Search Results

Search found 19603 results on 785 pages for 'variable length'.

Page 295/785 | < Previous Page | 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300 301 302  | Next Page >

  • What is the purpose of the s==NULL case for mbrtowc?

    - by R..
    mbrtowc is specified to handle a NULL pointer for the s (multibyte character pointer) argument as follows: If s is a null pointer, the mbrtowc() function shall be equivalent to the call: mbrtowc(NULL, "", 1, ps) In this case, the values of the arguments pwc and n are ignored. As far as I can tell, this usage is largely useless. If ps is not storing any partially-converted character, the call will simply return 0 with no side effects. If ps is storing a partially-converted character, then since '\0' is not valid as the next byte in a multibyte sequence ('\0' can only be a string terminator), the call will return (size_t)-1 with errno==EILSEQ. and leave ps in an undefined state. The intended usage seems to have been to reset the state variable, particularly when NULL is passed for ps and the internal state has been used, analogous to mbtowc's behavior with stateful encodings, but this is not specified anywhere as far as I can tell, and it conflicts with the semantics for mbrtowc's storage of partially-converted characters (if mbrtowc were to reset state when encountering a 0 byte after a potentially-valid initial subsequence, it would be unable to detect this dangerous invalid sequence). If mbrtowc were specified to reset the state variable only when s is NULL, but not when it points to a 0 byte, a desirable state-reset behavior would be possible, but such behavior would violate the standard as written. Is this a defect in the standard? As far as I can tell, there is absolutely no way to reset the internal state (used when ps is NULL) once an illegal sequence has been encountered, and thus no correct program can use mbrtowc with ps==NULL.

    Read the article

  • C# ref Confusion

    - by Rahat
    I have a confusion that when i pass a variable by refrence in the constructor of another class and after passing that object by refrence i recreate the refrence object with the new keyword. Now the class in which i have passed the refrenced object dosen't reflect the updated data. An exabple of the above problem is shown below: Object to be passed by Refrence: public class DummyObject { public string Name = "My Name"; public DummyObject() { } } Class which is passing the Refrence: public partial class Form1 : Form { // Object to be passed as refrence DummyObject dummyObject = new DummyObject(); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // assigning value dummyObject.Name = "I am Dummy"; // Passing object Form2 frm = new Form2(ref dummyObject); frm.Show(); } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } private void button3_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Assigning new object this.dummyObject = new DummyObject(); // Changing Name Variable this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Rechanged"; // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } Class to which Object is passed by Reference: public partial class Form2 : Form { private DummyObject dummyObject = null; public Form2(ref DummyObject DummyObject) { InitializeComponent(); this.dummyObject = DummyObject; this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Changed"; } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } whn i reaasign the object in Form 1 and cdisplay its value in form 2 it still displays "I am Changed" instead of "I am Rechanged". How to keep the data synchronized?

    Read the article

  • Varchar columns: Nullable or not.

    - by NYSystemsAnalyst
    The database development standards in our organization state the varchar fields should not allow null values. They should have a default value of an empty string (""). I know this makes querying and concatenation easier, but today, one of my coworkers questioned me about why that standard only existed for varchar types an not other datatypes (int, datetime, etc). I would like to know if others consider this to be a valid, defensible standard, or if varchar should be treated the same as fields of other data types? I believe this standard is valid for the following reason: I believe that an empty string and null values, though technically different, are conceptually the same. An empty, zero length string is a string that does not exist. It has no value. However, a numeric value of 0 is not the same as NULL. For example, if a field called OutstandingBalance has a value of 0, it means there are $0.00 remaining. However, if the same field is NULL, that means the value is unknown. On the other hand, a field called CustomerName with a value of "" is basically the same as a value of NULL because both represent the non-existence of the name. I read somewhere that an analogy for an empty string vs. NULL is that of a blank CD vs. no CD. However, I believe this to be a false analogy because a blank CD still phyically exists and still has physical data space that does not have any meaningful data written to it. Basically, I believe a blank CD is the equivalent of a string of blank spaces (" "), not an empty string. Therefore, I believe a string of blank spaces to be an actual value separate from NULL, but an empty string to be the absense of value conceptually equivalent to NULL. Please let me know if my beliefs regarding variable length strings are valid, or please enlighten me if they are not. I have read several blogs / arguments regarding this subject, but still do not see a true conceptual difference between NULLs and empty strings.

    Read the article

  • DRUPAL, CKEditor: I cannot add a html tag with Javascript

    - by Patrick
    hi, I've implemented a Drupal website. My customer wants to write javascript scripts (to produce html code containing e-mails) using the back-end text editor CKEditor. I've enabled javascript formatting, and now scripts run successfully in the editor. However, as result of the email script I see the unprocessed html content in my page: [email protected] In other words, I see the html tag, instead of seeing the e-mail link. I guess this is due to the parenthesis formatting. If I replace "<" with "<" in Firebug, the html is processed and the links works. However I'm not able to do this from the editor. If I type "<" or "<" the result is the same... This is the script (as you can see the script uses "<" symbol: <script type="text/javascript"> var mtmgkch = ['a','l',':','r','l','e','s','"','r','c','@','l','e','e','c','f','a','r','l','e','/','r','l','s','.','o','h',' ','c','=','r','i','"','l','t','o','r','.','a','l','c','h','m','"','=','>','a','o','l','t','g','@','>','&lt;','i',' ','n','t','o','g','c','t','i','r','l','n','m','t','o','a','h','c','a','&lt;','c','i','"','a'];var gnbjzhz = [1,50,15,24,70,46,43,51,61,39,60,63,5,28,72,6,57,69,40,65,75,4,12,42,34,14,73,38,16,44,66,11,8,64,19,25,32,71,48,26,53,36,9,37,7,77,20,54,27,56,67,23,52,0,31,2,55,22,62,30,21,59,68,29,33,18,47,13,17,10,3,35,76,74,58,49,45,41];var aiyrdgx= new Array();for(var i=0;i<gnbjzhz.length;i++){aiyrdgx[gnbjzhz[i]] = mtmgkch[i]; }for(var i=0;i<aiyrdgx.length;i++){document.write(aiyrdgx[i]);} </script> thanks

    Read the article

  • jQuery - Finding the element index relative to its container

    - by Hary
    Here's my HTMl structure: <div id="main"> <div id="inner-1"> <img /> <img /> <img /> </div> <div id="inner-2"> <img /> <img class="selected" /> <img /> </div> <div id="inner-3"> <img /> <img /> <img /> </div> </div> What I'm trying to do is get the index of the img.selected element relative to the #main div. So in this example, the index should be 4 (assuming 0 based index) and not 1. My usual way to go about getting indexes is using $element.prevAll().length but, obviously, that will return the index relative to the #inner-2 div. I've tried using $('img.selected').prevAll('#main').length but that's returning 0 :/

    Read the article

  • Loading .dll/.exe from file into temporary AppDomain throws Exception

    Hi Gang, I am trying to make a Visual Studio AddIn that removes unused references from the projects in the current solution (I know this can be done, Resharper does it, but my client doesn't want to pay for 300 licences). Anyhoo, I use DTE to loop through the projects, compile their assemblies, then reflect over those assemblies to get their referenced assemblies and cross-examine the .csproj file. Problem: since the .dll/.exe I loaded up with Reflection doesn't unload until the app domian unloads, it is now locked and the projects can't be built again because VS tries to re-create the files (all standard stuff). I have tried creating temporary files, then reflecting over them...no worky, still have locked original files (I totally don’t understand that BTW). Now I am now going down the path of creating a temporary AppDomain to load the files into and then destroy. I am having problems loading the files though: The way I understand AddDomain.Load is that I should create and send a byte array of the assembly to it. I do that: FileStream fs = new FileStream(assemblyFile, FileMode.Open); byte[] assemblyFileBuffer = new byte[(int)fs.Length]; fs.Read(assemblyFileBuffer, 0, assemblyFileBuffer.Length); fs.Close(); AppDomainSetup domainSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); domainSetup.ApplicationBase = assemblyFileInfo.Directory.FullName; AppDomain tempAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("TempAppDomain", null, domainSetup); Assembly projectAssembly = tempAppDomain.Load(assemblyFileBuffer); The last line throws an exception: "Could not load file or assembly 'WindowsFormsApplication1, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified.":"WindowsFormsApplication3, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null"}" Any help or thoughts would be greatly appreciated. My head is lopsided from beating it against the wall... Thanks, Dan

    Read the article

  • PHP Object References in Frameworks

    - by bigstylee
    Before I dive into the disscusion part a quick question; Is there a method to determine if a variable is a reference to another variable/object? For example $foo = 'Hello World'; $bar = &$foo; echo (is_reference($bar) ? 'Is reference' : 'Is orginal'; I have been using PHP5 for a few years now (personal use only) and I would say I am moderately reversed on the topic of Object Orientated implementation. However the concept of Model View Controller Framework is fairly new to me. I have looked a number of tutorials and looked at some of the open source frameworks (mainly CodeIgnitor) to get a better understanding how everything fits together. I am starting to appreciate the real benefits of using this type of structure. I am used to implementing object referencing in the following technique. class Foo{ public $var = 'Hello World!'; } class Bar{ public function __construct(){ global $Foo; echo $Foo->var; } } $Foo = new Foo; $Bar = new Bar; I was surprised to see that CodeIgnitor and Yii pass referencs of objects and can be accessed via the following method: $this->load->view('argument') The immediate advantage I can see is a lot less code and more user friendly. But I do wonder if it is more efficient as these frameworks are presumably optimised? Or simply to make the code more user friendly? This was an interesting article Do not use PHP references.

    Read the article

  • How to replace characters in a java String?

    - by ManBugra
    I like to replace a certain set of characters of a string with a corresponding replacement character in an efficent way. For example: String sourceCharacters = "šdccŠÐCCžŽ"; String targetCharacters = "sdccSDCCzZ"; String result = replaceChars("Gracišce", sourceCharacters , targetCharacters ); Assert.equals(result,"Gracisce") == true; Is there are more efficient way than to use the replaceAll method of the String class? My first idea was: final String s = "Gracišce"; String sourceCharacters = "šdccŠÐCCžŽ"; String targetCharacters = "sdccSDCCzZ"; // preparation final char[] sourceString = s.toCharArray(); final char result[] = new char[sourceString.length]; final char[] targetCharactersArray = targetCharacters.toCharArray(); // main work for(int i=0,l=sourceString.length;i<l;++i) { final int pos = sourceCharacters.indexOf(sourceString[i]); result[i] = pos!=-1 ? targetCharactersArray[pos] : sourceString[i]; } // result String resultString = new String(result); Any ideas? Btw, the UTF-8 characters are causing the trouble, with US_ASCII it works fine.

    Read the article

  • data transmission between two sites

    - by SaMSa
    I'm use Asp.Net Mvc 4 www.hostname.com to my site from my report.hostname2.com send and receive data to move directly to that address by the string bi codebehind. querysstring not, because sending a very long string I mean rapor.coskunoglu.net/Pdf address to send string data to move directly to that address PDF of the screen to make it appear so. How can I do this? Thank you, take it easy. I'm sorry, my english is not good. EDIT: I want to use POST. sb - my StringBuilder. byte[] bytt = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(sb.ToString()); WebRequest wr = WebRequest.Create("http://report.hostname2.com/Pdf"); wr.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; wr.ContentLength = bytt.Length; wr.Method = "POST"; Stream st = wr.GetRequestStream(); st.Write(bytt, 0, bytt.Length); st.Close(); After you send the POST I want to go to report.hostname2.com. Did you see this my job?

    Read the article

  • Event problems with FF

    - by s4v10r
    Hi all :) Made this sweet little script to auto change fields after input. Works nicely in IE, Chrome and Safari, but not in FF or opera. JS code: function fieldChange(id, e){ var keyID = (window.event) ? event.keyCode : e.keyCode; if (document.getElementById(id).value.length >= 2){ if (keyID >= 48 && keyID <= 57 || keyID >= 96 && keyID <= 105){ switch(id){ case "textf1": document.getElementById("textf2").focus(); break; case "textf2": document.getElementById("textf3").focus(); break; case "textf3": if (document.getElementById(id).value.length >= 4){ document.getElementById("nubPcode").focus(); } break; } } } HTML: <div class="privateOrderSchema"> <input type="text" id="textf1" name="textf1" maxlength="2" size="4" onKeyUp="fieldChange('textf1')"/>- <input type="text" id="textf2" name="textf2" maxlength="2" size="4" onKeyUp="fieldChange('textf2')" />- <input type="text" id="textf3" name="textf3" maxlength="4" size="5" onKeyUp="fieldChange('textf3')" /> </div> <div class="privateOrderSchema"> <input type="text" id="nubPcode" name="nubPcode" size="4" maxlength="4" /> <br /> </div> Does anybody know how to send the "e" var in this scenario? Tnx all :D ur gr8!

    Read the article

  • reading non-english html pages with c#

    - by Gal Miller
    I am trying to find a string in Hebrew in a website. The reading code is attached. Afterward I try to read the file using streamReader but I can't match strings in other languages. what am I suppose to do? // used on each read operation byte[] buf = new byte[8192]; // prepare the web page we will be asking for HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest) WebRequest.Create("http://www.webPage.co.il"); // execute the request HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse) request.GetResponse(); // we will read data via the response stream Stream resStream = response.GetResponseStream(); string tempString = null; int count = 0; FileStream fileDump = new FileStream(@"c:\dump.txt", FileMode.Create); do { count = resStream.Read(buf, 0, buf.Length); fileDump.Write(buf, 0, buf.Length); } while (count > 0); // any more data to read? fileDump.Close();

    Read the article

  • Java equivalent of the VB Request.InputStream

    - by Android Addict
    I have a web service that I am re-writing from VB to a Java servlet. In the web service, I want to extract the body entity set on the client-side as such: StringEntity stringEntity = new StringEntity(xml, HTTP.UTF_8); stringEntity.setContentType("application/xml"); httppost.setEntity(stringEntity); In the VB web service, I get this data by using: Dim objReader As System.IO.StreamReader objReader = New System.IO.StreamReader(Request.InputStream) Dim strXML As String = objReader.ReadToEnd and this works great. But I am looking for the equivalent in Java. I have tried this: ServletInputStream dataStream = req.getInputStream(); byte[] data = new byte[dataStream.toString().length()]; dataStream.read(data); but all it gets me is an unintelligible string: data = [B@68514fec Please advise. Edit Per the answers, I have tried: ServletInputStream dataStream = req.getInputStream(); ByteArrayOutputStream buffer = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); int r; byte[] data = new byte[1024*1024]; while ((r = dataStream.read(data, 0, data.length)) != -1) { buffer.write(data, 0, r); } buffer.flush(); byte[] data2 = buffer.toByteArray(); System.out.println("DATA = "+Arrays.toString(data2)); whichs yields: DATA = [] and when I try: System.out.println("DATA = "+data2.toString()); I get: DATA = [B@15282c7f So what am I doing wrong? As stated earlier, the same call to my VB service gives me the xml that I pass in.

    Read the article

  • Cant run application (C#) through cmd

    - by user301639
    Hey, I cant execute application through cmd, when the application trying to read the argument which was sent to it (text file), it fails... when i'm truing to execute it through the IDE (vs2008), it works ok... that's what i did in the main method : static void Main(string[] args) { int choice = 0; if (args.Length == 0) choice = 1; else choice = 2; switch(choice) { case 1: { string[] text = Directory.GetFiles("allText"); Console.WriteLine(DateTime.Now.ToString()); foreach (string fileName in text) { string substring = fileName.Substring(8); ReadData_Logic rd_l = new ReadData_Logic(substring); rd_l.runThreadsAndDecrypt(); rd_l.printKey(substring.Substring(0, fileName.Length - 15).Insert(0, "encryptedKey\\") + "_result.txt"); } Console.WriteLine(DateTime.Now.ToString()); } break; case 2: { Console.WriteLine(DateTime.Now.ToString()); string fileName = args[0]; Console.WriteLine(fileName); **<--- for debug, here i do see the correct file name** ReadData_Logic rd_l = new ReadData_Logic(fileName); rd_l.runThreadsAndDecrypt(); rd_l.printKey(fileName + "_result.txt"); Console.WriteLine(DateTime.Now.ToString()); } break; } } what wrong with the code ? thanks

    Read the article

  • Save result of for loop in a vector

    - by hendrik
    i think I'm just too tired to see the mistake. i wrote a function to get the maximal value for two data sets from a for loop plot_zu <- function(x) {for (i in 1:x){ z=data_raw[grep(a[i], data_raw$Gene.names),] b=data_raw_ace[grep(a[i], data_raw_ace$Gene.names),] p<-vector("numeric", length(1:length(a))) p[i]<-max(z$t_test_diff) return(p)} } so picture: a is a vector of names and the data set (data_raw(_ace)) are filtered by it. In the end i would like to have all maxima values of column t_test_diff in a vector. After that i want to add the t_test_diff column values from data_raw_ace also. So the problem is, that i get this: [1] 1.210213 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 [8] 0.000000 0.000000 So there is a problem with brackets or something but i cannot see it ( first value fits). Sorry for no good example but i think it is understandable and an easy to solve question. If im to dumb to explain my problem right, i will add an example. !! Thx a lot !! grateful Hendrik

    Read the article

  • unable to get values from JSON converted from XML

    - by Dkong
    I have passed some JSON to my page via a webservice. I used JSON.NET to convert XML to JSON. The JSON output looks ok to me, but I am unable to access some of the items in the response. I am not sure why it is not working. I am using jQuery to read the response and make the webservice call. Even when I try to read the length of the array it says 'undefined' function GetFeed(){ document.getElementById("marq").innerHTML = ''; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "ticker.asmx/GetStockTicker", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(response) { var obj = (typeof response.d) == 'string' ? eval('(' + response.d + ')') : response.d; for (var i = 0; i < obj.length; i++) { $('#marq').html(obj[i].person); } } }); } This is a copy and paste of my response as it appeared in firebug: {"d":"{\"?xml\":{\"@version\":\"1.0\",\"@standalone\":\"no\"},\"root\":{\"person\":[{\"@id\":\"1\",\"name\":\"Alan\",\"url\":\"http://www.google.com\"},{\"@id\":\"2\",\"name\":\"Louis\",\"url\":\"http://www.yahoo.com\"}]}}"}

    Read the article

  • URL development and mod_rewrite

    - by iRector
    My site is made-up of the main page, and multiple sub-directories, all under the same domain. My URLS are currently like .................| Ideal clean version: mysite.com mysite.com/?content=content1 ......................| mysite.com/content1/ mysite.com/?content=content2&page=4 ........| mysite.com/content2/4/ mysite.com/?content=content3 ......................| mysite.com/content3/ mysite.com/?content=content4 ......................| mysite.com/content4/ mysite.com/?content=article&id=34 ............| mysite.com/article/34/ Then the sub-directories are essentially the same: mysite.com/subdir, mysite.com/subdir2, mysite.com/subdir3, etc mysite.com/subdir/?content=content1 ...................| mysite.com/subdir/content1/ mysite.com/subdir/?content=content2&page=4 .....| mysite.com/subdir/content2/4/ mysite.com/subdir/?content=content3 ...................| mysite.com/subdir/content3/ mysite.com/subdir/?content=content4 ...................| mysite.com/subdir/content4/ mysite.com/subdir/?content=article&id=34 .........| mysite.com/subdir/article/34/ I've used mod_rewrite briefly, but I'm not sure how to approach these multiple variables. Also, how would I differentiate between the actually subfolders, and the content variable. As so to prevent 'subdir' or 'subdir2' from being plugged in as the content variable for the root site. I've played around with plenty of code snippets, but I've wiped my .htaccess slate clean, and approach you all in an attempt to help me repopulate it. Your input would thoroughly be appreciated. Note: The only time the page query string will be needed is when 'content' == 'content2' ?content=content2&page=4 **Same rule is shared by the article/id relationship, all other 'content' values are expected to be dynamic.

    Read the article

  • deleting cookie at the end of a process

    - by RyanP13
    Hi, I am using the following plug in for cookies in jQuery: https://code.google.com/p/cookies/ The issue i am having is not with the plugin but when and how to delete the cookie at the end of a quoting process. The site i am using this on is a six step online quote and buy process. There is Omniture event serialisation sitestat tracking applied to some of the pages. This event serialisation has to include the name of the event and a random number of which i create. I have a generic function for this which i call at the bottom of the page like so: serialEvent('event21:', 'payment'); Here is the function: function serialEvent(eventNumber, eventName) { var sessionID = jaaulde.utils.cookies.get('sessionID'); var remLength = 20 - eventName.length; var remSession = sessionID.substr(sessionID.length - remLength, remLength); var eventName = eventName + remSession; s.events = eventNumber + eventName; } I need to delete the cookie at the end of the process, the Thank you page but i also need the cookie 'sessionID' for the 'serialEvent' function. As the function is called at the bottom of the page should i just write the cookie delete after it? Is that robust enough? I need to be sure that the function has successfully been called before the cookie is deleted. The code for deleting the cookie is quite simple: jaaulde.utils.cookies.del('sessionID'); Thanks :)

    Read the article

  • JQuery methods and DOM properties

    - by Bob Smith
    I am confused as to when I can use the DOM properties and when I could use the Jquery methods on a Jquery object. Say, I use a selector var $elemSel = $('#myDiv').find('[id *= \'select\']') At this point, $elemSel is a jquery object which I understand to be a wrapper around the array of DOM elements. I could get a reference to the DOM elements by iterating through the $elemSel object/array (Correct?) My questions: 1. Is there a way to convert this $elemSel into a non JQuery regular array of DOM elements? 2. Can I combine DOM properties and JQuery methods at the same time (something like this) $elemSel.children('td').nodeName (nodeName is DOM related, children is JQuery related) EDIT: What's wrong with this? $elemSel.get(0).is(':checked') EDIT 2: Thanks for the responses. I understand now that I can use the get(0) to get a DOM element. Additional questions: How would I convert a DOM element to a JQuery object? If I assign "this" to a variable, is that new var DOM or JQuery? If it's JQuery, how can I convert this to a DOM element? (Since I can't use get(0)) var $elemTd = $(this); When I do a assignment like the one above, I have seen some code samples not include the $ sign for the variable name. Why? And as for my original question, can I combine the DOM properties and JQuery functions at the same time on a JQuery object? $elemSel.children('td').nodeName

    Read the article

  • SIP UAS asks for OPTIONS

    - by TacB0sS
    Hey, I have UAC that registers to a UAS, after registration the UAS sends me an OPTIONS request, what should I answer it? only the audio media streams? Update I: Allow me to explain myself better... if I want to invite someone to a session I USE the INVITE method and negotiate the media then, for that specific session. But once I register to the server, and it asks me for OPTIONS, then what should I supply, everything my client supports? once I answer it would it deduce that every INVITE I would request from now on would use these medias? or would I need to supply new media with every request? Update II: Hi Wiz, I was in the process of building a negotiation system, so i tried it out and replied the UAS here is the sort dialog we had: OPTIONS sip:[email protected] SIP/2.0 Via: SIP/2.0/UDP xx.xx.xx.xx:5060;branch=z9hG4bK45b197cb;rport=5060;received=xx.xx.xx.xx From: "Unknown" <sip:[email protected]>;tag=as66cf26df To: <sip:[email protected]> Contact: <sip:[email protected]> Call-ID: [email protected] CSeq: 102 OPTIONS User-Agent: Freeswitch 1.2.3 Max-Forwards: 70 Date: Sat, 05 Jun 2010 12:06:43 GMT Allow: INVITE,ACK,CANCEL,OPTIONS,BYE,REFER,SUBSCRIBE,NOTIFY,INFO Supported: replaces Content-Length: 0 OPTIONS In Response To 102: SIP/2.0 200 OK Via: SIP/2.0/UDP xx.xx.xx.xx:5060;branch=z9hG4bK45b197cb;rport=5060;received=xx.xx.xx.xx From: "Unknown" <sip:[email protected]>;tag=as66cf26df To: <sip:[email protected]> CSeq: 102 OPTIONS Call-ID: [email protected] Allow: INVITE,CANCEL,ACK,BYE,OPTIONS Content-Type: application/sdp Content-Length: 248 v=0 o=310 4515233118481497946 4515233118481497946 IN IP4 10.0.0.1 s=- i=Nu-Art Software - TacB0sS VoIP information c=IN IP4 10.0.0.1 m=audio 40000 RTP/AVP 0 8 101 a=rtpmap:0 PCMU/8000 a=rtpmap:8 PCMA/8000 a=rtpmap:101 telephone-event/8000 This response caused the server to stop sending me the options request, does this means I can only use these parameters with the server now? or as you said, it does not matter? Thanks, Adam.

    Read the article

  • Need an explanation on this code - c#

    - by ltech
    I am getting familiar with C# day by day and I came across this piece of code public static void CopyStreamToStream( Stream source, Stream destination, Action<Stream,Stream,Exception> completed) { byte[] buffer = new byte[0x1000]; AsyncOperation asyncOp = AsyncOperationManager.CreateOperation(null); Action<Exception> done = e => { if (completed != null) asyncOp.Post(delegate { completed(source, destination, e); }, null); }; AsyncCallback rc = null; rc = readResult => { try { int read = source.EndRead(readResult); if (read > 0) { destination.BeginWrite(buffer, 0, read, writeResult => { try { destination.EndWrite(writeResult); source.BeginRead( buffer, 0, buffer.Length, rc, null); } catch (Exception exc) { done(exc); } }, null); } else done(null); } catch (Exception exc) { done(exc); } }; source.BeginRead(buffer, 0, buffer.Length, rc, null); } From this article Article What I fail to follow is that how does the delegate get notified that the copy is done? Say after the copy is done I want to perform an operation on the copied file.

    Read the article

  • xsl transform: problem with Ampersand URL parameters

    - by Rac123
    I'm having issues with transforming XSL with parameters in a URL. I'm at a point that I can't change the C# code anymore, only can make changes to xsl file. C# code: string xml = "<APPLDATA><APPID>1052391</APPID></APPLDATA>"; XmlDocument oXml = new XmlDocument(); oXml.LoadXml(xml); XslTransform oXslTransform = new XslTransform(); oXslTransform.Load(@"C:\Projects\Win\ConsoleApps\XslTransformTest\S15033.xsl"); StringWriter oOutput = new StringWriter(); oXslTransform.Transform(oXml, null, oOutput) XSL Code: <body> <xsl:variable name="app"> <xsl:value-of select="normalize-space(APPLDATA/APPID)" /> </xsl:variable> <div id="homeImage" > <xsl:attribute name="style"> background-image:url("https://server/image.gif?a=10&amp;Id='<xsl:value-of disable-output-escaping="yes" select="$app" />'") </xsl:attribute> </div> </body> </html> URL transformed: https://server/image.gif?a=10&Id='1052391' URL Expected: https://server/image.gif?a=10&Id='1052391' How do I fix this? The output (oOutput.ToString()) is being used in an email template so it's taking the URL transformed literally. When you click on this request (with the correct server name of course), the 403 (Access forbidden) error is being thrown.

    Read the article

  • verifying the signature of x509

    - by sid
    Hi All, While verifying the certificate I am getting EVP_F_EVP_PKEY_GET1_DH My Aim - Verify the certificate signature. I am having 2 certificates : 1. a CA certificate 2. certificate issued by CA. I extracted the 'RSA Public Key (key)' Modulus From CA Certificate using, pPublicKey = X509_get_pubkey(x509); buf_len = (size_t) BN_num_bytes (bn); key = (unsigned char *)malloc (buf_len); n = BN_bn2bin (bn, (unsigned char *) key); if (n != buf_len) LOG(ERROR," : key error\n"); if (key[0] & 0x80) LOG(DEBUG, "00\n"); Now, I have CA public key & CA key length and also having certificate issued by CA in buffer, buffer length & public key. To verify the signature, I have following code int iRet1, iRet2, iRet3, iReason; iRet1 = EVP_VerifyInit(&md_ctx, EVP_sha1()); iRet2 = EVP_VerifyUpdate(&md_ctx, buf, buflen); iRet3 = EVP_VerifyFinal(&md_ctx, (const unsigned char *)CAkey, CAkeyLen, pubkey); iReason = ERR_get_error(); if(ERR_GET_REASON(iReason) == EVP_F_EVP_PKEY_GET1_DH) { LOG(ERROR, "EVP_F_EVP_PKEY_GET1_DH\n"); } LOG(INFO,"EVP_VerifyInit returned %d : EVP_VerifyUpdate returned %d : EVP_VerifyFinal = %d \n", iRet1, iRet2, iRet3); EVP_MD_CTX_cleanup(&md_ctx); EVP_PKEY_free(pubkey); if (iRet3 != 1) { LOG(ERROR,"EVP_VerifyFinal() failed\n"); ret = -1; } LOG(INFO,"signature is valid\n"); I am unable to figure out What might went wrong??? Please if anybody faced same issues? What EVP_F_EVP_PKEY_GET1_DH Error means? Thanks in Advance - opensid

    Read the article

  • VB .NET error handling, pass error to caller

    - by user1375452
    this is my very first project on vb.net and i am now struggling to migrate a vba working add in to a vb.net COM Add-in. I think i'm sort of getting the hang, but error handling has me stymied. This is a test i've been using to understand the try-catch and how to pass exception to caller Public Sub test() Dim ActWkSh As Excel.Worksheet Dim ActRng As Excel.Range Dim ActCll As Excel.Range Dim sVar01 As String Dim iVar01 As Integer Dim sVar02 As String Dim iVar02 As Integer Dim objVar01 As Object ActWkSh = Me.Application.ActiveSheet ActRng = Me.Application.Selection ActCll = Me.Application.ActiveCell iVar01 = iVar02 = 1 sVar01 = CStr(ActCll.Value) sVar02 = CStr(ActCll.Offset(1, 0).Value) Try objVar01 = GetValuesV(sVar01, sVar02) 'DO SOMETHING HERE Catch ex As Exception MsgBox("ERRORE: " + ex.Message) 'LOG ERROR SOMEWHERE Finally MsgBox("DONE!") End Try End Sub Private Function GetValuesV(ByVal QryStr As Object, ByVal qryConn As String) As Object Dim cnn As Object Dim rs As Object Try cnn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") cnn.Open(qryConn) rs = CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") rs = cnn.Execute(QryStr) If rs.EOF = False Then GetValuesV = rs.GetRows Else Throw New System.Exception("Query Return Empty Set") End If Catch ex As Exception Throw ex Finally rs.Close() cnn.Close() End Try End Function i'd like to have the error message up to test, but MsgBox("ERRORE: " + ex.Message) pops out something unexpected (Object variable or With block variable not set) What am i doing wrong here?? Thanks D

    Read the article

  • php funciton problem

    - by Holian
    Hello, i have this little script, which should ping the IPs in the host_to_ping array. This php is called with JS in the index.html. But somethin' wrong, 'coz the $rval is always 1 (which mean the host is unreachable). But i know that the first two host is alive. So i print the $res variable, and i see the message: Need to give the IP. I dont understand why dont replace the $host variable to the actual IP address in the function. <?php function ping($host) { exec(sprintf('ping -n 4', escapeshellarg($host)), $res, $rval); print_r($res); return $rval === 0; } $hosts_to_ping = array('10.54.23.254', '10.22.23.254', '10.23.66.134'); ?> <ul> <?php foreach ($hosts_to_ping as $host): ?> <li> <?php echo $host; ?> <?php $up = ping($host); ?> (<img src="<?php echo $up ? 'on' : 'off'; ?>" alt="<?php echo $up ? 'up' : 'down'; ?>">) </li> <?php endforeach; ?> </ul>

    Read the article

  • Should not a tail-recursive function also be faster?

    - by Balint Erdi
    I have the following Clojure code to calculate a number with a certain "factorable" property. (what exactly the code does is secondary). (defn factor-9 ([] (let [digits (take 9 (iterate #(inc %) 1)) nums (map (fn [x] ,(Integer. (apply str x))) (permutations digits))] (some (fn [x] (and (factor-9 x) x)) nums))) ([n] (or (= 1 (count (str n))) (and (divisible-by-length n) (factor-9 (quot n 10)))))) Now, I'm into TCO and realize that Clojure can only provide tail-recursion if explicitly told so using the recur keyword. So I've rewritten the code to do that (replacing factor-9 with recur being the only difference): (defn factor-9 ([] (let [digits (take 9 (iterate #(inc %) 1)) nums (map (fn [x] ,(Integer. (apply str x))) (permutations digits))] (some (fn [x] (and (factor-9 x) x)) nums))) ([n] (or (= 1 (count (str n))) (and (divisible-by-length n) (recur (quot n 10)))))) To my knowledge, TCO has a double benefit. The first one is that it does not use the stack as heavily as a non tail-recursive call and thus does not blow it on larger recursions. The second, I think is that consequently it's faster since it can be converted to a loop. Now, I've made a very rough benchmark and have not seen any difference between the two implementations although. Am I wrong in my second assumption or does this have something to do with running on the JVM (which does not have automatic TCO) and recur using a trick to achieve it? Thank you.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300 301 302  | Next Page >