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  • Calling an Excel Add-In method from C# application or vice versa

    - by Jude
    I have an Excel VBA add-in with a public method in a bas file. This method currently creates a VB6 COM object, which exists in a running VB6 exe/vbp. The VB6 app loads in data and then the Excel add-in method can call methods on the VB6 COM object to load the data into an existing Excel xls. This is all currently working. We have since converted our VB6 app to C#. My question is: What is the best/easiest way to mimic this behavior with the C#/.NET app? I'm thinking I may not be able to pull the data from the .NET app into Excel from the add-in method since the .Net app needs to be running with data loaded (so no using a stand-alone C# class library). Maybe we can, instead, push the data from .NET to Excel by accessing the VBA add-in method from the C# code? The following is the existing VBA method accessing the VB6 app: Public Sub UpdateInDataFromApp() Dim wkbInData As Workbook Dim oFPW As Object Dim nMaxCols As Integer Dim nMaxRows As Integer Dim j As Integer Dim sName As String Dim nCol As Integer Dim nRow As Integer Dim sheetCnt As Integer Dim nDepth As Integer Dim sPath As String Dim vData As Variant Dim SheetRange As Range Set wkbInData = wkbOpen("InData.xls") sPath = g_sPathXLSfiles & "\" 'Note: the following will bring up fpw app if not already running Set oFPW = CreateObject("FPW.CProfilesData") If oFPW Is Nothing Then MsgBox "Unable to reference " & sApp Else . . . sheetCnt = wkbInData.Sheets.Count 'get number of sheets in indata workbook For j = 2 To sheetCnt 'set counter to loop over all sheets except the first one which is not input data fields With wkbInData.Worksheets(j) Set SheetRange = .UsedRange End With With SheetRange nMaxRows = .Rows.Count 'get range of sheet(j) nMaxCols = .Columns.Count 'get range of sheet(j) Range(.Cells(2, 2), .Cells(nMaxRows, nMaxCols)).ClearContents 'Clears data from data range (51 Columns) Range(.Cells(2, 2), .Cells(nMaxRows, nMaxCols)).ClearComments End With With oFPW 'vb6 object For nRow = 2 To nMaxRows ' loop through rows sName = SheetRange.Cells(nRow, 1) 'Field name vData = .vntGetSymbol(sName, 0) 'Check if vb6 app identifies the name nDepth = .GetInputTableDepth(sName) 'Get number of data items for this field name from vb6 app nMaxCols = nDepth + 2 'nDepth=0, is single data item For nCol = 2 To nMaxCols 'loop over deep screen fields nDepth = nCol - 2 'current depth vData = .vntGetSymbol(sName, nDepth) 'Get Data from vb6 app If LenB(vData) > 0 And IsNumeric(vData) Then 'Check if data returned SheetRange.Cells(nRow, nCol) = vData 'Poke the data in Else SheetRange.Cells(nRow, nCol) = vData 'Poke a zero in End If Next 'nCol Next 'nRow End With Set SheetRange = Nothing Next 'j End If Set wkbInData = Nothing Set oFPW = Nothing Exit Sub . . . End Sub Any help would be appreciated.

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  • .NET WinForms INotifyPropertyChanged updates all bindings when one is changed. Better way?

    - by Dave Welling
    In a windows forms application, a property change that triggers INotifyPropertyChanged, will result in the form reading EVERY property from my bound object, not just the property changed. (See example code below) This seems absurdly wasteful since the interface requires the name of the changing property. It is causing a lot of clocking in my app because some of the property getters require calculations to be performed. I'll likely need to implement some sort of logic in my getters to discard the unnecessary reads if there is no better way to do this. Am I missing something? Is there a better way? Don't say to use a different presentation technology please -- I am doing this on Windows Mobile (although the behavior happens on the full framework as well). Here's some toy code to demonstrate the problem. Clicking the button will result in BOTH textboxes being populated even though one property has changed. using System; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Drawing; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace Example { public class ExView : Form { private Presenter _presenter = new Presenter(); public ExView() { this.MinimizeBox = false; TextBox txt1 = new TextBox(); txt1.Parent = this; txt1.Location = new Point(1, 1); txt1.Width = this.ClientSize.Width - 10; txt1.DataBindings.Add("Text", _presenter, "SomeText1"); TextBox txt2 = new TextBox(); txt2.Parent = this; txt2.Location = new Point(1, 40); txt2.Width = this.ClientSize.Width - 10; txt2.DataBindings.Add("Text", _presenter, "SomeText2"); Button but = new Button(); but.Parent = this; but.Location = new Point(1, 80); but.Click +=new EventHandler(but_Click); } void but_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { _presenter.SomeText1 = "some text 1"; } } public class Presenter : INotifyPropertyChanged { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private string _SomeText1 = string.Empty; public string SomeText1 { get { return _SomeText1; } set { _SomeText1 = value; _SomeText2 = value; // <-- To demonstrate that both properties are read OnPropertyChanged("SomeText1"); } } private string _SomeText2 = string.Empty; public string SomeText2 { get { return _SomeText2; } set { _SomeText2 = value; OnPropertyChanged("SomeText2"); } } private void OnPropertyChanged(string PropertyName) { PropertyChangedEventHandler temp = PropertyChanged; if (temp != null) { temp(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(PropertyName)); } } } }

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  • Gap appears between navigation bar and view after rotating & tab switching

    - by Bogatyr
    My iphone application is showing strange behavior when rotating: a gap appears between the navigation title and content view inside a tab bar view (details on how to reproduce are below). I've created a tiny test case that exhibits the same problem: a custom root UIViewController, which creates and displays a UITabBarController programmatically, which has two tabs: 1) plain UIViewController, and 2) UINavigationController created programmatically with a single plain UIViewController content view. The complete code for the application is in the root controller's viewDidLoad (every "*VC" class is a totally vanilla UIViewController subclass with XIB for user interface from XCode, with only the view background color changed to clearly identify each view, nothing else). Here's the viewDidLoad code, and the shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation code, this code is the entire application basically: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; FirstVC *fvc = [[FirstVC alloc] initWithNibName:@"FirstVC" bundle:nil]; NavContentsVC *ncvc = [[NavContentsVC alloc] initWithNibName:@"NavContentsVC" bundle:nil]; UINavigationController *svc = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:ncvc]; NSMutableArray *localControllersArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:2]; [localControllersArray addObject:fvc]; [localControllersArray addObject:svc]; fvc.title = @"FirstVC-Title"; ncvc.title = @"NavContents-Title"; UITabBarController *tbc = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; tbc.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 460); [tbc setViewControllers:localControllersArray]; [self.view addSubview:tbc.view]; [localControllersArray release]; [ncvc release]; [svc release]; [fvc release]; } - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return YES; } Here's how to reproduce the problem: 1) start application 2) rotate device (happens in simulator, too) to landscape (UITabBar properly rotates) 3) click on tab 2 4) rotate device to portrait -- notice gap of root view controller's background color of about 10 pixels high beneath the Navigation title bar and the Navigation content view. 5) click tab 1 6) click tab 2 And the gap is gone! From my real application, I see that the gap remains during all VC push and pops while the NavigationController tab is active. Switching away to a different tab and back to the Nav tab clears up the gap. What am I doing wrong? I'm running on SDK 3.1.3, this happens both on the simulator and on the device. Except for this particular sequence, everything seems to work fine. Help!

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  • boost multi_index_container and erase performance

    - by rjoshi
    I have a boost multi_index_container declared as below which is indexed by hash_unique id(unsigned long) and hash_non_unique transaction id(long). Insertion and retrieval of elements is fast but when I delete elements, it is much slower. I was expecting it to be constant time as key is hashed. e.g To erase elements from container for 10,000 elements, it takes around 2.53927016 seconds for 15,000 elements, it takes around 7.137100068 seconds for 20,000 elements, it takes around 21.391720757 seconds Is it something I am missing or is it expected behavior? class Session { public: Session() { //increment unique id static unsigned long counter = 0; boost::mutex::scoped_lock guard(mx); counter++; m_nId = counter; } unsigned long GetId() { return m_nId; } long GetTransactionHandle(){ return m_nTransactionHandle; } .... private: unsigned long m_nId; long m_nTransactionHandle; boost::mutext mx; .... }; typedef multi_index_container< Session*, indexed_by< hashed_unique< mem_fun<Session,unsigned long,&Session::GetId> >, hashed_non_unique< mem_fun<Session,unsigned long,&Session::GetTransactionHandle> > > //end indexed_by > SessionContainer; typedef SessionContainer::nth_index<0>::type SessionById; int main() { ... SessionContainer container; SessionById *pSessionIdView = &get<0>(container); unsigned counter = atoi(argv[1]); vector<Session*> vSes(counter); //insert for(unsigned i = 0; i < counter; i++) { Session *pSes = new Session(); container.insert(pSes); vSes.push_back(pSes); } timespec ts; lock_settime(CLOCK_PROCESS_CPUTIME_ID, &ts); //erase for(unsigned i = 0; i < counter; i++) { pSessionIdView->erase(vSes[i]->getId()); delete vSes[i]; } lock_gettime(CLOCK_PROCESS_CPUTIME_ID, &ts); std::cout << "Total time taken for erase:" << ts.tv_sec << "." << ts.tv_nsec << "\n"; return (EXIST_SUCCESS); }

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  • SharedObject (Flex 3.2) behaving unexpectedly when query string present in URL

    - by rhtx
    Summary: The behavior detailed below seems to indicate that if your app at www.someplace.com sets/retrieves data via a SharedObject, there is some sort of .sol collision if the user hits your app at someplace.com, and then later at someplace.com?name=value. Can anyone confirm or refute this? I'm working on a Flex web app that presents the user with a login page. When the user has logged in, he/she is presented with a 'room' which is associated with a 'group'. We store the last-visited room/group combination in a SharedObject - so when a given user logs in, they are taken into the most recent room in which they were active. That works fine, but we also have an auto-login system which involves the user clicking on a link to the app url with a query string attached. There are two types of these links. 1) the query string includes username, groupId, and roomId 2) the query string includes only the username Because we are working fast and have only a few developers, the auto-login system is built on the last-vist system. During the auto-login process, the url is inspected and if groupId and roomId values are found in the query string, the SharedObject is opened and the last-visit group/room id values are overwritten by the param values. That works fine, also, when the app is hit with a query string of the second type (no groupId and roomId params), the app goes to the SharedObject to get the stored room and group id values, as it normally would. And here's the problem: The values it comes back with are whatever the last room/group param values were, not whatever the last last-visit room/group values are. And if the given user has never hit the app with query string that included group and room id values, the app gets null values from the SharedObject. It took some digging around, but what it looks like is happening is that a second set of data is being stored/expected in the SharedObject if a query string is present in the URL. Looking at the .sol file in a text editor I see more untranslated code, and additional group and room values, once I've hit the app with URLs that contain query strings. I'm not finding anything on the web about this, but that may just be due to a lack of necessary search skills. Has anyone else run into anything similar? Or do you know how to address this? I've tried setting Security.exactSettings to false, already - was really hoping that was going to work.

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  • What's the most unsound program you've had to maintain?

    - by Robert Rossney
    I periodically am called upon to do maintenance work on a system that was built by a real rocket surgeon. There's so much wrong with it that it's hard to know where to start. No, wait, I'll start at the beginning: in the early days of the project, the designer was told that the system would need to scale, and he'd read that a source of scalability problems was traffic between the application and database servers, so he made sure to minimize this traffic. How? By putting all of the application logic in SQL Server stored procedures. Seriously. The great bulk of the application functions by the HTML front end formulating XML messages. When the middle tier receives an XML message, it uses the document element's tag name as the name of the stored procedure it should call, and calls the SP, passing it the entire XML message as a parameter. It takes the XML message that the SP returns and returns it directly back to the front end. There is no other logic in the application tier. (There was some code in the middle tier to validate the incoming XML messages against a library of schemas. But I removed it, after ascertaining that 1) only a small handful of messages had corresponding schemas, 2) the messages didn't actually conform to these schemas, and 3) after validating the messages, if any errors were encountered, the method discarded them. "This fuse box is a real time-saver - it comes from the factory with pennies pre-installed!") I've seen software that does the wrong thing before. Lots of it. I've written quite a bit. But I've never seen anything like the steely-eyed determination to do the wrong thing, at every possible turn, that's embodied in the design and programming of this system. Well, at least he went with what he knew, right? Um. Apparently, what he knew was Access. And he didn't really understand Access. Or databases. Here's a common pattern in this code: SELECT @TestCodeID FROM TestCode WHERE TestCode = @TestCode SELECT @CountryID FROM Country WHERE CountryAbbr = @CountryAbbr SELECT Invoice.*, TestCode.*, Country.* FROM Invoice JOIN TestCode ON Invoice.TestCodeID = TestCode.ID JOIN Country ON Invoice.CountryID = Country.ID WHERE Invoice.TestCodeID = @TestCodeID AND Invoice.CountryID = @CountryID Okay, fine. You don't trust the query optimizer either. But how about this? (Originally, I was going to post this in What's the best comment in source code you have ever encountered? but I realized that there was so much more to write about than just this one comment, and things just got out of hand.) At the end of many of the utility stored procedures, you'll see code that looks like the following: -- Fix NULLs SET @TargetValue = ISNULL(@TargetValue, -9999) Yes, that code is doing exactly what you can't allow yourself to believe it's doing lest you be driven mad. If the variable contains a NULL, he's alerting the caller by changing its value to -9999. Here's how this number is commonly used: -- Get target value EXEC ap_GetTargetValue @Param1, @Param2, OUTPUT @TargetValue -- Check target value for NULL value IF @TargetValue = -9999 ... Really. For another dimension of this system, see the article on thedailywtf.com entitled I Think I'll Call Them "Transactions". I'm not making any of this up. I swear. I'm often reminded, when I work on this system, of Wolfgang Pauli's famous response to a student: "That isn't right. It isn't even wrong." This can't really be the very worst program ever. It's definitely the worst one I've worked

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  • DatagridView loses current edit on Background update

    - by yoni.s
    Here's my problem : I have a DataGridView bound to a BindingList of custom objects. A background thread is constantly updating a value of these objects. The udpates are showing correctly, and everything is fine except for one thing - If you try to edit a different field while the background-updated field is being updated, it loses the entered value. Here is a code sample that demonstrates this behavior: (for new form, drop a new DataGridView on:) using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Threading; namespace WindowsFormsApplication2 { public partial class Form1 : Form { private BindingList<foo> flist; private Thread thrd; private BindingSource b; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); flist = new BindingList<foo> { new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1}, new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1}, new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1}, new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1} }; b = new BindingSource(); b.DataSource = flist; dataGridView1.DataSource = b; thrd = new Thread(new ThreadStart(updPRoc)); thrd.Start(); } private void upd() { flist.ToList().ForEach(f=>f.c++); } private void updPRoc() { while (true) { this.BeginInvoke(new MethodInvoker(upd)); Thread.Sleep(1000); } } } public class foo:INotifyPropertyChanged { private int _c; public int a { get; set; } public int b { get; set; } public int c { get {return _c;} set { _c = value; if (PropertyChanged!= null) PropertyChanged(this,new PropertyChangedEventArgs("c")); } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; #endregion } } So, you edit column a or b, you will see that the column c update causes you to lose your entry. Any thoughts appreciated.

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  • How to properly test Hibernate length restriction?

    - by Cesar
    I have a POJO mapped with Hibernate for persistence. In my mapping I specify the following: <class name="ExpertiseArea"> <id name="id" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <version name="version" column="VERSION" unsaved-value="null" /> <property name="name" type="string" unique="true" not-null="true" length="100" /> ... </class> And I want to test that if I set a name longer than 100 characters, the change won't be persisted. I have a DAO where I save the entity with the following code: public T makePersistent(T entity){ transaction = getSession().beginTransaction(); transaction.begin(); try{ getSession().saveOrUpdate(entity); transaction.commit(); }catch(HibernateException e){ logger.debug(e.getMessage()); transaction.rollback(); } return entity; } Actually the code above is from a GenericDAO which all my DAOs inherit from. Then I created the following test: public void testNameLengthMustBe100orLess(){ ExpertiseArea ea = new ExpertiseArea( "1234567890" + "1234567890" + "1234567890" + "1234567890" + "1234567890" + "1234567890" + "1234567890" + "1234567890" + "1234567890" + "1234567890"); assertTrue("Name should be 100 characters long", ea.getName().length() == 100); ead.makePersistent(ea); List<ExpertiseArea> result = ead.findAll(); assertEquals("Size must be 1", result.size(),1); ea.setName(ea.getName()+"1234567890"); ead.makePersistent(ea); ExpertiseArea retrieved = ead.findById(ea.getId(), false); assertTrue("Both objects should be equal", retrieved.equals(ea)); assertTrue("Name should be 100 characters long", (retrieved.getName().length() == 100)); } The object is persisted ok. Then I set a name longer than 100 characters and try to save the changes, which fails: 14:12:14,608 INFO StringType:162 - could not bind value '12345678901234567890123456789012345678901234567890123456789012345678901234567890123456789012345678901234567890' to parameter: 2; data exception: string data, right truncation 14:12:14,611 WARN JDBCExceptionReporter:100 - SQL Error: -3401, SQLState: 22001 14:12:14,611 ERROR JDBCExceptionReporter:101 - data exception: string data, right truncation 14:12:14,614 ERROR AbstractFlushingEventListener:324 - Could not synchronize database state with session org.hibernate.exception.DataException: could not update: [com.exp.model.ExpertiseArea#33BA7E09-3A79-4C9D-888B-4263314076AF] //Stack trace 14:12:14,615 DEBUG GenericDAO:87 - could not update: [com.exp.model.ExpertiseArea#33BA7E09-3A79-4C9D-888B-4263314076AF] 14:12:14,616 DEBUG JDBCTransaction:186 - rollback 14:12:14,616 DEBUG JDBCTransaction:197 - rolled back JDBC Connection That's expected behavior. However when I retrieve the persisted object to check if its name is still 100 characters long, the test fails. The way I see it, the retrieved object should have a name that is 100 characters long, given that the attempted update failed. The last assertion fails because the name is 110 characters long now, as if the ea instance was indeed updated. What am I doing wrong here?

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  • html horizontal scrolling

    - by mp
    Hi, i have a simple css example, and i can't understand the behavior of one of my divs, when the horizontal scroll is displayed. so...when my browser window needs to display the horizontal scroll(when the window width is less than my div "content" width(1024px)), my div "footer" (that have the same "content's" parent and 100% width), seems to get an "extra blank space" on the right side. this space grows when I reduce the width of the window. any ideas about how can i get it off, or why it happens??thanks! heres my code: css: <style type="text/css"> html, body { height: 100%; width:100%; font-family:"Arial Black", Gadget, sans-serif; font-size:11px; font-variant:normal; } * { margin: 0; } .wrapper { min-height: 100%; height: auto !important; height: 100%; margin: 0 auto -4em; } #content{ width:1024px; margin:0px auto; background-color:#990; height:780px; } .footer, .push { height: 4em; width:100%; } #footer-content{ height:10px; background-color:#09F; width:100%; } </style> html: <body> <div class="wrapper"> <div id="content"> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Nullam scelerisque varius tortor vitae pretium. Quisque magna ipsum, accumsan sit amet pretium sed, iaculis feugiat nibh. Donec vitae dui eros, eu ultricies nulla. Morbi aliquet, nisi in tincidunt rutrum, nisl justo sagittis nisi, nec dignissim orci elit vitae tortor. </p> </div> <div class="push"></div> </div> <div class="footer" style="background-color:#900; width:100%;"> <div id="footer-content"></div> </div> </body>

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  • Adding a valuetype to IDL, compile and it fails with "No factory found"

    - by jim
    I can't figure out why the client keeps complaining about the not finding the factory method. I've tried the IDL with and without the "factory" keyword and that didn't change the behavior. The SDMGeoVT IDL matches other objects used (which run successfully). The SDMGeoVT classes generated match other generated classes in regards to inheritance and methods. The IDL is as follows; The idlj compiler runs w/o error. I implement the function on the server and I see the server code run and serialize the object over the wire (the server code runs fine). The client bombs with the following stack trace (the first couple of lines is from the jacORB library). I've created a small app just to compile and test the code (ArrayClient & ArrayServer). The base app (from the jacORB demo) works fine. I've tried using the base class OFBaseVT and a single object (SDMGeoVT vs the list return) and have the same issue. 2010-05-27 15:37:11.813 FINE read GIOP message of size 100 from ClientGIOPConnection to 127.0.0.1:47030 (1e4853f) 2010-05-27 15:37:11.813 FINE read GIOP message of size 100 from ClientGIOPConnection to 127.0.0.1:47030 (1e4853f) org.omg.CORBA.MARSHAL: No factory found for: IDL:pl/SDMGeoVT:1.0 at org.jacorb.orb.CDRInputStream.read_untyped_value(CDRInputStream.java:2906) at org.jacorb.orb.CDRInputStream.read_typed_value(CDRInputStream.java:3082) at org.jacorb.orb.CDRInputStream.read_value(CDRInputStream.java:2679) at com.helloworld.pl.SDMGeoVTHelper.read(SDMGeoVTHelper.java:106) at com.helloworld.pl.SDMGeoVTListHelper.read(SDMGeoVTListHelper.java:51) at com.helloworld.pl._PLManagerIFStub.getSDMGeos(_PLManagerIFStub.java:28) at com.helloworld.ArrayClient.<init>(ArrayClient.java:40) at com.helloworld.ArrayClient.main(ArrayClient.java:125) valuetype SDMGeoVT : common::OFBaseVT{ private string sdmName; private string zip; private string atz; private long long primaryDeptId; private string deptName; factory instance(in string name,in string ZIP,in string ATZ,in long long primaryDeptId,in string deptName,in string name); string getZIP(); void setZIP(in string ZIP); string getATZ(); void setATZ(in string ATZ); long long getPrimaryDeptId(); void setPrimaryDeptId(in long long primaryDeptId); string getDeptName(); void setDeptName(in string deptName); }; typedef sequence<SDMGeoVT> SDMGeoVTList; interface PLManagerIF : PublicManagerIF { pl::SDMGeoVTList getSDMGeos(in framework::ITransactionHandle tHandle, in long long productionLocationId); };

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  • Share a "deep link" from a Windows 8/WinRT application

    - by Dave Parker
    I have searched using many different terms and phrases, and waded through many pages of results, but I have (remarkably) not seen anyone else addressing, even asking, about, this issue. So here goes... Ultimate Goal: Allow a user viewing a content-based page (may contain both text and images) within a Windows Store app to share that content with someone else. Description I am working on taking a fair amount of content and making it available for browsing/navigating as a Windows 8/WinRT/Windows Store (we need a consistent name here) application. One of the desired features is to take advantage of the Share Charm, such that someone viewing a page could share that page with someone else. The ideal behavior is for the application to implement the Share Source contract which would share an email message that contained some explanatory text, a link to get the app from the Windows Store, and a "deep link" into the shared page in the application. Solutions Considered We had originally looked at just generating a PDF representation of the page, but there are very few external libraries that would work under WinRT, and having to include externally licensed code would be problematic as well. Writing our own PDF generation code would out of scope. We have also considered generating a Word document or PowerPoint slide using OpenXML, but again, we run up against the limitaions of WinRT. In this case, it is highly unlikely the OpenXML SDK is useable in a WinRT application. Another thought was to pre-generate all of the pages as .pdf files, store them as resources, and when the Share Charm is invoked, share the .pdf file associated with the current page. The problem here is the application will have at least 150 content pages, and depending on how we break the content down, up to over 600. This would likely cause serious bloat. Where We Are At Thus we have come to sharing URIs. From what I can tell, though, the "deep linking" feature is only intended for use on Secondary Tiles tied to your application. Another avenue I considered was registering a protocol like, "my-special-app:" with the OS and having it fire up the application but that would require HKCR registry access, which is outside the WinRT sandbox. If it matters, we are leaning towards an HTML/JS application, rather than XAML/C#, because the converted content will all be in HTML and the WebView control in WinRT is fairly limited. This decision is not yet final, though. Conclusion So, is this possible, and if so, how would it be done or where can I find documentation on it? Thanks, Dave Parker

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  • How can give validation on custom registration form in drupal?

    - by Nitz
    Hey Friends, I have created custom registration form in drupal 6. i have used changed the behavior of the drupal registration page by adding this code in themes. template file function earthen_theme($existing, $type, $theme, $path) { return array( // tell Drupal what template to use for the user register form 'user_register' => array( 'arguments' => array('form' => NULL), 'template' => 'user_register', // this is the name of the template ), ); } and my user_register.tpl.php file is looking like this... //php tag starts from here $forms['access'] = array( '#type' = 'fieldset', '#title' = t('Access log settings'), ); $form['my_text_field']=array( '#type' = 'textfield', '#default_value' = $node-title, '#size' = 30, '#maxlength' = 50, '#required' = TRUE ); <div id="registration_form"><br> <div class="field"> <?php print drupal_render($form['my_text_field']); // prints the username field ?> </div> <div class="field"> <?php print drupal_render($form['account']['name']); // prints the username field ?> </div> <div class="field"> <?php print drupal_render($form['account']['pass']); // print the password field ?> </div> <div class="field"> <?php print drupal_render($form['account']['email']); // print the password field ?> </div> <div class="field"> <?php print drupal_render($form['submit']); // print the submit button ?> </div> </div> How to make validation on "my_text_field" which is custmized. and exactly i want that as soon as user click on my_text_field then datetime picker should be open and whichever date user select, that date should be value in my_text_field. so guys help. Thanks in advance, nitish Panchjanya Corporation

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  • Accessing different connection strings at runtime in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve? UPDATE: I decided to abandon the modification of Web.config in lieu of a "request-scoped DataContext" pattern that I found here. From the looks of it, I believe it should give me the results I'm looking for. However, during the TextFixtureSetUp, I try to create a new copy of the database for testing purposes, and it fails silently. When I get to the tests, the repository still uses the production database connection string to load data.

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  • Calling/selecting variables (float valued) with user input in Python

    - by Jonathan Straus
    I've been working on a computational physics project (plotting related rates of chemical reactants with respect to eachother to show oscillatory behavior) with a fair amount of success. However, one of my simulations involves more than two active oscillating agents (five, in fact) which would obviously be unsuitable for any single visual plot... My scheme was hence to have the user select which two reactants they wanted plotted on the x-axis and y-axis respectively. I tried (foolishly) to convert string input values into the respective variable names, but I guess I need a radically different approach if any exist? If it helps clarify any, here is part of my code: def coupledBrusselator(A, B, t_trial,display_x,display_y): t = 0 t_step = .01 X = 0 Y = 0 E = 0 U = 0 V = 0 dX = (A) - (B+1)*(X) + (X**2)*(Y) dY = (B)*(X) - (X**2)*(Y) dE = -(E)*(U) - (X) dU = (U**2)*(V) -(E+1)*(U) - (B)*(X) dV = (E)*(U) - (U**2)*(V) array_t = [0] array_X = [0] array_Y = [0] array_U = [0] array_V = [0] while t <= t_trial: X_1 = X + (dX)*(t_step/2) Y_1 = Y + (dY)*(t_step/2) E_1 = E + (dE)*(t_step/2) U_1 = U + (dU)*(t_step/2) V_1 = V + (dV)*(t_step/2) dX_1 = (A) - (B+1)*(X_1) + (X_1**2)*(Y_1) dY_1 = (B)*(X_1) - (X_1**2)*(Y_1) dE_1 = -(E_1)*(U_1) - (X_1) dU_1 = (U_1**2)*(V_1) -(E_1+1)*(U_1) - (B)*(X_1) dV_1 = (E_1)*(U_1) - (U_1**2)*(V_1) X_2 = X + (dX_1)*(t_step/2) Y_2 = Y + (dY_1)*(t_step/2) E_2 = E + (dE_1)*(t_step/2) U_2 = U + (dU_1)*(t_step/2) V_2 = V + (dV_1)*(t_step/2) dX_2 = (A) - (B+1)*(X_2) + (X_2**2)*(Y_2) dY_2 = (B)*(X_2) - (X_2**2)*(Y_2) dE_2 = -(E_2)*(U_2) - (X_2) dU_2 = (U_2**2)*(V_2) -(E_2+1)*(U_2) - (B)*(X_2) dV_2 = (E_2)*(U_2) - (U_2**2)*(V_2) X_3 = X + (dX_2)*(t_step) Y_3 = Y + (dY_2)*(t_step) E_3 = E + (dE_2)*(t_step) U_3 = U + (dU_2)*(t_step) V_3 = V + (dV_2)*(t_step) dX_3 = (A) - (B+1)*(X_3) + (X_3**2)*(Y_3) dY_3 = (B)*(X_3) - (X_3**2)*(Y_3) dE_3 = -(E_3)*(U_3) - (X_3) dU_3 = (U_3**2)*(V_3) -(E_3+1)*(U_3) - (B)*(X_3) dV_3 = (E_3)*(U_3) - (U_3**2)*(V_3) X = X + ((dX + 2*dX_1 + 2*dX_2 + dX_3)/6) * t_step Y = Y + ((dX + 2*dY_1 + 2*dY_2 + dY_3)/6) * t_step E = E + ((dE + 2*dE_1 + 2*dE_2 + dE_3)/6) * t_step U = U + ((dU + 2*dU_1 + 2*dY_2 + dE_3)/6) * t_step V = V + ((dV + 2*dV_1 + 2*dV_2 + dE_3)/6) * t_step dX = (A) - (B+1)*(X) + (X**2)*(Y) dY = (B)*(X) - (X**2)*(Y) t_step = .01 / (1 + dX**2 + dY**2) ** .5 t = t + t_step array_X.append(X) array_Y.append(Y) array_E.append(E) array_U.append(U) array_V.append(V) array_t.append(t) where previously display_x = raw_input("Choose catalyst you wish to analyze in the phase/field diagrams (X, Y, E, U, or V) ") display_y = raw_input("Choose one other catalyst from list you wish to include in phase/field diagrams ") coupledBrusselator(A, B, t_trial, display_x, display_y) Thanks!

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  • How can I capture the keystroke that triggers "CellEndEdit" on a DataGridView in C#?

    - by Andy Stampor
    I have a DataGridView that is set to EditOnF2. I do some special processing of data in the CellEndEdit eventhandler that sets the value of the cell. I still want the functionality of the EditOnKeystrokeOrF2 of reverting to the original value when the Esc key is pressed. Unfortunately, at the CellEndEdit eventhandler, I don't see a way to tell what caused the CellEndEdit event to be fired. I only want to change the value of the cell if the Esc key is not pressed. How can I tell if it was or not? Edit: It is worth noting that the KeyDown event does not get fired when the cell is being edited, nor for the final ending keystroke. Edit2: I have tried the KeyPreview suggestion, but the form still does not capture the Escape key being pressed. Edit3: I've been experimenting with trying to get this working. I originally posted some of the following as a separate post, but feel it might be more relevant to include it here. I have a cell in a DataGridView that is now set to EditProgrammatically. To capture the keystroke that starts an edit, I am setting the cell.Value equal to the keystroke. However, this ruins the "Escape" functionality of the cell - when you press escape, instead of reverting to the original value, it reverts to the keystroke that I programmatically inserted into the cell. I believe that if I could set the "EditedFormattedValue" on a cell, this would be where I want to put my keystroke value, however this appears to be read only. How can I accomplish what I am attempting? An example to clarify: If the cell has a value of "54.3" in it, and I press the "9" key, it begins editing the cell and places a "9" there. If I hit Escape, instead of reverting to "54.3" it reverts to "9". What I want is for it to return to its original value of "54.3". So, I am trying to tackle this issue from both the beginning and the end. I think the real problem is that I am overwriting the original value and have no way to determine if I should revert it or not. Edit4: It looks like CellValidating might be worth using, but I am seeing strange behavior when I experiment with it. In a new project, I create the DataGridView and register for the various events and see that CellValidating is fired before the CellEndEdit. However, in my project where I am trying to get this to work, CellEndEdit is firing BEFORE CellValidating. Any ideas on what the difference might be?

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  • Why does SFINAE not apply to this?

    - by Simon Buchan
    I'm writing some simple point code while trying out Visual Studio 10 (Beta 2), and I've hit this code where I would expect SFINAE to kick in, but it seems not to: template<typename T> struct point { T x, y; point(T x, T y) : x(x), y(y) {} }; template<typename T, typename U> struct op_div { typedef decltype(T() / U()) type; }; template<typename T, typename U> point<typename op_div<T, U>::type> operator/(point<T> const& l, point<U> const& r) { return point<typename op_div<T, U>::type>(l.x / r.x, l.y / r.y); } template<typename T, typename U> point<typename op_div<T, U>::type> operator/(point<T> const& l, U const& r) { return point<typename op_div<T, U>::type>(l.x / r, l.y / r); } int main() { point<int>(0, 1) / point<float>(2, 3); } This gives error C2512: 'point<T>::point' : no appropriate default constructor available Given that it is a beta, I did a quick sanity check with the online comeau compiler, and it agrees with an identical error, so it seems this behavior is correct, but I can't see why. In this case some workarounds are to simply inline the decltype(T() / U()), to give the point class a default constructor, or to use decltype on the full result expression, but I got this error while trying to simplify an error I was getting with a version of op_div that did not require a default constructor*, so I would rather fix my understanding of C++ rather than to just do what works. Thanks! *: the original: template<typename T, typename U> struct op_div { static T t(); static U u(); typedef decltype(t() / u()) type; }; Which gives error C2784: 'point<op_div<T,U>::type> operator /(const point<T> &,const U &)' : could not deduce template argument for 'const point<T> &' from 'int', and also for the point<T> / point<U> overload.

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  • Excel UDF calculation should return 'original' value

    - by LeChe
    Hi all, I've been struggling with a VBA problem for a while now and I'll try to explain it as thoroughly as possible. I have created a VSTO plugin with my own RTD implementation that I am calling from my Excel sheets. To avoid having to use the full-fledged RTD syntax in the cells, I have created a UDF that hides that API from the sheet. The RTD server I created can be enabled and disabled through a button in a custom Ribbon component. The behavior I want to achieve is as follows: If the server is disabled and a reference to my function is entered in a cell, I want the cell to display Disabled If the server is disabled, but the function had been entered in a cell when it was enabled (and the cell thus displays a value), I want the cell to keep displaying that value If the server is enabled, I want the cell to display Loading Sounds easy enough. Here is an example of the - non functional - code: Public Function RetrieveData(id as Long) Dim result as String // This returns either 'Disabled' or 'Loading' result = Application.Worksheet.Function.RTD("SERVERNAME", "", id) RetrieveData = result If(result = "Disabled") Then // Obviously, this recurses (and fails), so that's not an option If(Not IsEmpty(Application.Caller.Value2)) Then // So does this RetrieveData = Application.Caller.Value2 End If End If End Function The function will be called in thousands of cells, so storing the 'original' values in another data structure would be a major overhead and I would like to avoid it. Also, the RTD server does not know the values, since it also does not keep a history of it, more or less for the same reason. I was thinking that there might be some way to exit the function which would force it to not change the displayed value, but so far I have been unable to find anything like that. Any ideas on how to solve this are greatly appreciated! Thanks, Che EDIT: By popular demand, some additional info on why I want to do all this: As I said, the function will be called in thousands of cells and the RTD server needs to retrieve quite a bit of information. This can be quite hard on both network and CPU. To allow the user to decide for himself whether he wants this load on his machine, he or she can disable the updates from the server. In that case, he or she should still be able to calculate the sheets with the values currently in the fields, yet no updates are pushed into them. Once new data is required, the server can be enabled and the fields will be updated. Again, since we are talking about quite a bit of data here, I would rather not store it somewhere in the sheet. Plus, the data should be usable even if the workbook is closed and loaded again.

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  • Postgresql: Implicit lock acquisition from foreign-key constraint evaluation

    - by fennec
    So, I'm being confused about foreign key constraint handling in Postgresql. (version 8.4.4, for what it's worth). We've got a couple of tables, mildly anonymized below: device: (id, blah, blah, blah, blah, blah x 50)… primary key on id whooooole bunch of other junk device_foo: (id, device_id, left, right) Foreign key (device_id) references device(id) on delete cascade; primary key on id btree index on 'left' and 'right' So I set out with two database windows to run some queries. db1> begin; lock table device in exclusive mode; db2> begin; update device_foo set left = left + 1; The db2 connection blocks. It seems odd to me that an update of the 'left' column on device_stuff should be affected by activity on the device table. But it is. In fact, if I go back to db1: db1> select * from device_stuff for update; *** deadlock occurs *** The pgsql log has the following: blah blah blah deadlock blah. CONTEXT: SQL statement "SELECT 1 FROM ONLY "public"."device" x WHERE "id" OPERATOR(pg_catalog.=) $1 FOR SHARE OF X: update device_foo set left = left + 1; I suppose I've got two issues: the first is that I don't understand the precise mechanism by which this sort of locking occurs. I have got a couple of useful queries to query pg_locks to see what sort of locks a statement invokes, but I haven't been able to observe this particular sort of locking when I run the update device_foo command in isolation. (Perhaps I'm doing something wrong, though.) I also can't find any documentation on the lock acquisition behavior of foreign-key constraint checks. All I have is a log message. Am I to infer from this that any change to a row will acquire an update lock on all the tables which it's foreign-keyed against? The second issue is that I'd like to find some way to make it not happen like that. I'm ending up with occasional deadlocks in the actual application. I'd like to be able to run big update statements that impact all rows on device_foo without acquiring a big lock on the device table. (There's a lot of access going on in the device table, and it's kind of an expensive lock to get.)

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  • CLR 4.0 inlining policy? (maybe bug with MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)

    - by ControlFlow
    I've testing some new CLR 4.0 behavior in method inlining (cross-assembly inlining) and found some strage results: Assembly ClassLib.dll: using System.Diagnostics; using System; using System.Reflection; using System.Security; using System.Runtime.CompilerServices; namespace ClassLib { public static class A { static readonly MethodInfo GetExecuting = typeof(Assembly).GetMethod("GetExecutingAssembly"); public static Assembly Foo(out StackTrace stack) // 13 bytes { // explicit call to GetExecutingAssembly() stack = new StackTrace(); return Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(); } public static Assembly Bar(out StackTrace stack) // 25 bytes { // reflection call to GetExecutingAssembly() stack = new StackTrace(); return (Assembly) GetExecuting.Invoke(null, null); } public static Assembly Baz(out StackTrace stack) // 9 bytes { stack = new StackTrace(); return null; } public static Assembly Bob(out StackTrace stack) // 13 bytes { // call of non-inlinable method! return SomeSecurityCriticalMethod(out stack); } [SecurityCritical, MethodImpl(MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)] static Assembly SomeSecurityCriticalMethod(out StackTrace stack) { stack = new StackTrace(); return Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(); } } } Assembly ConsoleApp.exe using System; using ClassLib; using System.Diagnostics; class Program { static void Main() { Console.WriteLine("runtime: {0}", Environment.Version); StackTrace stack; Console.WriteLine("Foo: {0}\n{1}", A.Foo(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Bar: {0}\n{1}", A.Bar(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Baz: {0}\n{1}", A.Baz(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Bob: {0}\n{1}", A.Bob(out stack), stack); } } Results: runtime: 4.0.30128.1 Foo: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at ClassLib.A.Foo(StackTrace& stack) at Program.Main() Bar: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at ClassLib.A.Bar(StackTrace& stack) at Program.Main() Baz: at Program.Main() Bob: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at Program.Main() So questions are: Why JIT does not inlined Foo and Bar calls as Baz does? They are lower than 32 bytes of IL and are good candidates for inlining. Why JIT inlined call of Bob and inner call of SomeSecurityCriticalMethod that is marked with the [MethodImpl(MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)] attribute? Why GetExecutingAssembly returns a valid assembly when is called by inlined Baz and SomeSecurityCriticalMethod methods? I've expect that it performs the stack walk to detect the executing assembly, but stack will contains only Program.Main() call and no methods of ClassLib assenbly, to ConsoleApp should be returned.

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  • Need help in displaying data insider marquee

    - by user59637
    Hi all, I want to display news inside the marquee markup in my banking application but its not happening.Please somebody help me what is the error in my code.Here is my code: <marquee bgcolor="silver" direction="left" id="marq1" runat="server" behavior="scroll" scrolldelay="80" style="height: 19px" width="565"> <% String se = Session["countnews"].ToString(); for (int i = 0; i < int.Parse("" +se); i++) { %> <strong><%Response.Write("&nbsp;&nbsp;" + Session["news"+i] + "&nbsp;&nbsp;"); %></strong> <% } %> </marquee> public class News { DataSet ds = new DataSet("Bank"); SqlConnection conn; String check; SqlDataAdapter sda; int i; public string News_Name; public int Count_News; public int newsticker() { conn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BankingTransaction"].ConnectionString.ToString()); check = "Select NewsTitle from News where NewsStatus = 'A'"; sda = new SqlDataAdapter(check, conn); sda.Fill(ds, "News"); if (ds.Tables[0].Rows.Count > 0) { for (i = 0; i < ds.Tables[0].Rows.Count; i++) { News_Name =i+ ds.Tables[0].Rows[i].ItemArray[0].ToString(); } Count_News = ds.Tables[0].Rows.Count; } else { News_Name =0+ "Welcome to WestSide Bank Online Web site!"; Count_News = 1; } return int.Parse(Count_News.ToString()); } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { News obj = new News(); try { obj.newsticker(); Session["news"] = obj.News_Name.ToString(); Session["countnews"] = obj.Count_News.ToString(); } catch (SqlException ex) { Response.Write("Error in login" + ex.Message); Response.Redirect("Default.aspx"); } finally { obj = null; } }

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  • Create class instance in assembly from string name

    - by Arcadian
    I'm not sure if this is possible, and I'm quite new to using assemblies in C#.NET. What I would like to do is to create an instance of a class when supplied the string name of that class. Something like this: using MyAssembly; namespace MyNameSpace { Class MyClass { int MyValue1; int MyValue2; public MyClass(string myTypeName) { foreach(Type type in MyAssembly) { if((string)type == myTypeName) { //create a new instance of the type } } AssignInitialValues(//the type created above) } //Here I use an abstract type which the type above inherits from private void AssignInitialValues(AbstractType myClass) { this.value1 = myClass.value1; this.value2 = myClass.value2; } } } Obviously you cannot compare strings to types but it illustrates what I'm trying to do: create a type from a supplied string. Any thoughts? EDIT: After attempting: var myObject = (AbstractType) Activator.CreateInstance(null, myTypeName); AssignInitialValues(myObject); I get a number of errors: Inconsistent accessibility: parameter type 'MyAssembly.AbstractType' is less accessible than method 'MyNameSpace.MyClass.AssignInitialValues(MyAssembly.AstractType)' 'MyAssembly.AstractType' is inaccessible due to it's protection level The type or namespace name 'MyAssembly' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) The type or namespace name 'AbstractType' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Not exactly sure why it can't find the assembly; I've added a reference to the assembly and I use a Using Directive for the namespace in the assembly. As for the protection level, it's calling classes (or rather the constructors of classes) which can only be public. Any clues on where the problem is? UPDATE: After looking through several articles on SO I came across this: http://stackoverflow.com/a/1632609/360627 Making the AbstractTypeclass public solved the issue of inconsistent accessibility. The new compiler error is this: Cannot convert type 'System.Runtime.Remoting.ObjectHandle' to 'MyAssembly.AbstractType' The line it references is this one: var myObject = (AbstractType) Activator.CreateInstance(null, myTypeName); Using .Unwrap() get's me past this error and I think it's the right way to do it (uncertain). However, when running the program I then get a TypeLoadException when this code is called. TypeLoadException: Could not load type ‘AbstractType’ from assembly ‘MyNameSpace'... Right away I can spot that the type its looking for is correct but the assembly it's looking in is wrong. Looking up the Activator.CreateInstance(String, String) method revealed that the null as the first argument means that the method will look in the executing assembly. This is contrary to the required behavior as in the original post. I've tried using MyAssembly as the first argument but this produces the error: 'MyAssembly' is a 'namespace' but is used like a 'variable' Any thoughts on how to fix this?

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  • How do I destruct data associated with an object after the object no longer exists?

    - by Phineas
    I'm creating a class (say, C) that associates data (say, D) with an object (say, O). When O is destructed, O will notify C that it soon will no longer exist :( ... Later, when C feels it is the right time, C will let go of what belonged to O, namely D. If D can be any type of object, what's the best way for C to be able to execute "delete D;"? And what if D is an array of objects? My solution is to have D derive from a base class that C has knowledge of. When the time comes, C calls delete on a pointer to the base class. I've also considered storing void pointers and calling delete, but I found out that's undefined behavior and doesn't call D's destructor. I considered that templates could be a novel solution, but I couldn't work that idea out. Here's what I have so far for C, minus some details: // This class is C in the above description. There may be many instances of C. class Context { public: // D will inherit from this class class Data { public: virtual ~Data() {} }; Context(); ~Context(); // Associates an owner (O) with its data (D) void add(const void* owner, Data* data); // O calls this when he knows its the end (O's destructor). // All instances of C are now aware that O is gone and its time to get rid // of all associated instances of D. static void purge (const void* owner); // This is called periodically in the application. It checks whether // O has called purge, and calls "delete D;" void refresh(); // Side note: sometimes O needs access to D Data *get (const void *owner); private: // Used for mapping owners (O) to data (D) std::map _data; }; // Here's an example of O class Mesh { public: ~Mesh() { Context::purge(this); } void init(Context& c) const { Data* data = new Data; // GL initialization here c.add(this, new Data); } void render(Context& c) const { Data* data = c.get(this); } private: // And here's an example of D struct Data : public Context::Data { ~Data() { glDeleteBuffers(1, &vbo); glDeleteTextures(1, &texture); } GLint vbo; GLint texture; }; }; P.S. If you're familiar with computer graphics and VR, I'm creating a class that separates an object's per-context data (e.g. OpenGL VBO IDs) from its per-application data (e.g. an array of vertices) and frees the per-context data at the appropriate time (when the matching rendering context is current).

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  • Constructor versus setter injection

    - by Chris
    Hi, I'm currently designing an API where I wish to allow configuration via a variety of methods. One method is via an XML configuration schema and another method is through an API that I wish to play nicely with Spring. My XML schema parsing code was previously hidden and therefore the only concern was for it to work but now I wish to build a public API and I'm quite concerned about best-practice. It seems that many favor javabean type PoJo's with default zero parameter constructors and then setter injection. The problem I am trying to tackle is that some setter methods implementations are dependent on other setter methods being called before them in sequence. I could write anal setters that will tolerate themselves being called in many orders but that will not solve the problem of a user forgetting to set the appropriate setter and therefore the bean being in an incomplete state. The only solution I can think of is to forget about the objects being 'beans' and enforce the required parameters via constructor injection. An example of this is in the default setting of the id of a component based on the id of the parent components. My Interface public interface IMyIdentityInterface { public String getId(); /* A null value should create a unique meaningful default */ public void setId(String id); public IMyIdentityInterface getParent(); public void setParent(IMyIdentityInterface parent); } Base Implementation of interface: public abstract class MyIdentityBaseClass implements IMyIdentityInterface { private String _id; private IMyIdentityInterface _parent; public MyIdentityBaseClass () {} @Override public String getId() { return _id; } /** * If the id is null, then use the id of the parent component * appended with a lower-cased simple name of the current impl * class along with a counter suffix to enforce uniqueness */ @Override public void setId(String id) { if (id == null) { IMyIdentityInterface parent = getParent(); if (parent == null) { // this may be the top level component or it may be that // the user called setId() before setParent(..) } else { _id = Helpers.makeIdFromParent(parent,getClass()); } } else { _id = id; } } @Override public IMyIdentityInterface getParent() { return _parent; } @Override public void setParent(IMyIdentityInterface parent) { _parent = parent; } } Every component in the framework will have a parent except for the top level component. Using the setter type of injection, then the setters will have different behavior based on the order of the calling of the setters. In this case, would you agree, that a constructor taking a reference to the parent is better and dropping the parent setter method from the interface entirely? Is it considered bad practice if I wish to be able to configure these components using an IoC container? Chris

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  • Drawing text to <canvas> with @font-face does not work at the first time

    - by lemonedo
    Hi all, First try the test case please: http://lemon-factory.net/test/font-face-and-canvas.html I'm not good at English, so I made the test case to be self-explanatory. On the first click to the DRAW button, it will not draw text, or will draw with an incorrect typeface instead of the specified "PressStart", according to your browser. After then it works as expected. At the first time the text does not appear correctly in all browsers I've tested (Firefox, Google Chrome, Safari, Opera). Is it the standard behavior or something? Thank you. PS: Following is the code of the test case <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv=Content-Type content="text/html;charset=utf-8"> <title>@font-face and canvas</title> <style> @font-face { font-family: 'PressStart'; src: url('http://lemon-factory.net/css/fonts/prstart.ttf'); } canvas, pre { border: 1px solid #666; } pre { float: left; margin: .5em; padding: .5em; } </style> </head> <body> <div> <canvas id=canvas width=250 height=250> Your browser does not support the CANVAS element. Try the latest Firefox, Google Chrome, Safari or Opera. </canvas> <button>DRAW</button> </div> <pre id=style></pre> <pre id=script></pre> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script> var canvas = document.getElementById('canvas') var ctx = canvas.getContext('2d') var x = 30 var y = 10 function draw() { ctx.font = '12px PressStart' ctx.fillStyle = '#000' ctx.fillText('Hello, world!', x, y += 20) ctx.fillRect(x - 20, y - 10, 10, 10) } $('button').click(draw) $('pre#style').text($('style').text()) $('pre#script').text($('script').text()) </script> </body> </html>

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  • Unlocking a mutex from a different thread (C++)

    - by dan
    I'm using the C++ boost::thread library, which in my case means I'm using pthreads. Officially, a mutex must be unlocked from the same thread which locks it, and I want the effect of being able to lock in one thread and then unlock in another. There are many ways to accomplish this. One possibility would be to write a new mutex class which allows this behavior. For example: class inter_thread_mutex{ bool locked; boost::mutex mx; boost::condition_variable cv; public: void lock(){ boost::unique_lock<boost::mutex> lck(mx); while(locked) cv.wait(lck); locked=true; } void unlock(){ { boost::lock_guard<boost::mutex> lck(mx); if(!locked) error(); locked=false; } cv.notify_one(); } // bool try_lock(); void error(); etc. } I should point out that the above code doesn't guarantee FIFO access, since if one thread calls lock() while another calls unlock(), this first thread may acquire the lock ahead of other threads which are waiting. (Come to think of it, the boost::thread documentation doesn't appear to make any explicit scheduling guarantees for either mutexes or condition variables). But let's just ignore that (and any other bugs) for now. My question is, if I decide to go this route, would I be able to use such a mutex as a model for the boost Lockable concept. For example, would anything go wrong if I use a boost::unique_lock< inter_thread_mutex for RAII-style access, and then pass this lock to boost::condition_variable_any.wait(), etc. On one hand I don't see why not. On the other hand, "I don't see why not" is usually a very bad way of determining whether something will work. The reason I ask is that if it turns out that I have to write wrapper classes for RAII locks and condition variables and whatever else, then I'd rather just find some other way to achieve the same effect.

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