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• Best practises for Magento Deployment

  - by Spongeboy

  I am looking setting up a deployment process for a highly customised Magento site, and was wondering how other people do this. I will be setting up dev, UAT and prod environments. All the Magento files will be in source control (SVN). At this stage, I can't see any requirements for changing the DB, so the 3 databases will be manually maintained. Specifically, How do you apply Magento upgrades? (Individually in each env, or on dev then roll out, or just give up on upgrades?) What files/folders do leave alone in each environment (e.g. magento/app/etc/local.xml) Do you restrict developers to editing specific files/folders? Do you restrict theme designers to editing specific files/folders? How do you manage database changes? Theme Designer Files/Folders Designers can restricted to editing the following folders- app/design/frontend/your_interface/your_theme/layout/ app/design/frontend/your_interface/your_theme/template/ app/design/frontend/your_interface/your_theme/locale/ skin/frontend/your_interface/your_theme/ Extension Developer Files/Folders Extension developers can edit the following folders/files- /app/code/local /app/etc/modules/<Namespace>_<Module>.xml Database environment management As the store's base URL is stored in the database, you cannot just copy databases between environments. Options include- Overriding the base url in php. Blog article on setting up dev and staging databases Changing the base url in the database after copying. (Where is this stored?) Doing a MySQLDump or backup, then doing a replace on the URL in the SQL file.

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• ant ftp task "Could not date test remote file"

  - by avok00

  Hi guys! I am using Ant ftp task to deploy my project files to a remote app server. Ant is not able to detect the date of the remote file and it re-uploads all files every time. When I start Ant in debug mode it says: [ftp] checking date for mailer.war [ftp] Could not date test remote file: mailer.war assuming out of date. The remote server is MS FTP (Windows Vista version) Ant version is 1.8.2; I use commons-net-2.2 and jakarta-oro-2.0.8 (could not find newer version) My ant task looks like this <!-- Deploy new and changed files --> <target name="deploy" depends="package" description="Deploy new and changed files"> <ftp server="localhost" userid="" password="" action="send" depends="yes" passive="true" systemTypeKey="WINDOWS" serverTimeZoneConfig="Europe/Sofia" defaultDateFormatConfig="MMM dd yyyy" recentDateFormatConfig="MMM dd HH:mm" binary="true" retriesAllowed="3" verbose="true"> <fileset dir="${webapp.artefacts.path}"/> </ftp> </target> I read an article here: Ant:The definitive guide that says I need a version of jakarta oro AFTER 2.0.8 to talk to MS FTP servers, but I was not able to find such version. Jakarta oro site - http://jakarta.apache.org/oro/ says the oro project is retired as of 2010, but their latest distribution is from 2003! Please, can anyone help me with this? Any solution or any alternatives to the Ant ftp task? Thanks!

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• how do simple SQLAlchemy relationships work?

  - by Carson Myers

  I'm no database expert -- I just know the basics, really. I've picked up SQLAlchemy for a small project, and I'm using the declarative base configuration rather than the "normal" way. This way seems a lot simpler. However, while setting up my database schema, I realized I don't understand some database relationship concepts. If I had a many-to-one relationship before, for example, articles by authors (where each article could be written by only a single author), I would put an author_id field in my articles column. But SQLAlchemy has this ForeignKey object, and a relationship function with a backref kwarg, and I have no idea what any of it MEANS. I'm scared to find out what a many-to-many relationship with an intermediate table looks like (when I need additional data about each relationship). Can someone demystify this for me? Right now I'm setting up to allow openID auth for my application. So I've got this: from __init__ import Base from sqlalchemy.schema import Column from sqlalchemy.types import Integer, String class Users(Base): __tablename__ = 'users' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) username = Column(String, unique=True) email = Column(String) password = Column(String) salt = Column(String) class OpenID(Base): __tablename__ = 'openid' url = Column(String, primary_key=True) user_id = #? I think the ? should be replaced by Column(Integer, ForeignKey('users.id')), but I'm not sure -- and do I need to put openids = relationship("OpenID", backref="users") in the Users class? Why? What does it do? What is a backref?

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• what are the possibilities of displaying items in a listbox.

  - by Selase

  Ive been trying to figure out for a long time now how to create an interface that can allows users to input several rows of data and passed those entries into an sql server database all at one shot. i could not get any better ideas so i came up with this.(see picture below.) so what i envisioned is that the user enters values in the textboxes and hits "add to list" button. the values are then populated in the list box below with the heading "exhibits lists" and when add exhibit button is pressed, all values from the list box are passed into the database. Well am left wondering again if it would be possible to tie this values from the texboxes to the list box and if id be able to pass them into the database. if it were possible then id please love to know how to go about it otherwise id be glad if you can recommend a better way for me to handle the situation otherwise id have to resolve to data entry one at a time.:(... Counting on you sublime advise. thanks. I believe there is some useful information from this website that can help solve my problem but i just cant make head and tail out of the article...it seems like am almost there and it skids off...can everyone please read and help me adapt it to my situation..thanks..post below http://www.codeproject.com/KB/aspnet/ExtendedGridView.aspx

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• jQuery.clone() IE problem

  - by mofle

  I'm have some that uses jQuery.clone() to get the html of a page and then add it to a pre tag. It works correctly in Firefox and Chrome, but nothing happens in IE: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script class="jsbin" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1/jquery.min.js"></script> <meta charset=utf-8 /> <title>JS Bin</title> <!--[if IE]> <script src="http://html5shiv.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/html5.js"></script> <![endif]--> <script> $(function(){ $('button').click(function(){ var $clone = $('html').clone(); $('#output').text($clone.html()); }); }); </script> <style> article, aside, figure, footer, header, hgroup, menu, nav, section { display: block; } </style> </head> <body> <button>run test</button> <pre id="output"></pre> </body> </html> Is there any know bug with IE that prevents this, or am I doing something wrong? (I need to clone it because I'm doing some changes to it before outputting it)

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• Extension methods for encapsulation and reusability

  - by tzaman

  In C++ programming, it's generally considered good practice to "prefer non-member non-friend functions" instead of instance methods. This has been recommended by Scott Meyers in this classic Dr. Dobbs article, and repeated by Herb Sutter and Andrei Alexandrescu in C++ Coding Standards (item 44); the general argument being that if a function can do its job solely by relying on the public interface exposed by the class, it actually increases encapsulation to have it be external. While this confuses the "packaging" of the class to some extent, the benefits are generally considered worth it. Now, ever since I've started programming in C#, I've had a feeling that here is the ultimate expression of the concept that they're trying to achieve with "non-member, non-friend functions that are part of a class interface". C# adds two crucial components to the mix - the first being interfaces, and the second extension methods: Interfaces allow a class to formally specify their public contract, the methods and properties that they're exposing to the world. Any other class can choose to implement the same interface and fulfill that same contract. Extension methods can be defined on an interface, providing any functionality that can be implemented via the interface to all implementers automatically. And best of all, because of the "instance syntax" sugar and IDE support, they can be called the same way as any other instance method, eliminating the cognitive overhead! So you get the encapsulation benefits of "non-member, non-friend" functions with the convenience of members. Seems like the best of both worlds to me; the .NET library itself providing a shining example in LINQ. However, everywhere I look I see people warning against extension method overuse; even the MSDN page itself states: In general, we recommend that you implement extension methods sparingly and only when you have to. So what's the verdict? Are extension methods the acme of encapsulation and code reuse, or am I just deluding myself?

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• Setting up a domain using WAMP and NameCheap's DNS service

  - by Mike Jones

  So, I've been working on this for far longer than I should be and I'm quite thoroughly perplexed and lost. I apologize if this turns out to be a facile question, but I'm entirely befuddled and very much in need of some guidance. Earlier today I registered a cheap .info domain on NameCheap just to play around with as I learn webdev. I have WAMP installed on my computer and I've been testing my projects through localhost. I thought it would be a good idea to have a domain at my disposal in order to understand how it works and better test my work. NameCheap has a complimentary DNS service (not that I entirely understand what DNS is, although I tried), so I'm using that. I direct both the "@" and "www" host names to my IP address, as shown in the below tutorial: https://www.namecheap.com/support/knowledgebase/article.aspx/319/78/how-can-i-setup-an-a-address-record-for-my-domain However, now when I go to the URL of the domain I bought, it confronts me with a login box that seems to be coming from my wifi network. How do I set this up so that it hosts the information in my WAMP server? Thanks in advance for any help, I really appreciate it. And, as a side-note, what should read (print or online) to better understand the structure of the internet? I've been studying HTML/CSS/Javascript, but I'm not sure where to look for pragmatic and comprehensive information on how the internet works and how to utilize it as a website administrator. Thanks so much.

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• gcc, strict-aliasing, and horror stories

  - by Joseph Quinsey

  In http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2906365/gcc-strict-aliasing-and-casting-through-a-union I asked whether anyone had encountered problems with union punning through pointers. So far, the answer seems to be No. This question is broader: do you have any horror stories about gcc and strict-aliasing? Background: Quoting from AndreyT's answer in http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2771023/c99-strict-aliasing-rules-in-c-gcc/2771041#2771041: "Strict aliasing rules are rooted in parts of the standard that were present in C and C++ since the beginning of [standardized] times. The clause that prohibits accessing object of one type through a lvalue of another type is present in C89/90 (6.3) as well as in C++98 (3.10/15). ... It is just that not all compilers wanted (or dared) to enforce it or rely on it." Well, gcc is now daring to do so, with its -fstrict-aliasing switch. And this has caused some problems. See, for example, the excellent article http://davmac.wordpress.com/2009/10/ about a Mysql bug, and the equally excellent discussion in http://cellperformance.beyond3d.com/articles/2006/06/understanding-strict-aliasing.html. Some other less-relevant links: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1225741/performance-impact-of-fno-strict-aliasing http://stackoverflow.com/questions/754929/strict-aliasing http://stackoverflow.com/questions/262379/when-is-char-safe-for-strict-pointer-aliasing http://stackoverflow.com/questions/725138/how-to-detect-strict-aliasing-at-compile-time So to repeat, do you have a horror story of your own? Problems not indicated by -Wstrict-aliasing would, of course, be preferred. And other C compilers are also welcome.

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• Inject App Settings using Windsor

  - by Damian Powell

  How can I inject the value of an appSettings entry (from app.config or web.config) into a service using the Windsor container? If I wanted to inject the value of a Windsor property into a service, I would do something like this: <properties> <importantIntegerProperty>666</importantIntegerProperty> </properties> <component id="myComponent" service="MyApp.IService, MyApp" type="MyApp.Service, MyApp" > <parameters> <importantInteger>#{importantIntegerProperty}</importantInteger> </parameters> </component> However, what I'd really like to do is take the value represented by #{importantIntegerProperty} from an app settings variable which might be defined like this: <appSettings> <add key="importantInteger" value="666"/> </appSettings> EDIT: To clarify; I realise that this is not natively possible with Windsor and the David Hayden article that sliderhouserules refers to is actually about his own (David Hayden's) IoC container, not Windsor. I'm surely not the first person to have this problem so what I'd like to know is how have other people solved this issue?

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• Why is my PHP string being converted to 1?

  - by animuson

  Ok, so here's the quick rundown. I have a function to generate the page numbers. This: <?php die($ani->e->tmpl->pages("/archive", 1, 15, 1, true)); ?> will output Single Page like expected. But this: <?php $page_numbers = $ani->e->tmpl->pages("/archive", 1, 15, 1, true); ?> <?= $page_numbers ?> will output a simple 1 to the page. Why is it getting converted to a 1? I would expect it to store the 'Single Page' string to the page_numbers variable and then output it (like an echo) exactly the same. EDIT: Running a var_dump($page_numbers) returns int(1)... Here is the entire function in context: <?php // other functions... function show_list() { global $ani; $page_numbers = $ani->e->tmpl->pages("/archive", 1, 15, 1, true); ob_start(); ?> <!-- content:start --> <?php $archive_result = $ani->e->db->build(array("select" => "*", "from" => "animuson_archive", "orderby" => "0-time", "limit" => 15)); while ($archive = $ani->e->db->fetch($archive_result)) { ?> <h2><a href="/archive/article/<?= $archive['aid'] ?>/<?= $archive['title_nice'] ?>"><?= $archive['title'] ?></a></h2> <!-- breaker --> <?php } ?> <?= var_dump($page_numbers) ?> <!-- content:stop --> <?php $ani->e->tmpl->process("box", ob_get_clean()); } // other functions... ?>

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• asp.net: saving js file with c# commands...

  - by ile

  <head runat="server"> <title><asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="TitleContent" runat="server" /></title> <link href="../../Content/css/layout.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jquery.jeditable.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jeditable.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".naslov_vijesti").editable('<%=Url.Action("UpdateSettings","Article") %>', { submit: 'ok', submitdata: {field: "Title"}, cancel: 'cancel', cssclass: 'editable', width: '99%', placeholder: 'emtpy', indicator: "<img src='../../Content/img/indicator.gif'/>" }); }); </script> </head> This is head tag of site.master file. I would like to remove this multiline part from head and place it in jeditable.js file, which is now empty. If I do copy/paste, then <% %> part won't be executed. In PHP I would save js file as jeditable.js.php and server would compile code that is in <?php ?> tag. Any ideas how to solve this problem? Thanks in advance, Ile

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• Understanding Symbols In Ruby

  - by Kezzer

  Despite reading this article, I'm still confused as to the representation of the data in memory when it comes to using symbols. If a symbol, two of them contained in different objects, exist in the same memory location, then how is it that they contain different values? I'd have expected the same memory location to contain the same value. As a quote from the link: Unlike strings, symbols of the same name are initialized and exist in memory only once during a session of ruby I just don't understand how it manages to differentiate the values contained in the same memory location. EDIT So let's consider the example: patient1 = { :ruby => "red" } patient2 = { :ruby => "programming" } patient1.each_key {|key| puts key.object_id.to_s} 3918094 patient2.each_key {|key| puts key.object_id.to_s} 3918094 patient1 and patient2 are both hashes, that's fine. :ruby however is a symbol. If we were to output the following: patient1.each_key {|key| puts key.to_s} Then what will be output? "red", or "programming"? FURTHER EDIT I'm still really quite confused. I'm thinking a symbol is a pointer to a value. Let's forget hashes for a second. The questions I have are; can you assign a value to a symbol? Is a symbol just a pointer to a variable with a value in it? If symbols are global, does that mean a symbol always points to one thing?

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• C Run-Time library part 2

  - by b-gen-jack-o-neill

  Hi, I was suggested when I have some further questions on my older ones, to create newer Question and reffer to old one. So, this is the original question: What is the C runtime library? OK, from your answers, I now get thet statically linked libraries are Microsoft implementation of C standart functions. Now: If I get it right, the scheme would be as follow: I want to use printf(), so I must include which just tels compiler there us functio printf() with these parameters. Now, when I compile code, becouse printf() is defined in C Standart Library, and becouse Microsoft decided to name it C Run Time library, it gets automatically statically linked from libcmt.lib (if libcmt.lib is set in compiler) at compile time. I ask, becouse on wikipedia, in article about runtime library there is that runtime library is linked in runtime, but .lib files are linked at compile time, am I right? Now, what confuses me. There is .dll version of C standart library. But I thought that to link .dll file, you must actually call winapi program to load that library. So, how can be these functions dynamically linked, if there is no static library to provide code to tell Windows to load desired functions from dll? And really last question on this subject - are C Standart library functions also calls to winapi even they are not .dll files like more advanced WinAPI functions? I mean, in the end to access framebuffer and print something you must tell Windows to do it, since OS cannot let you directly manipulate HW. I think of it like the OS must be written to support all C standart library functions same way across similiar versions, since they are statically linked, and can differently support more complex WinAPI calls becouse new version of OS can have adjustements in the .dll file.

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• TSQL - make a literal float value

  - by David B

  I understand the host of issues in comparing floats, and lament their use in this case - but I'm not the table author and have only a small hurdle to climb... Someone has decided to use floats as you'd expect GUIDs to be used. I need to retrieve all the records with a specific float value. sp_help MyTable -- Column_name Type Computed Length Prec -- RandomGrouping float no 8 53 Here's my naive attempt: --yields no results SELECT RandomGrouping FROM MyTable WHERE RandomGrouping = 0.867153569942739 And here's an approximately working attempt: --yields 2 records SELECT RandomGrouping FROM MyTable WHERE RandomGrouping BETWEEN 0.867153569942739 - 0.00000001 AND 0.867153569942739 + 0.00000001 -- 0.867153569942739 -- 0.867153569942739 In my naive attempt, is that literal a floating point literal? Or is it really a decimal literal that gets converted later? If my literal is not a floating point literal, what is the syntax for making a floating point literal? EDIT: Another possibility has occurred to me... it may be that a more precise number than is displayed is stored in this column. It may be impossible to create a literal that represents this number. I will accept answers that demonstrate that this is the case. EDIT: response to DVK. TSQL is MSSQLServer's dialect of SQL. This script works, and so equality can be performed deterministically between float types: DECLARE @X float SELECT top 1 @X = RandomGrouping FROM MyTable WHERE RandomGrouping BETWEEN 0.839110948199148 - 0.000000000001 AND 0.839110948199148 + 0.000000000001 --yields two records SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE RandomGrouping = @X I said "approximately" because that method tests for a range. With that method I could get values that are not equal to my intended value. The linked article doesn't apply because I'm not (intentionally) trying to straddle the world boundaries between decimal and float. I'm trying to work with only floats. This isn't about the non-convertibility of decimals to floats.

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• Validation L2S question

  - by user158020

  This may be a bit winded because I am new to wpf. I have created a partial class for an entity in my L2S class that is primarily used for validation. It implements the onchanging and onvalidate methods. I am trying to use the MVVM pattern, and in a window/view I have set the datacontext in the xaml: <Window.DataContext> <vm:StartViewModel /> </Window.DataContext> when a user leaves a required field in the view blank, the onchanging event of the partial class is fired when I close the form, not when I save the data. So, if a user leaves the textbox blank, the old value is retained and the onchaging method is fired, but I have no idea how to alert the user of the resulting error. here is my onchanging code in the partial class: partial void Ondocument_titleChanging(string value) { if (value.Length == 0) throw new Exception("Document title is required."); if (value.Length > 256) throw new Exception("Document title cannot be longer than 256 characters."); } throwing an exception doesn't notify the user of the error. it just allows the form to close and rejects the changes to the textbox. hope this makes sense... edit: this example was taken from Scott Guthries article here: http://aspalliance.com/1427_LINQ_to_SQL_Part_5__Binding_UI_using_the_ASPLinqDataSource_Control.5

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• Concurrent WCF calls via shared channel

  - by Kent Boogaart

  I have a web tier that forwards calls onto an application tier. The web tier uses a shared, cached channel to do so. The application tier services in question are stateless and have concurrency enabled. But they are not being called concurrently. If I alter the web tier to create a new channel on every call, then I do get concurrent calls onto the application tier. But I wanted to avoid that cost since it is functionally unnecessary for my scenario. I have no session state, and nor do I need to re-authenticate the caller each time. I understand that the creation of the channel factory is far more expensive than than the creation of the channels, but it is still a cost I'd like to avoid if possible. I found this article on MSDN that states: While channels and clients created by the channels are thread-safe, they might not support writing more than one message to the wire concurrently. If you are sending large messages, particularly if streaming, the send operation might block waiting for another send to complete. Firstly, I'm not sending large messages (just a lot of small ones since I'm doing load testing) but am still seeing the blocking behavior. Secondly, this is rather open-ended and unhelpful documentation. It says they "might not" support writing more than one message but doesn't explain the scenarios under which they would support concurrent messages. Can anyone shed some light on this?

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• Action Mailer: How do I render dynamic data in an email body that is stored in the database?

  - by Brandon Toone

  I have Action Mailer setup to render an email using the body attribute of my Email model (in the database). I want to be able to use erb in the body but I can't figure out how to get it to render in the sent email message. I'm able to get the body as a string with this code # models/user_mailer.rb def custom_email(user, email_id) email = Email.find(email_id) recipients user.email from "Mail It Example <[email protected]>" subject "Hello From Mail It" sent_on Time.now # pulls the email body and passes a string to the template views/user_mailer/customer_email.text.html.erb body :msg => email.body end I came across this article http://rails-nutshell.labs.oreilly.com/ch05.html which says I can use render but I'm only able to get render :text to work and not render :inline # models/user_mailer.rb def custom_email(user, email_id) email = Email.find(email_id) recipients user.email from "Mail It Example <[email protected]>" subject "Hello From Mail It" sent_on Time.now # body :msg => email.body body :msg => (render :text => "Thanks for your order") # renders text and passes as a variable to the template # body :msg => (render :inline => "We shipped <%= Time.now %>") # throws a NoMethodError end

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• How to customize the process employed by WCF when serializing contract method arguments?

  - by mark

  Dear ladies and sirs. I would like to formulate a contrived scenario, which nevertheless has firm actual basis. Imagine a collection type COuter, which is a wrapper around an instance of another collection type CInner. Both implement IList (never mind the T). Furthermore, a COuter instance is buried inside some object graph, the root of which (let us refer to it as R) is returned from a WCF service method. My question is how can I customize the WCF serialization process, so that when R is returned, the request to serialize the COuter instance will be routed through my code, which will extract CInner and pass it to the serializer instead. Thus the receiving end still gets R, only no COuter instance is found in the object graph. I hoped that http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2220516/how-does-wcf-serialize-the-method-call will contain the answer, unfortunately the article mentioned there (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc163569.aspx) only barely mentions that advanced serialization scenarios are possible using IDataContractSurrogate interface, but no details are given. I am, on the other hand, would really like to see a working example. Thank you very much in advance.

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• How to make safe frequent DataSource switches for AbstractRoutingDataSource?

  - by serg555

  I implemented Dynamic DataSource Routing for Spring+Hibernate according to this article. I have several databases with same structure and I need to select which db will run each specific query. Everything works fine on localhost, but I am worrying about how this will hold up in real web site environment. They are using some static context holder to determine which datasource to use: public class CustomerContextHolder { private static final ThreadLocal<CustomerType> contextHolder = new ThreadLocal<CustomerType>(); public static void setCustomerType(CustomerType customerType) { Assert.notNull(customerType, "customerType cannot be null"); contextHolder.set(customerType); } public static CustomerType getCustomerType() { return (CustomerType) contextHolder.get(); } public static void clearCustomerType() { contextHolder.remove(); } } It is wrapped inside some ThreadLocal container, but what exactly does that mean? What will happen when two web requests call this piece of code in parallel: CustomerContextHolder.setCustomerType(CustomerType.GOLD); //<another user will switch customer type here to CustomerType.SILVER in another request> List<Item> goldItems = catalog.getItems(); Is every web request wrapped into its own thread in Spring MVC? Will CustomerContextHolder.setCustomerType() changes be visible to other web users? My controllers have synchronizeOnSession=true. How to make sure that nobody else will switch datasource until I run required query for current user? Thanks.

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• Shall this Regex do what I expect from it, that is, matching against "A1:B10,C3,D4:E1000"?

  - by Will Marcouiller

  I'm currently writing a library where I wish to allow the user to be able to specify spreadsheet cell(s) under four possible alternatives: A single cell: "A1"; Multiple contiguous cells: "A1:B10" Multiple separate cells: "A1,B6,I60,AA2" A mix of 2 and 3: "B2:B12,C13:C18,D4,E11000" Then, to validate whether the input respects these formats, I intended to use a regular expression to match against. I have consulted this article on Wikipedia: Regular Expression (Wikipedia) And I also found this related SO question: regex matching alpha character followed by 4 alphanumerics. Based on the information provided within the above-linked articles, I would try with this Regex: Default Readonly Property Cells(ByVal cellsAddresses As String) As ReadOnlyDictionary(Of String, ICell) Get Dim validAddresses As Regex = New Regex("A-Za-z0-9:,A-Za-z0-9") If (Not validAddresses.IsMatch(cellsAddresses)) then _ Throw New FormatException("cellsAddresses") // Proceed with getting the cells from the Interop here... End Get End Property Questions 1. Is my regular expression correct? If not, please help me understand what expression I could use. 2. What exception is more likely to be the more meaningful between a FormatException and an InvalidExpressionException? I hesitate here, since it is related to the format under which the property expect the cells to be input, aside, I'm using an (regular) expression to match against. Thank you kindly for your help and support! =)

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• What are the responsibilities of the data layer?

  - by alimac83

  I'm working on a project where I had to add a data layer to my application. I've always thought that the data layer is purely responsible for CRUD functions ie. shouldn't really contain any logic but should simply retrieve data for the business layer to manipulate. However I'm a little confused with my project because I'm not sure whether I've structured my app correctly for this scenario. Basically I'm trying to retrieve a list of products from the database that fall within a certain pricing threshold. At the moment I have a function in my data layer that basically returns all products where price min threshold and price < max threshold. But it got me thinking that maybe this is incorrect. Should the data layer simply return a list of ALL products and then the business logic do the filtering? I'm pretty confused over whether the data layer should simply provide methods that allow the business layer to get raw data or whether it should be responsible for getting filtered data too? If anyone has an article or something explaining this in detail it'd be very helpful. Thanks

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• Saving js file with c# commands...

  - by ile

  <head runat="server"> <title><asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="TitleContent" runat="server" /></title> <link href="../../Content/css/layout.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jquery.jeditable.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jeditable.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".naslov_vijesti").editable('<%=Url.Action("UpdateSettings","Article") %>', { submit: 'ok', submitdata: {field: "Title"}, cancel: 'cancel', cssclass: 'editable', width: '99%', placeholder: 'emtpy', indicator: "<img src='../../Content/img/indicator.gif'/>" }); }); </script> </head> This is head tag of site.master file. I would like to remove this multiline part from head and place it in jeditable.js file, which is now empty. If I do copy/paste, then <% %> part won't be executed. In PHP I would save js file as jeditable.js.php and server would compile code that is in <?php ?> tag. Any ideas how to solve this problem? Thanks in advance, Ile

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• Why does a simple ApplicationSetting PropertyBinding for a Form does not work in C#?

  - by Mike Rosenblum

  My question involves this simple walkthrough shown in the article Preserve Size and Location of Windows Forms – Part I by Dennis Wallentin. This approach works 100% fine when using VB.NET. When using the same steps in C#, however, the settings within the Settings tab of the application's properties looks correct, and the app.config file looks right, but the values are not saved when you run it. The app.config file winds up looking like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <sectionGroup name="userSettings" type="System.Configuration.UserSettingsGroup, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" > <section name="WindowsAppCs.Properties.Settings" type="System.Configuration.ClientSettingsSection, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" allowExeDefinition="MachineToLocalUser" requirePermission="false" /> </sectionGroup> </configSections> <userSettings> <WindowsAppCs.Properties.Settings> <setting name="Location" serializeAs="String"> <value>0, 0</value> </setting> <setting name="Size" serializeAs="String"> <value>284, 262</value> </setting> </WindowsAppCs.Properties.Settings> </userSettings> </configuration> It looks right to me, but the values do not update when running hosted within Visual Studio or when running the compiled EXE. I am sure that something very simple needs to be added or done, but I don't know what. Does anyone have any ideas here? Much thanks in advance...

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• WM_NOTIFY and superclass chaining issue in Win32

  - by DasMonkeyman

  For reference I'm using the window superclass method outlined in this article. The specific issue occurs if I want to handle WM_NOTIFY messages (i.e. for custom drawing) from the base control in the superclass I either need to reflect them back from the parent window or set my own window as the parent (passed inside CREATESTRUCT for WM_(NC)CREATE to the base class). This method works fine if I have a single superclass. If I superclass my superclass then I run into a problem. Now 3 WindowProcs are operating in the same HWND, and when I reflect WM_NOTIFY messages (or have them sent to myself from the parent trick above) they always go to the outermost (most derived) WindowProc. I have no way to tell if they're messages intended for the inner superclass (base messages are supposed to go to the first superclass) or messages intended for the outer superclass (messages from the inner superclass are intended for the outer superclass). These messages are indistinguishable because they all come from the same HWND with the same control ID. Is there any way to resolve this without creating a new window to encapsulate each level of inheritance? Sorry about the wall of text. It's a difficult concept to explain. Here's a diagram. single superclass: SuperA::WindowProc() - Base::WindowProc()---\ ^--------WM_NOTIFY(Base)--------/ superclass of a superclass: SuperB::WindowProc() - SuperA::WindowProc() - Base::WindowProc()---\ ^--------WM_NOTIFY(Base)--------+-----------------------/ ^--------WM_NOTIFY(A)-----------/ The WM_NOTIFY messages in the second case all come from the same HWND and control ID, so I cannot distinguish between the messages intended for SuperA (from Base) and messages intended for SuperB (from SuperA). Any ideas?

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• Customizing the TFS 2008 build sequence to avoid compilation and deploy SSRS

  - by Andrew

  I'm trying to create a CI process for SQL Server Reporting Services. I am fairly new to TFS but quite experienced with MSBuild. In the past I've used a combination of MSBuild with Team City so the whole build process is more or less custom. Here lies the start of my problems, as the solution I am deploying only contains Report Server projects (rds), no compilation is required. I thought that I would override the the first default task that TFS runs (EndToEndIteration) to override the default TFS build sequence and inject my own. The first snag that I have come across is that the build always fails, how can I set the status of the build to success? Currently the EndToEndIteration task is very light and only has a message. Is this the best method to create a custom build process in TFS where compilation is not required? Or should I use the default sequence and override one of the hook tasks mentioned in http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa337604%28VS.80%29.aspx (ie: AfterCompile) The core steps that I'd like to achieve are: Bundle the RDL and datasource files Connect to the host server to register/deploy the reports Re-apply any subscriptions that previously existed Run tests to verify the deployment succeeded and is returning results as expected I have found another article on Report services deployment: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/88710/reporting-services-deployment But it doesn't mention the best practice for customizing the standard build process. Any help would be appreciated.

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