helper class written in ActionScript)?

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• Table valued function only returns CLR error

  - by Anthony

  I have read-only access to a database that was set up for a third-party, closed-source app. Once group of (hopefully) useful table functions only returns the error: Failed to initialize the Common Language Runtime (CLR) v2.0.50727 with HRESULT 0x80131522. You need to restart SQL server to use CLR integration features. (severity 16) But in theory, the third-party app should be able to use the function (either directly or indirectly), so I'm convinced I'm not setting things up right. I'm very new to SQL Server, so I could be missing something obvious. Or I could be missing something really slight, I have no idea. Here is an example of a query that returns the above error: SELECT * FROM dbo.UncompressDataDateRange(4,'Apr 24 2010 12:00AM','Apr 30 2010 12:00AM') Where the function takes three parameters: The Data Set (int) -- basically the data has 6 classifications, and the giant table this should be pulling from has a column to indicate which is which. startDate (smalldatetime) endDate (smalldatetime) There are other, similar functions that expand on the same idea, all returning the same error. Quick Note: I'm not sure if this is relevant, but I was able to connect to the database via SQL Studio (but without the privs to script the functions as code), and a checked the dependency for the above sample function. It turns out that it is a dependent of a view that I have gotten to work, and that view is dependent of the larger, much-hairier data-table. This makes me think I should somehow be pointing the function at the results of the view, but I'm not seeing any documentation that shows how that is done.

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• Python subprocess Popen.communicate() equivalent to Popen.stdout.read()?

  - by Christophe

  Very specific question (I hope): What are the differences between the following three codes? (I expect it to be only that the first does not wait for the child process to be finished, while the second and third ones do. But I need to be sure this is the only difference...) I also welcome other remarks/suggestions (though I'm already well aware of the shell=True dangers and cross-platform limitations) Note that I already read Python subprocess interaction, why does my process work with Popen.communicate, but not Popen.stdout.read()? and that I do not want/need to interact with the program after. Also note that I already read Alternatives to Python Popen.communicate() memory limitations? but that I didn't really get it... First code: from subprocess import Popen, PIPE def exe_f(command='ls -l', shell=True): "Function to execute a command and return stuff" process = Popen(command, shell=shell, stdout=PIPE, stderr=PIPE) stdout = process.stdout.read() stderr = process.stderr.read() return process, stderr, stdout Second code: from subprocess import Popen, PIPE from subprocess import communicate def exe_f(command='ls -l', shell=True): "Function to execute a command and return stuff" process = Popen(command, shell=shell, stdout=PIPE, stderr=PIPE) (stdout, stderr) = process.communicate() return process, stderr, stdout Third code: from subprocess import Popen, PIPE from subprocess import wait def exe_f(command='ls -l', shell=True): "Function to execute a command and return stuff" process = Popen(command, shell=shell, stdout=PIPE, stderr=PIPE) code = process.wait() stdout = process.stdout.read() stderr = process.stderr.read() return process, stderr, stdout Thanks.

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• SubSonic 3 screws up selecteditem?

  - by SteveCav

  If you have a moment, please try this: -Download Subsonic 3. -Start a new proj and add SS's ActiveRecord templates. -Point it to any SQL Server DB and generate the classes. -Add a WPF project. -Create a window and add a combobox or listbox. -Set the ItemsSource from the SS DAL, and format it how you wish. -Add a button that will show you some value from the SelectedItem (using messagebox, console, whatever). -Run the project. -Click on the third item in the list. -Click on the second item in the list. -Click on the button. When I do that, the button gives me the value of the THIRD item, not the second. In other words, once the SelectedItem is set the first time it STAYS, no matter which item is subsequently highlighted on the screen. This is happening to me whatever control I use (combobox, listbox, even datagrid) and it ONLY happens with Subsonic Activerecord objects. If I write my own POCOs with identical properties and bind a list of them instead, the controls behave as expected. Does this happen to you? Any ideas?

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• Why isn't my UITableView appearing in the correct scroll position?

  - by zbrimhall

  I have a split view-based app that presents a master-detail interface, and uses a popover to present the master list when in portrait mode. The popover presents a sectioned table view that ultimately gets populated by a subclass of NSFetchedResultsController. I can tap the tool bar button to present the master list, scroll to whatever row, and tap the row to dismiss the popover. My problem is that if the table is scrolled past the top of the second section, when I dismiss the popover and then later tap the toolbar button to re-present it, the table's scroll position is always set such that the first row of the second section is at the top of the list. If I haven't scrolled past the top of the second section, it correctly remembers its scroll position when the table is presented again. Similarly, in landscape mode, if I scroll the table past the top of the third section and then rotate to portrait, when I come back to landscape the scroll position is always set such that the first row of the third section is at the top of the list. I tried calling -scrollToNearestSelectedRowAtScrollPosition:animated in both the master view controller's -viewWillAppear, as well as in the split view delegate's splitViewController:popoverController:willPresentViewController:, to no effect. Anybody have a clue what I might be doing wrong?

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• Asp.Net tree view in SharePoint webpart- Input string error

  - by Faiz

  Hi All, I am facing a very strange issue. I have a SharePoint webpart that displays an asp.net tree view. It takes tree depth from a drop down. To improve performance of the tree view, i am setting the PopulateOnDemand property to true for the last level of the tree depth. For example, if i have a total of 10 levels in the data and the user selects tree depth as 3, then the third level data i set PopulateOnDemand to true. Now comes the strange part. When i click on the + image on the third level, and if there are children under that particular node then call back happens and node gets expanded. But if there no children for that particular node, then click + throws "Input string was not in the correct format" error. I have made sure that there is no server side error. Some things looks to be fishy when internet explorer is trying to bind construct the expanded node. Please let me know if any one faced similar issue or the resolution for the same? Thanks in advance

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• WCF service with PHP client - complex type as parameter not working

  - by Matt F

  Hi, I have a WCF service with three methods. Two of the methods return custom types (these work as expected), and the third method takes a custom type as a parameter and returns a boolean. When calling the third method via a PHP soap client it returns an 'Object reference not set to an instance of an object' exception. Example Custom Type: _ Public Class MyClass Private _propertyA As Double <DataMember()> _ Public Property PropertyA() As Double Get Return _propertyA End Get Set(ByVal value As Double) _propertyA = value End Set End Property Private _propertyB As Double <DataMember()> _ Public Property PropertyB() As Double Get Return _propertyB End Get Set(ByVal value As Double) _propertyB = value End Set End Property Private _propertyC As Date <DataMember()> _ Public Property PropertyC() As Date Get Return _propertyC End Get Set(ByVal value As Date) _propertyC = value End Set End Property End Class Method: Public Function Add(ByVal param As MyClass) As Boolean Implements IService1.Add ' ... End Function PHP client call: $client-Add(array('param'=array( 'PropertyA' = 1, 'PropertyB' = 2, 'PropertyC' = "2009-01-01" ))); The WCF service works fine with a .Net client but I'm new to PHP and can't get this to work. Is it possible to create an instance of 'MyClass' in PHP. Any help would be appreciated. Note: I'm using PHP 5 (XAMPP 1.7.0 for Windows). Thanks Matt

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• Generate an ID via COM interop

  - by Erik van Brakel

  At the moment, we've got an unmaintanable ball of code which offers an interface to a third party application. The third party application has a COM assembly which MUST be used to create new entries. This process involves two steps: generate a new object (basically an ID), and update that object with new field values. Because COM interop is so slow, we only use that to generate the ID (and related objects) in the database. The actual update is done using a regular SQL query. What I am trying to figure out if it's possible to use NHibernate to do some of the heavy lifting for us, without bypassing the COM assembly. Here's the code for saving something to the database as I envision it: using(var s = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) using(var t = s.BeginTransaction()) { MyEntity entity = new MyEntity(); s.Save(entity); t.Commit(); } Regular NH code I'd say. Now, this is where it gets tricky. I think I have to supply my own implementation of NHibernate.Id.IIdentifierGenerator which calls the COM assembly in the Generate method. That's not a problem. What IS a problem is that the COM assembly requires initialisation, which does take a bit of time. It also doesn't like multiple instances in the same process, for some reason. What I would like to know is if there's a way to properly access an external service in the generator code. I'm free to use any technique I want, so if it involves something like an IoC container that's no problem. The thing I am looking for is where exactly to hook-up my code so I can access the things I need in my generator, without having to resort to using singletons or other nasty stuff.

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• eclipse, one classpath for compiling, another for launching

  - by DragonFax

  example: For logging, my code uses log4j. but other jars my code is dependent upon, uses slf4j instead. So both jars must be in the build path. Unfortunately, its possible for my code to directly use (depend on) slf4j now, either by context-assist, or some other developers changes. I would like any use of slf4j to show up as an error, but my application (and tests) will still need it in the classpath when running. explanation: I'd like to find out if this is possible in eclipse. This scenario happens often for me. I'll have a large project, that uses alot of 3rd party libraries. And of course those 3rd party jars have their own dependencies as well. So I have to include all dependencies in the classpath ("build path" in eclipse) for the application and its tests to compile and run (from within eclipse). But I don't want my code to use all of those jars, just the few direct dependencies I've decided upon myself. So if my code accidentally uses a dependency of a dependency, I want it to show up as a compilation error. Ideally, as class not found, but any error would do. I know I can manually configure the classpath when running outside of eclipse, and even within eclipse I can modify the classpath for a specific class I'm running (in the run configurations), but thats not manageable if you run alot of individual test cases, or have alot of main() classes.

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• function objects versus function pointers

  - by kumar_m_kiran

  Hi All, I have two questions related to function objects and function pointers, Question : 1 When I read the different uses sort algorithm of STL, I see that the third parameter can be a function objects, below is an example class State { public: //... int population() const; float aveTempF() const; //... }; struct PopLess : public std::binary_function<State,State,bool> { bool operator ()( const State &a, const State &b ) const { return popLess( a, b ); } }; sort( union, union+50, PopLess() ); Question : Now, How does the statement, sort(union, union+50,PopLess()) work? PopLess() must be resolved into something like PopLess tempObject.operator() which would be same as executing the operator () function on a temporary object. I see this as, passing the return value of overloaded operation i.e bool (as in my example) to sort algorithm. So then, How does sort function resolve the third parameter in this case? Question : 2 Question Do we derive any particular advantage of using function objects versus function pointer? If we use below function pointer will it derive any disavantage? inline bool popLess( const State &a, const State &b ) { return a.population() < b.population(); } std::sort( union, union+50, popLess ); // sort by population PS : Both the above references(including example) are from book "C++ Common Knowledge: Essential Intermediate Programming" by "Stephen C. Dewhurst". I was unable to decode the topic content, thus have posted for help. Thanks in advance for your help.

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• Get Function Pointer to function in a shared library I didn't directly load

  - by bdk

  My Linux application (A) links against a Third Party shared Library (B) which I don't have source code to. This library makes use of another third party shared library that I don't have source code to (C). I believe that (B) uses dlopen to access (C) instead of directly linking. My reasoning for this is that 'ldd' on (B) does not show (C) and objdump -X (B) shows references to dlopen/dlclose/dlsym. My requirement is that I need to in my code for (A) get a function pointer to a function foo() located in (C). Normally I'd use dlsym for this, but I need to pass it the handle returned from dlopen which I don't have since (B) does not expose this. - For the larger context: I need to modify the function in (C) such that everytime it calls its helper function bar() (also located in (C)), it also calls a function with the same signature located in (A) with the same parameters (Basically inject my code into the codepath of (C) foo()-bar(). I believe I've found a way to accomplish this using gdb, but in order to port my gdb command list, but I'm stuck on the step of getting the function pointer. I'm also open to alternatives to accomplish the same task rather than the exact problem as stated above Edit: After writing this I realized I can probably just do another dlopen on the file in my code and the symbols returned via dlsym on that handle should be the same as received via the original dlopen, If I'm reading the dlopen man page correctly. However I'm still interested in advice or assistance with the my larger context, If theres a better way to go about this

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• How can I work out what events are being waited for with WinDBG in a kernel debug session

  - by Benj

  I'm a complete WinDbg newbie and I've been trying to debug a WindowsXP problem that a customer has sent me where our software and some third party software prevent windows from logging off. I've reproduced the problem and have verified that only when our software and the customers software are both installed (although not necessarily running at logoff) does the log off problem occur. I've observed that WM_ENDSESSION messages are not reaching the running windows when the user tries to log off and I know that the third party software uses a kernel driver. I've been looking at the processes in WinDbg and I know that csrss.exe would normally send all the windows a WM_ENDSESSION message. When I ran: !process 82356020 6 To look at csrss.exe's stack I can see: WARNING: Frame IP not in any known module. Following frames may be wrong. 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 0x7c90e514 THREAD 8246d998 Cid 0248.02a0 Teb: 7ffd7000 Win32Thread: e1627008 WAIT: (WrUserRequest) UserMode Non-Alertable 8243d9f0 SynchronizationEvent 81fe0390 SynchronizationEvent Not impersonating DeviceMap e1004450 Owning Process 82356020 Image: csrss.exe Attached Process N/A Image: N/A Wait Start TickCount 1813 Ticks: 20748 (0:00:05:24.187) Context Switch Count 3 LargeStack UserTime 00:00:00.000 KernelTime 00:00:00.000 Start Address 0x75b67cdf Stack Init f80bd000 Current f80bc9c8 Base f80bd000 Limit f80ba000 Call 0 Priority 14 BasePriority 13 PriorityDecrement 0 DecrementCount 0 Kernel stack not resident. ChildEBP RetAddr Args to Child f80bc9e0 80500ce6 00000000 8246d998 804f9af2 nt!KiSwapContext+0x2e (FPO: [Uses EBP] [0,0,4]) f80bc9ec 804f9af2 804f986e e1627008 00000000 nt!KiSwapThread+0x46 (FPO: [0,0,0]) f80bca24 bf80a4a3 00000002 82475218 00000001 nt!KeWaitForMultipleObjects+0x284 (FPO: [Non-Fpo]) f80bca5c bf88c0a6 00000001 82475218 00000000 win32k!xxxMsgWaitForMultipleObjects+0xb0 (FPO: [Non-Fpo]) f80bcd30 bf87507d bf9ac0a0 00000001 f80bcd54 win32k!xxxDesktopThread+0x339 (FPO: [Non-Fpo]) f80bcd40 bf8010fd bf9ac0a0 f80bcd64 00bcfff4 win32k!xxxCreateSystemThreads+0x6a (FPO: [Non-Fpo]) f80bcd54 8053d648 00000000 00000022 00000000 win32k!NtUserCallOneParam+0x23 (FPO: [Non-Fpo]) f80bcd54 7c90e514 00000000 00000022 00000000 nt!KiFastCallEntry+0xf8 (FPO: [0,0] TrapFrame @ f80bcd64) This waitForMultipleObjects looks interesting because I'm wondering if csrss.exe is waiting on some event which isn't arriving to allow the logoff. Can anyone tell me how I might find out what event it's waiting for anything else I might do to further investigate the problem?

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• Limiting ssh user account only to access his home directory!

  - by EBAGHAKI

  By reading some tutorials online I used these commands: Make a local group: net localgroup CopsshUsers /ADD Deny access to this group at top level: cacls c:\ /c /e /t /d CopsshUsers Open access to the copSSH installation directory: cacls copssh-inst-dir /c /e /t /r CopsshUsers Add Copssh user to the group above: net localgroup CopsshUsers mysshuser /add simply put these commands will try to create a usergroup that has no permission on your computer and it only have access to the copSSH Installation directory. This is not true, since you cannot change the permission on your windows directory, the third command won't remove access to windows folder (it says access denied on his log). Somehow I achieved that by taking ownership of Windows folder and then i execute the third command so CopsshUsers has no permissions on windows folder from now on. Now i tried to SSH to the server and it simply can't login! this is kind of funny because with permission on windows directory you can login and without it you can't!! So if you CAN SSH to the server somehow you know that you have access to the windows directory! (Is this really true??) Simple task: Limiting ssh user account only to access his home directory on WINDOWS and nothing else! Guys please help!

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• Question about Reporting and Data Warehousing Software bundled with SQL Server 2005

  - by anonymous user

  We currently use SQL Server 2005 Enterprise for our fairly large application, that has its roots in pre SQL Server 7.0. The tables are normalized and designed mainly for the application. The developers for the most part have the legacy SQL Server mindset. Only using the part of TSQL that existed back in 7.0, not using any of the new features of tsql or that are bundled with 2005. We're currently trying to build on demand reports using some crappy third party software, and will eventually try to build a data warehouse using more of the same crappy third party software (name removed to protect the guilty, don't ask I will not tell). The rationale for this was that we didn't want to spend more money to buy this additional software from Microsoft (this was not my decision, I had no input, but is my problem now). But from what I can tell is that Enterprise includes all of these tools, or am I missing something? What comes bundled with SQL Server 2005 Enterprise as far as reporting and data warehousing? Will we need to purchase anything else? is there actually anything else that can be purchased from Microsoft in this regard?

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• jQuery DOM manipulation

  - by ufw

  I have different php output in jQuery-based tabs. This output is formed from database and it consists of several <div>'s. Every time I click any tab it sends AJAX request to the php script which performs "SELECT" request and gives result back as response to AJAX request from the tab. $(document).ready(function() { $('ul.tabs li').css('cursor', 'pointer'); $('ul.tabs.tabs1 li').click(function(){ var thisClass = this.className.slice(0,2); $('div.t1').hide(); $('div.t2').hide(); $('div.t3').hide(); $('div.t4').hide(); $('div.' + thisClass).show('fast'); $('ul.tabs.tabs1 li').removeClass('tab-current'); $(this).addClass('tab-current'); var data = thisClass; $.ajax({ type:"GET", url:"handler.php?name="+data, data:data, success:function(html) { $('div.' + thisClass).html(html); } }); return false; }); }); //Server-side PHP script: <?php $name = $_GET[name]; switch ($name) { case "t1": query_and_output_1(); case "t2": query_and_output_2(); // etc... } ?> The problem is that the first tab contains output that must be in second and third ones as well, the second also contains the third tab output. Sorry for such a rubbishy question, I used to work with server side and unfortunately I'm not familiar with DOM and jQuery yet. Thanks.

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