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  • Use Django ORM as standalone [closed]

    - by KeyboardInterrupt
    Possible Duplicates: Use only some parts of Django? Using only the DB part of Django I want to use the Django ORM as standalone. Despite an hour of searching Google, I'm still left with several questions: Does it require me to set up my Python project with a setting.py, /myApp/ directory, and modules.py file? Can I create a new models.py and run syncdb to have it automatically setup the tables and relationships or can I only use models from existing Django projects? There seems to be a lot of questions regarding PYTHONPATH. If you're not calling existing models is this needed? I guess the easiest thing would be for someone to just post a basic template or walkthrough of the process, clarifying the organization of the files e.g.: db/ __init__.py settings.py myScript.py orm/ __init__.py models.py And the basic essentials: # settings.py from django.conf import settings settings.configure( DATABASE_ENGINE = "postgresql_psycopg2", DATABASE_HOST = "localhost", DATABASE_NAME = "dbName", DATABASE_USER = "user", DATABASE_PASSWORD = "pass", DATABASE_PORT = "5432" ) # orm/models.py # ... # myScript.py # import models.. And whether you need to run something like: django-admin.py inspectdb ... (Oh, I'm running Windows if that changes anything regarding command-line arguments.).

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  • Deploying ASP.Net MVC application

    - by a_m0d
    I've recently reached the stage where an ASP.net MVC application I am developing is ready to be deployed to the production server. I've worked out how to publish the application - I've got all the files on the server, and can access them over the internet. However, I can't work out how to deploy my database. The server has the SQL Server Management Studio Express installed, as the database used is a SQL Server Express database. I have the server instance up and running - I just don't know how to add the tables, etc. to the database. I have created the "CREATE TABLE" scripts on the development machine, but as far as I can see, Management Studio does not provide any way to actually run these scripts. I have looked through all the menu items that I could see, and none of them worked. Even using the "Create new query..." option and pasting the script in didn't work. When I try "File-Open..." and select a script to run, set the correct database from the dropdown list on the toolbar, and then execute the script, it complains about not finding the database file (even when I set the USE [...] statement to the correct path. Deleting the USE [...] statement, the script complains that it can't find the [dbo].[Invoices] object; however, it shouldn't be able to find it, because its trying to create it! tl;dr: What's the best way to make sure that the database on the production machine matches the database on my development machine?

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  • NHibernate mapping for subclasses and joined-subclasses

    - by Husain
    In a project that I am working on, I have the following entities: Analyst, Client and Contractor. Each inherit from a base class User. public abstract class User { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Username { get; set; } public virtual string FullName { get; set; } } I then have the other classes inheriting from the base class as: public class Analyst : User { // Empty class. There are no additional properties for an analyst. } public class Client : User { // Empty class. There are no additional properties for a client. } public class Contractor : User { public int TotalJobs { get; set; } public int JobsInProgress { get; set; } } For the above classes, I have the following table structure: USER ---- UserId Username FullName UserType (1 = Analyst, 2 = Client, 3 = Contractor) CONTRACTOR ---------- UserId TotalJobs JobsInProgress There are no tables for Analyst and Client classes. I would like to know how I can write the NHibernate mapping file for the Contractor class. For the other classes, I have created a User mapping file and added Client and Analyst as sub-classes. How can I map the Contractor class?

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  • Constructor and Destructors in C++ [Not a question] [closed]

    - by Jack
    I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

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  • using dummy row with NOT NULL to solve DEFAULT NULL

    - by Tony38
    I know having DEFAULT NULLS is not a good practice but I have many optional lookup values which are FK in the system so to solve this issue here is what i am doing: I use NOT NULL for every FK / lookup colunms. I have the first row in every lookup table which is PK id = 1 as a dummy row with just "none" in all the columns. This way I can use NOT NULL in my schema and if needed reference to the none row values PK =1 for FKs which do not have any lookup value. Is this a good design or any other work arounds? EDIT: I have: Neighborhood table Postal table. Every neighborhood has a city, so the FK can be NOT NULL. But not every postal code belongs to a neighborhood. Some do, some don't depending on the country. So if i use NOT NULL for the FK between postal and neighborhood then I will be screwed as there has to be some value entered. So what i am doing in essence is: have a row in every table to be a dummy row just to link the FKs. This way row one in neighborhood table will be: n_id = 1 name =none etc... In postal table I can have: postal_code = 3456A3 FK (city) = Moscow FK (neighborhood_id)=1 as a NOT NULL. If I don't have a dummy row in the neighborhood lookup table then I have to declare FK (neighborhood_id) as a Default null column and store blanks in the table. This is an example but there is a huge number of values which will have blanks then in many tables.

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  • SQL Server - Complex Dynamic Pivot columns

    - by user972255
    I have two tables "Controls" and "ControlChilds" Parent Table Structure: Create table Controls( ProjectID Varchar(20) NOT NULL, ControlID INT NOT NULL, ControlCode Varchar(2) NOT NULL, ControlPoint Decimal NULL, ControlScore Decimal NULL, ControlValue Varchar(50) ) Sample Data ProjectID | ControlID | ControlCode | ControlPoint | ControlScore | ControlValue P001 1 A 30.44 65 Invalid P001 2 C 45.30 85 Valid Child Table Structure: Create table ControlChilds( ControlID INT NOT NULL, ControlChildID INT NOT NULL, ControlChildValue Varchar(200) NULL ) Sample Data ControlID | ControlChildID | ControlChildValue 1 100 Yes 1 101 No 1 102 NA 1 103 Others 2 104 Yes 2 105 SomeValue Output should be in a single row for a given ProjectID with all its Control values first & followed by child control values (based on the ControlCode (i.e.) ControlCode_Child (1, 2, 3...) and it should look like this Also, I tried this PIVOT query and I am able to get the ChildControls table values but I dont know how to get the Controls table values. DECLARE @cols AS NVARCHAR(MAX); DECLARE @query AS NVARCHAR(MAX); select @cols = STUFF((SELECT distinct ',' + QUOTENAME(ControlCode + '_Child' + CAST(ROW_NUMBER() over(PARTITION BY ControlCode ORDER BY ControlChildID) AS Varchar(25))) FROM Controls C INNER JOIN ControlChilds CC ON C.ControlID = CC.ControlID FOR XML PATH(''), TYPE ).value('.', 'NVARCHAR(MAX)') , 1, 1, ''); SELECT @query ='SELECT * FROM ( SELECT (ControlCode + ''_Child'' + CAST(ROW_NUMBER() over(PARTITION BY ControlCode ORDER BY ControlChildID) AS Varchar(25))) As Code, ControlChildValue FROM Controls AS C INNER JOIN ControlChilds AS CC ON C.ControlID = CC.ControlID ) AS t PIVOT ( MAX(ControlChildValue) FOR Code IN( ' + @cols + ' )' + ' ) AS p ; '; execute(@query); Output I am getting: Can anyone please help me on how to get the Controls table values in front of each ControlChilds table values?

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  • stackoverflow tags and related tags

    - by parminder
    Hi Experts, I am working on a website where a user can add tags to their posted books. It is similar to stackover flow, but I am keeping my tags in differnt table. so here are the tables/class in linq to entities. Books { bookId, Title } Tags { Id Tag } BooksTags { Id BookId TagId } Here are few sample records. Books BookId Title 113421 A 113422 B Tags Id Tag 1 ASP 2 C# 3 CSS 4 VB 5 VB.NET 6 PHP 7 java 8 pascal BooksTags Id BookId TagId 1 113421 1 2 113421 2 3 113421 3 4 113421 4 5 113422 1 6 113422 4 7 113422 8 Question 1 : I need to write something in linq to entities queries which gives me data according to the tags say if I want bookIds where tagid =1 it should return bookid 113421 and 113422 as it exists in both the books, but If I ask data for tags 1 and 2 it should return only book 113421 as that is the only book where both the tags are present. Question 2 : I need tags and their count too to show in related tags, so in first case my related tags class should have following result. RelatedTags Tag Count 2 1 3 1 4 2 8 1 in the second case when two tags are requested the result should be like RelatedTags Tag Count 3 1 4 1 I have get the first thing working by converting a sql query in linqer, but that seems like a hell. so want to know if there is any better idea. I have used dyanmic where clause to include two tags. So if someone can help. It will be much appreciated. Thanks Parminder

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  • Organizing Eager Queries in an ObjectContext

    - by Nix
    I am messing around with Entity Framework 3.5 SP1 and I am trying to find a cleaner way to do the below. I have an EF model and I am adding some Eager Loaded entities and i want them all to reside in the "Eager" property in the context. We originally were just changing the entity set name, but it seems a lot cleaner to just use a property, and keep the entity set name in tact. Example: Context - EntityType - AnotherType - Eager (all of these would have .Includes to pull in all assoc. tables) - EntityType - AnotherType Currently I am using composition but I feel like there is an easier way to do what I want. namespace Entities{ public partial class TestObjectContext { EagerExtensions Eager { get;set;} public TestObjectContext(){ Eager = new EagerExtensions (this); } } public partial class EagerExtensions { TestObjectContext context; public EagerExtensions(TestObjectContext _context){ context = _context; } public IQueryable<TestEntity> TestEntity { get { return context.TestEntity .Include("TestEntityType") .Include("Test.Attached.AttachedType") .AsQueryable(); } } } } public class Tester{ public void ShowHowIWantIt(){ TestObjectContext context= new TestObjectContext(); var query = from a in context.Eager.TestEntity select a; } }

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  • how to retrieve informatin from deleted row

    - by JM
    How can I retrie infromation from delete rows. I delete some rows from table in dataset, then I use method GetChanges(DataRowState.Deleted) to get deleted rows. I try delete rows in original table on server side, but it finished with this errors. System.Data.DeletedRowInaccessibleException: Deleted row information cannot be accessed through the row. What is correct way? Here is my code, any advice? Thank you everybody Dataset ds = //get dataset from client side //get changes DataTable delRows = ds.Tables[0].GetChanges(DataRowState.Deleted); //try delete rows in table in DB if (delRows != null) { string connStr = WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["Employees"].ConnectionString; conn = new SqlConnection(connStr); conn.Open(); for (int i = 0; i < delRows.Rows.Count; i++) { string cmdText = string.Format("DELETE Tab1 WHERE Surname=@Surname"); cmd = new SqlCommand() { Connection = conn, CommandText = cmdText }; //here is problem, I need get surnames from rows which was deleted var sqlParam = new SqlParameter(@"Surname", SqlDbType.VarChar) { Value = delRows.Rows[i][1].ToString() }; cmd.Parameters.Add(sqlParam); cmd.CommandText = cmdText; cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } }

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  • How to not use JavaScript with in the elements events attributes but still load via AJAX

    - by thecoshman
    I am currently loading HTMl content via AJAX. I have code for things on different elements onclick attributes (and other event attributes). It does work, but I am starting to find that the code is getting rather large, and hard to read. I have also read that it is considered bad practice to have the event code 'inline' like this and that I should really do by element.onclick = foobar and have foobar defined somewhere else. I understand how with a static page it is fairly easy to do this, just have a script tag at the bottom of the page and once the page is loaded have it executed. This can then attach any and all events as you need them. But how can I get this sort of affect when loading content via AJAX. There is also the slight case that the content loaded can very depending on what is in the database, some times certain sections of HTML, such as tables of results, will not even be displayed there will be something else entirely. I can post some samples of code if any body needs them, but I have no idea what sort of things would help people with this one. I will point out, that I am using Jquery already so if it has some helpful little functions that would be rather sweet¬

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  • Modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately

    - by Superstringcheese
    I'm working with the Microsoft ADO.NET Entity Framework for a game project. Following the advice of other posters on SO, I'm considering modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately. The idea for this came from a discussion on multiplayer games, but it seemed to make sense in a single-player scenario as well. Deterministic (things that aren't going to change during gameplay) Attributes (Strength, Agility, etc.) and their descriptions Skills and their descriptions and requirements Races, Factions, Equipment, etc. Base Attribute/Skill/Equipment loadouts for monsters Nondeterministic (things that will change a lot during gameplay) Beings' current AttributeModifers (Potion of Might = +10 Strength), current health and mana, etc. Player inventory, cash, experience, level Player quests states Player FactionRelationships ...and so on. My deterministic model would serve as a set of constants. My nondeterministic model would provide my on-the-fly operable data and would be serialized to a savegame file to maintain game state between play sessions. The data store will be an embedded SQL Compact database. So I might want to create relations between my Attributes table (deterministic model) and my BeingAttributeModifiers table (nondeterministic model), but how do I set that up across models? Det model/db Nondet model/db ____________ ________________________ |Attributes | |PlayerAttributeModifiers| |------------| |------------------------| |Id | |Id | |Name | |AttributeId | |Description | |SourceId | ------------ |Value | ------------------------ Should I use two separate models (edmx) that transact with a single database containing both deterministic-type and nondeterministic-type tables? Or should/can I use two separate databases in one model? Or two models each with their own database? With distinct models/dbs it seems like this will get really complicated and I'll end up fighting EF a lot, rolling my own transaction code, and generally losing out on a lot of the advantages of the framework. I know these are vague questions, I'm just looking for a sanity check before I forge ahead any further.

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  • Nhibernate - stuck with detached criteria (asp.net mvc 1 with nhibernate 2) c#

    - by Jen
    OK so I can't find a good example of this so I can better understand how to use detached criteria (assuming that's what I want to use in the first place). I have 2 tables. Placement and PlacementSupervisor My PlacementSupervisor table has a FK of PlacementID which relates to Placement.PlacementID - though my nhibernate model class has PlacementSupervisor . Placement (rather than specifically specifying a property of placement ID - not sure if this is important). What I am trying to do is - if values are passed through for the supervisor ID I want to restrict placements with that supervisor id. Have tried: ICriteria query = m_PlacementRepository.QueryAlias("p") .... if (criteria.SupervisorId > 0 && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(criteria.SupervisorTypeId)) { DetachedCriteria entityQuery = DetachedCriteria.For<PlacementSupervisor>("sup") .Add(Restrictions.And( Restrictions.Eq("sup.supervisorId", criteria.SupervisorId), Restrictions.Eq("sup.supervisorTypeId", criteria.SupervisorTypeId) )) .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .AddPropertyAlias("Placement.PlacementId", "PlacementId") ); query.Add(Subqueries.PropertyIn("p.PlacementId", entityQuery)); } Which just gives me the error: Could not find a matching criteria info provider to: (sup.supervisorId = 5 and sup.supervisorTypeId = U) Firstly supervisorTypeId is a string. Secondly I don't understand how to achieve what I'm trying to do so have just been trying various combinations of projections, and property aliases and subquery options..as I don't get how I'm supposed to join to another table/entity when the FK key sits in the second table. Can someone point me in the right direction. It seems like such an easy thing to do from a data perspective that hopefully I'm just missing something obvious!!

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  • Performance impact when using XML columns in a table with MS SQL 2008

    - by Sam Dahan
    I am using a simple table with 6 columns, 3 of which are of XML type, not schema-constrained. When the table reaches a size around 120,000 or 150,000 rows, I see a dramatic performance cost in doing any query in the table. For comparison, I have another table, which grows in size at about the same rate, but only contain scalar types (int, datetime, a few float columns). That table performs perfectly fine even after 200,000 rows. And by the way, I am not using XQuery on the xml columns, i am only using regular SQL query statements. Some specifics: both tables contain a DateTime field called SampleTime. a statement like (it's in a stored procedure but I show you the actual statement) SELECT MAX(sampleTime) SampleTime FROM dbo.MyRecords WHERE PlacementID=@somenumber takes 0 seconds on the table without xml columns, and anything from 13 to 20 seconds on the table with XML columns. That depends on which drive I set my database on. At the moment it sits on a different spindle (not C:) and it takes 13 seconds. Has anyone seen this behavior before, or have any hint at what I am doing wrong? I tried this with SQL 2008 EXPRESS and the full-blown SQL Server 2008, that made no difference. Oh, one last detail: I am doing this from a C# application, .NET 3.5, using SqlConnection, SqlReader, etc.. I'd appreciate some insight into that, thanks! Sam

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  • Return unordered list from hierarchical sql data

    - by Milan
    I have table with pageId, parentPageId, title columns. Is there a way to return unordered nested list using asp.net, cte, stored procedure, UDF... anything? Table looks like this: PageID ParentId Title 1 null Home 2 null Products 3 null Services 4 2 Category 1 5 2 Category 2 6 5 Subcategory 1 7 5 SubCategory 2 8 6 Third Level Category 1 ... Result should look like this: Home Products Category 1 SubCategory 1 Third Level Category 1 SubCategory 2 Category 2 Services Ideally, list should contain <a> tags as well, but I hope I can add it myself if I find a way to create <ul> list. EDIT 1: I thought that already there is a solution for this, but it seems that there isn't. I wanted to keep it simple as possible and to escape using ASP.NET menu at any cost, because it uses tables by default. Then I have to use CSS Adapters etc. Even if I decide to go down the "ASP.NET menu" route I was able to find only this approach: http://aspalliance.com/822 which uses DataAdapter and DataSet :( Any more modern or efficient way?

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  • SQL Query Math Gymnastics

    - by keruilin
    I have two tables of concern here: users and race_weeks. User has many race_weeks, and race_week belongs to User. Therefore, user_id is a fk in the race_weeks table. I need to perform some challenging math on fields in the race_weeks table in order to return users with the most all-time points. Here are the fields that we need to manipulate in the race_weeks table. races_won (int) races_lost (int) races_tied (int) points_won (int, pos or neg) recordable_type(varchar, Robots can race, but we're only concerned about type 'User') Just so that you fully understand the business logic at work here, over the course of a week a user can participate in many races. The race_week record represents the summary results of the user's races for that week. A user is considered active for the week if races_won, races_lost, or races_tied is greater than 0. Otherwise the user is inactive. So here's what we need to do in our query in order to return users with the most points won (actually net_points_won): Calculate each user's net_points_won (not a field in the DB). To calculate net_points, you take (1000 * count_of_active_weeks) - sum(points__won). (Why 1000? Just imagine that every week the user is spotted a 1000 points to compete and enter races. We want to factor-out what we spot the user because the user could enter only one race for the week for 100 points, and be sitting on 900, which we would skew who actually EARNED the most points.) This one is a little convoluted, so let me know if I can clarify further.

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  • Fast, easy, and secure method to perform DB actions with GET

    - by rob - not a robber
    Hey All, Sort of a methods/best practices question here that I am sure has been addressed, yet I can't find a solution based on the vague search terms I enter. I know starting off the question with "Fast and easy" will probably draw out a few sighs, so my apologies. Here is the deal. I have a logged in area where an ADMIN can do a whole host of POST operations to input data relating to their profile. The way I have data structured is pretty distinct and well segmented in most tables as it relates to the ID of the admin. Now, I have a table where I dump one type of data into and differentiate this data by assigning the ADMIN's unique ID to each record. In other words, all ADMINs have this one type of data writing to this table. I just differentiate by the ADMIN ID with each record. I was planning on letting the ADMIN remove these records by clicking on a link with a query string - obviously using GET. Obviously, the query structure is in the link so any logged in admin could then exploit the URL and delete a competitor's records. Is the only way to safely do this through POST or should I pass through the session info that includes password and validate it against the ADMIN ID that is requesting the delete? This is obviously much more work for me. As they said in the auto repair biz I used to work in... there are 3 ways to do a job: Fast, Good, and Cheap. You can only have two at a time. Fast and cheap will not be good. Good and cheap will not have fast turnaround. Fast and good will NOT be cheap. haha I guess that applies here... can never have Fast, Easy and Secure all at once ;) Thanks in advance...

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  • Oracle ODBC x64 - getting 0 when selecting a number(9) column

    - by MatsL
    I'm having a really weird problem with a third party web service that uses an ODBC connection to Oracle 10.2.0.3.0. I've written a .NET client that generates the same SQL as the web service so I can find out what's going on. The web service is hosted by IIS 6 that's in x64 mode so we use Oracle x64 client. The oracle client version is 10.2.0.1.0. I have a table that looks like this (I've removed some columns and names): SQL> describe tablename; Name Null? Type ----------------------------------------- -------- ---------------------------- KOD VARCHAR2(30) ORDNING NUMBER(5) AVGIFT NUMBER(9) I then in SQL*Plus issue the following statement: SELECT KOD as kod, AVGIFT as riskPoang FROM tablename Where upper(KODTYP) = 'OBJLIVSV_RISKVERKSAMTYP' ORDER BY ORDNING And I get the following result: KOD RISKPOANG ------------------------------ ---------- Hög risk 55 Mellan risk 35 Låg risk 15 Mycket låg risk 5 But when I execute the exact same SQL using the same DSN on the same machine I get this: Values Kod: Hög risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Mellan risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Låg risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Mycket låg risk RiskPoäng: 0 If I first cast the number to varchar and then back again to number, like this: SELECT KOD as kod, to_number(to_char(AVGIFT, '99'), '9999999999') as riskPoang FROM tablename Where upper(KODTYP) = 'OBJLIVSV_RISKVERKSAMTYP' ORDER BY ORDNING I get the correct result: Values Kod: Hög risk RiskPoäng: 55 Kod: Mellan risk RiskPoäng: 35 Kod: Låg risk RiskPoäng: 15 Kod: Mycket låg risk RiskPoäng: 5 Has anyone else experiences this? It's incredibly annoying and I'm completely stuck and not sure what to do next. We have a third party web service that use these tables so I must get the original SQL-statement to work since I can't modify its code. And pointers are greatly appreciated! :-) Best regards, Mats

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  • Row selection based on subtable data in MySQL

    - by Felthragar
    I've been struggling with this selection for a while now, I've been searching around StackOverflow and tried a bunch of stuff but nothing that helps me with my particular issue. Maybe I'm just missing something obvious. I have two tables: Measurements, MeasurementFlags "Measurements" contain measurements from a device, and each measurement can have properties/attributes attached to them (commonly known as "flags") to signify that the measurement in question is special in some way or another (for instance, one flag may signify a test or calibration measurement). Note: One record per flag! Right, so a record from the "Measurements" table can theoreticly have an unlimited amount of MeasurementFlags attached to it, or it can have none. Now, I need to select records from "Measurements", that have an attached "MeasurementFlag" valued "X", but it must also NOT have a flag valued "Y" attached to it. We're talking about a fairly large database with hundreds of millions of rows, which is why I'm trying to keep all of this logic within one query. Splitting it up would create too many queries, however if it's not possible to do in one query I guess I don't have a choise. Thanks in advance.

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  • Overflow in table cells

    - by Ezdaroth
    I need to create a chat layout that uses all the available space and scales nicely, but has few fixed sizes. Here's the structure: <table style="width: 100%; height: 100%"> <tr> <td></td> <td style="width: 200px; background: red;"></td> </tr> <tr> <td style="height: 100px; background: blue"></td> <td></td> </tr> </table> However, I want to place a lot of content in the first table cell and I want it to scroll, so it won't expand the table. Is it possible to make it overflow properly, without having a fixed height for the cell? Simply adding overflow: auto doesn't seem to work. PS. I hate tables, but can't figure out a very clean and cross-browser way to do a layout like this with divs and css. If someone can come up with one, I'll gladly use it.

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  • database setup for web application

    - by vbNewbie
    I have an application that requires a database and I have already setup tables but not sure if they match the requirements of the app. The app is a crawler which fetches web urls, crawls and stores appropriate urls and posts and all this is based on client requests which are stored as projects. So for each url stored there is one post and for client there are many projects and for each project there are many types of requests. So we get a client with a request and assign them a project name and then use the request to search for content and store the url and post. A request could already exist and should not be duplicated but should be associated with the right client and project and post etc. Here is my schema now: url table: urlId PK queryId FK url post table: postId PK urlId FK post date request table: queryId PK request client table: clientId PK client Name projectId FK project table: projectID PK queryID FK project Does this look right? or does anyone have suggestions. Of course my stored procedures and insert statements will have to be in depth.

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  • Fiscal year, quarters, student table, and faculty table... How do I relate these?!

    - by yuudachi
    I have a student and faculty table. The primary key for student is studendID (SID) and faculty's primary key is facultyID, naturally. Student has an advisor column and a requested advisor column, which are foreign key to faculty. That's simple enough, right? However, now I have to throw in dates. I want to be able to view who their advisor was for a certain quarter (such as 2009 Winter) and who they had requested. The result will be a table like this: Year | Term | SID | Current | Requested ------------------------------------------------ 2009 | Winter | 860123456 | 1 | NULL 2009 | Winter | 860445566 | 3 | NULL 2009 | Winter | 860369147 | 5 | 1 And then if I feel like it, I could also go ahead and view a different year and a different term. I am not sure how these new table(s) will look like. Will there be a year table with three columns that are Fall, Spring and Winter? And what will the Fall, Spring, Winter table have? I am new to the art of tables, so this is baffling me... Also, I feel I should clarify how the site works so far now. Admin can approve student requests, and what happens is that the student's current advisor gets overwritten with their request. However, I think I should not do that anymore, right?

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  • Query broke down and left me stranded in the woods

    - by user1290323
    I am trying to execute a query that deletes all files from the images table that do not exist in the filters tables. I am skipping 3,500 of the latest files in the database as to sort of "Trim" the table back to 3,500 + "X" amount of records in the filters table. The filters table holds markers for the file, as well as the file id used in the images table. The code will run on a cron job. My Code: $sql = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `images` ORDER BY `id` DESC") or die(mysql_error()); while($row = mysql_fetch_array($sql)){ $id = $row['id']; $file = $row['url']; $getId = mysql_query("SELECT `id` FROM `filter` WHERE `img_id` = '".$id."'") or die(mysql_error()); if(mysql_num_rows($getId) == 0){ $IdQue[] = $id; $FileQue[] = $file; } } for($i=3500; $i<$x; $i++){ mysql_query("DELETE FROM `images` WHERE id='".$IdQue[$i]."' LIMIT 1") or die("line 18".mysql_error()); unlink($FileQue[$i]) or die("file Not deleted"); } echo ($i-3500)." files deleted."; Output: 0 files deleted. Database contents: images table: 10,000 rows filters table: 63 rows Amount of rows in filters table that contain an images table id: 63 Execution time of php script: 4 seconds +/- 0.5 second Relevant DB structure TABLE: images id url etc... TABLE: filter id img_id (CONTAINS ID FROM images table) etc...

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  • ruby on rails one-to-many relationship

    - by fenec
    I would like to model a betting system relationship using the power of rails. so lets start with doing something very simple modelling the relationship from a user to a bet.i would like to have a model bet with 2 primary keys. here are my migrations enter code here class CreateBets < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :bets do |t| t.integer :user_1_id t.integer :user_2_id t.integer :amount t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :bets end end class CreateUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :users do |t| t.string :name t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :users end end the models enter code here class Bet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user_1,:class_name=:User belongs_to :user_2,:class_name=:User end class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :bets, :foreign_key =:user_1) has_many :bets, :foreign_key =:user_2) end when i test here in the console my relationships I got an error enter code here u1=User.create :name="aa" = # u2=User.create :name="bb" = # b=Bet.create(:user_1=u1,:user_2=u2) *****error***** QUESTIONS: 1 How do I define the relationships between these tables correctly? 2 are there any conventions to name the attributes (ex:user_1_id...) thank you for your help

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  • Problem importing Oracle .dmp file

    - by BitFiddler
    So I have looked at all the suggested ways of importing .dmp files and non of them seem to answer this question: where does the data go once you import it? Context: I created a user like so: SQL> create user IMPORTER identified by "12345"; SQL> grant connect, unlimited tablespace, resource to IMPORTER; I then ran the 'imp' command as follows: C:\>imp system/password FROMUSER=OVIEDOE TOUSER=IMPORTER file=c:\database1.dmp Now there were 9 .dmp files, after each one it asked me for the next one and then I received the message "Import terminated successfully with warnings." The warning was: Warning: the objects were exported by OVIEDOE, not by you import done in WE8MSWIN1252 character set and AL16UTF16 NCHAR character set export client uses WE8ISO8859P1 character set (possible charset conversion) IMP-00046: using FILESIZE value from export file of 2147483648 Now it says it was terminated successfully so my assumption (I am new to oracle so this may be wrong) is that the data was loaded. However, when I use SQL developer to connect to the database and look under the 'tables' node under the IMPORTER user, there is nothing there. What is going on? Did the data load? If so, where can I find it?

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  • Group / User based security. Table / SQL question

    - by Brett
    Hi, I'm setting up a group / user based security system. I have 4 tables as follows: user groups group_user_mappings acl where acl is the mapping between an item_id and either a group or a user. The way I've done the acl table, I have 3 columns of note (actually 4th one as an auto-id, but that is irrelevant) col 1 item_id (item to access) col 3 user_id (user that is allowed to access) col 3 group_id (group that is allowed to access) So for example item1, peter, , item2, , group1 item3, jane, , so either the acl will give access to a user or a group. Any one line in the ACL table with either have an item - user mapping, or an item group. If I want to have a query that returns all objects a user has access to, I think I need to have a SQL query with a UNION, because I need 2 separate queries that join like.. item - acl - group - user AND item - acl - user This I guess will work OK. Is this how its normally done? Am I doing this the right way? Seems a little messy. I was thinking I could get around it by creating a single user group for each person, so I only ever deal with groups in my SQL, but this seems a little messy as well..

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