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• adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

  - by duncanUK

  I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

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• Duplicate C# web service proxy classes generated for Java types

  - by Sergey

  My question is about integration between a Java web service and a C# .NET client. Service: CXF 2.2.3 with Aegis databinding Client: C#, .NET 3.5 SP1 For some reason Visual Studio generates two C# proxy enums for each Java enum. The generated C# classes do not compile. For example, this Java enum: public enum SqlDialect { GENERIC, SYBASE, SQL_SERVER, ORACLE; } Produces this WSDL: <xsd:simpleType name="SqlDialect"> <xsd:restriction base="xsd:string"> <xsd:enumeration value="GENERIC" /> <xsd:enumeration value="SYBASE" /> <xsd:enumeration value="SQL_SERVER" /> <xsd:enumeration value="ORACLE" /> </xsd:restriction> </xsd:simpleType> For this WSDL Visual Studio generates two partial C# classes (generated comments removed): [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Runtime.Serialization", "3.0.0.0")] [System.Runtime.Serialization.DataContractAttribute(Name="SqlDialect", Namespace="http://somenamespace")] public enum SqlDialect : int { [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] GENERIC = 0, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] SYBASE = 1, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] SQL_SERVER = 2, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] ORACLE = 3, } [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Xml", "2.0.50727.3082")] [System.SerializableAttribute()] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlTypeAttribute(Namespace="http://somenamespace")] public enum SqlDialect { GENERIC, SYBASE, SQL_SERVER, ORACLE, } The resulting C# code does not compile: The namespace 'somenamespace' already contains a definition for 'SqlDialect' I will appreciate any ideas...

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• Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

  - by Dann

  This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

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• How to check if a node's value in one XML is present in another XML with a specific attribute?

  - by Manish

  The question seems to be little confusing. So let me describe my situation through an example: Suppose I have an XML: A.xml <Cakes> <Cake>Egg</Cake> <Cake>Banana</Cake> </Cakes> Another XML: B.xml <Cakes> <Cake show="true">Egg</Cake> <Cake show="true">Strawberry</Cake> <Cake show="false">Banana</Cake> </Cakes> Now I want to show some text say "TRUE" if all the Cake in A.xml have show="true" in B.xml else "FALSE". In the above case, it will print FALSE. I need to develop an XSL for that. I can loop through all the Cake in A.xml and check if that cake has show="true" in B.xml but I don't know how to break in between (and set a variable) if a show="false" is found. Is it possible? Any help/comments appreciated.

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• Is there a better way to write named-pipes in F#?

  - by Niran

  Hi I am new to F#. I am trying to communicate with java from F# using named pipe. The code below works but I am not sure if there is a better way to do this (I know the infinite loop is a bad idea but this is just a proof of concept) if anyone have any idea to improve this code please post your comments. Thanks in advance Niran open System.IO open System.IO.Pipes exception OuterError of string let continueLooping = true while continueLooping do let pipeServer = new NamedPipeServerStream("testpipe", PipeDirection.InOut, 4) printfn "[F#] NamedPipeServerStream thread created." //wait for connection printfn "[F#] Wait for a client to connect" pipeServer.WaitForConnection() printfn "[F#] Client connected." try // Stream for the request. let sr = new StreamReader(pipeServer) // Stream for the response. let sw = new StreamWriter(pipeServer) sw.AutoFlush <- true; // Read request from the stream. let echo = sr.ReadLine(); printfn "[F#] Request message: %s" echo // Write response to the stream. sw.WriteLine("[F#]: " + echo) pipeServer.Disconnect() with | OuterError(str) -> printfn "[F#]ERROR: %s" str printfn "[F#] Client Closing." pipeServer.Close()

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• PHP gettext on Windows

  - by Axsuul

  There's some tutorials out there for gettext (w/ Poedit)... unfortunately, it's mostly for a UNIX environment. And even more unfortunate is that I am running my WAMP server on Windows XP (but I am developing for a UNIX environment) and none of the tutorials can get gettext working properly for me. From the man page (http://us3.php.net/manual/en/book.gettext.php), it appears that it's a different process on a Windows environment. I've tried out some of the solutions in the comments but I still can't get it to work! Please, I've spent many hours on this, hopefully someone can point me in the right direction to get this thing to work! (and I'm sure there are others out there who share my frustration). So far with my setup, I'm only getting output "Hello World!" whereas I should be getting the translated string. Here is my setup/code so far: <?php // test.php if (!defined('LC_MESSAGES')) { define('LC_MESSAGES', 6); } $locale = "deu_DEU"; // apparently the locales are different on a WINDOWS platform putenv("LC_ALL=$locale"); setlocale(LC_ALL, $locale); bindtextdomain("greetings", ".\locale"); textdomain("greetings"); echo _("Hello World"); ?> Folder structure root: C:\Program Files\WampServer 2\www test.php: C:\Program Files\WampServer 2\www\site .po: C:\Program Files\WampServer 2\www\site\locale\deu_DEU\LC_MESSAGES\greetings.po .mo: C:\Program Files\WampServer 2\www\site\locale\deu_DEU\LC_MESSAGES\greetings.mo Please advise! Thanks for your time :)

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• Strange behaviour of NSScanner on simple whitespace removal

  - by Michael Waterfall

  I'm trying to replace all multiple whitespace in some text with a single space. This should be a very simple task, however for some reason it's returning a different result than expected. I've read the docs on the NSScanner and it seems like it's not working properly! NSScanner *scanner = [[NSScanner alloc] initWithString:@"This is a test of NSScanner !"]; NSMutableString *result = [[NSMutableString alloc] init]; NSString *temp; NSCharacterSet *whitespace = [NSCharacterSet whitespaceCharacterSet]; while (![scanner isAtEnd]) { // Scan upto and stop before any whitespace [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:whitespace intoString:&temp]; // Add all non whotespace characters to string [result appendString:temp]; // Scan past all whitespace and replace with a single space if ([scanner scanCharactersFromSet:whitespace intoString:NULL]) { [result appendString:@" "]; } } But for some reason the result is @"ThisisatestofNSScanner!" instead of @"This is a test of NSScanner !". If you read through the comments and what each line should achieve it seems simple enough!? scanUpToCharactersFromSet should stop the scanner just as it encounters whitespace. scanCharactersFromSet should then progress the scanner past the whitespace up to the non-whitespace characters. And then the loop continues to the end. What am I missing or not understanding?

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• Why does Android allocate more memory than needed when loading images

  - by Simon

  Folks, I don't think that this is a duplicate and is NOT one of those how do I avoid OOMs questions. This is a genuine quest for knowledge so hold off on those down votes please... Imagine I have a JPEG of 500x500 pixels. I load it as ARGB_8888 which is as "bad as it gets". I would expect Android to allocate 500x500x4 bytes = a little under 1MB however, look at a heap dump and you will see that Android allocates significantly more, often factors of 5-10 times greater. You frequently see questions on here about OOMS where the stack trace shows a heap request of say 15MB and it is ALWAYS much larger than is required simply to hold the bytes of the image. The OP usually catches some downvotes then is bombarded with stock answers and comments about using less memory (thanks Romain!) and in scaling. I think there is more than meets the eye here. Anybody know why this is? If there is no apparent answer, I will put together an SSCCE if it helps. PS. I assume that JPEG vs PNG etc is irrelevant since we're talking about the memory usage of the backing bitmap which is simply x times y times BPP - or am I being slow?

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• How to set image Tag URLs programmatically in ASP.NET C# inside of a ListView Control?

  - by loyalpenguin

  Hi, I know how you can set an tag's url attribute programmatically in c#, but it seems when I try to access the image element inside of a tag I cannot access it. The is residing in the . NOTE: I am only having this issue inside the Now the ListView tag is also databound.(this is probably why I cannot access, because it isn't guaranteed that it will even exist perhaps). How can I get around this so that I can display my images programmatically or is there a better solution? Here's the source: <asp:ListView ID="ListView_Comments" runat="server" DataKeyNames="ReviewID,ProductID,Rating" DataSourceID="EDS_CommentsList"> <ItemTemplate> <tr style="background-color:#EDECB3;color: #000000;"> <td><%# Eval("CustomerName") %></td> <td> <img src='Styles/Images/ReviewRating_d<%# Eval("Rating") %>.gif' alt=""> <br /> </td> <td> <%# Eval("Comments") %> </td> </tr> </ItemTemplate> <AlternatingItemTemplate> <tr style="background-color:#F8F8F8;"> <td><%# Eval("CustomerName") %></td> <td> <img id="rateImage" src="" alt="" runat="server" /> ......

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• Mysql random rows

  - by n00b

  please read the whole question... 90% of you dont seem to do that and some of you only read the title obviously... and if you dont know the solution, dont answer - i wont have to downvote you -.-'' im entertaining the idea of getting random rows directly from mysql. what i found was SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE somefield='something' ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 5 but even i see how slow that would be.. is the only way to do this doing something like SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE somefield='something' LIMIT RAND(aincrementvalue-5), 1 5 times? or is there a way that i with my little knowlege of databases cant come up with ? (no i dont want random indexes. i hate the idea of them...) @commenters - please first look, then think, then look again, think again and then post. i wont point fingers but i dislike stupid comments and why i think random indexes are a nasty hack ? it doesnt give you random results. it gives you x results from a random index in a predefined order its like a gapless id only in the wrong order if you fetch by 1 row and get true randomness you fall back to my method but with an additional junk field finally the reason the field exists is only to serve as a helper to something that can be done without it with almost same performance (but the quality (randomness) is better), so it is a nasty hack ;) i solved it, look @ my answer... if you think its incorrect please tell me :)

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• Optimizing T-SQL where an array would be nice

  - by Polatrite

  Alright, first you'll need to grab a barf bag. I've been tasked with optimizing several old stored procedures in our database. This SP does the following: 1) cursor loops through a series of "buildings" 2) cursor loops through a week, Sunday-Saturday 3) has a huge set of IF blocks that are responsible for counting how many Objects of what Types are present in a given building Essentially what you'll see in this code block is that, if there are 5 objects of type #2, it will increment @Type_2_Objects_5 by 1. IF @Number_Type_1_Objects = 0 BEGIN SET @Type_1_Objects_0 = @Type_1_Objects_0 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_1_Objects = 1 BEGIN SET @Type_1_Objects_1 = @Type_1_Objects_1 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_1_Objects = 2 BEGIN SET @Type_1_Objects_2 = @Type_1_Objects_2 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_1_Objects = 3 BEGIN SET @Type_1_Objects_3 = @Type_1_Objects_3 + 1 END [... Objects_4 through Objects_20 for Type_1] IF @Number_Type_2_Objects = 0 BEGIN SET @Type_2_Objects_0 = @Type_2_Objects_0 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_2_Objects = 1 BEGIN SET @Type_2_Objects_1 = @Type_2_Objects_1 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_2_Objects = 2 BEGIN SET @Type_2_Objects_2 = @Type_2_Objects_2 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_2_Objects = 3 BEGIN SET @Type_2_Objects_3 = @Type_2_Objects_3 + 1 END [... Objects_4 through Objects_20 for Type_2] In addition to being extremely hacky (and limited to a quantity of 20 objects), it seems like a terrible way of handling this. In a traditional language, this could easily be solved with a 2-dimensional array... objects[type][quantity] += 1; I'm a T-SQL novice, but since writing stored procedures often uses a lot of temporary tables (which could essentially be a 2-dimensional array) I was wondering if someone could illuminate a better way of handling a situation like this with two dynamic pieces of data to store. Requested in comments: The columns are simply Number_Type_1_Objects, Number_Type_2_Objects, Number_Type_3_Objects, Number_Type_4_Objects, Number_Type_5_Objects, and CurrentDateTime. Each row in the table represents 5 minutes. The expected output is to figure out what percentage of time a given quantity of objects is present throughout each day. Sunday - Object Type 1 0 objects - 69 rows, 5:45, 34.85% 1 object - 85 rows, 7:05, 42.93% 2 objects - 44 rows, 3:40, 22.22% On Sunday, there were 0 objects of type 1 for 34.85% of the day. There was 1 object for 42.93% of the day, and 2 objects for 22.22% of the day. Repeat for each object type.

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• Using a join with three tables when a field might be null

  - by John

  Hello, The code below works great. It combines data from two MySQL tables. I would like to modify it by pulling in some data from a third MySQL table called "comment." In the HTML table below, "title" is a field in the MySQL table "submission." Every "title" has a corresponding "submissionid" field. The field "submissionid" is also found in the "comment" MySQL table. In the HTML table below, I would like "countComments" to equal the number of times a field called "commentid" appears in the MySQL table "comment" for any given "submissionid," where the "submissionid" is the same in both the "submission" and "comment" tables, and where the "submissionid" corresponds to the "title" being used. Here's the catch: if there is no row in the MySQL table "comment" that corresponds with the "submissionid" being used for "table", I would like "countComments" to equal to zero. How can I do this? Thanks in advance, John $sqlStr = "SELECT s.loginid, s.title, s.url, s.displayurl, l.username FROM submission AS s, login AS l WHERE s.loginid = l.loginid ORDER BY s.datesubmitted DESC LIMIT 10"; $result = mysql_query($sqlStr); $arr = array(); echo "<table class=\"samplesrec\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename1"><a href="http://www.'.$row["url"].'">'.$row["title"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename2"><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/members/index.php?profile='.$row["username"].'">'.$row["username"].'</a><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/comments/index.php?submission='.$row["title"].'">'.$row["countComments"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; } echo "</table>";

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• Draw a comparison between an integer in a specific row and a count

  - by XCoderX

  This is a follow-up question to this one: Check for specific integer in a row WHERE user = $name I want a user to be able to comment on my site for exactly five times a day. After this five times, the user has to wait 24 hours. In order to accomplish that I raise a counter in my MYSQL database, right next to the user. So where the name of the user is, there is where the counter gets raised. When it reaches 5 it should stop counting and reset after 24 hours. In order to check the time I use a timestamp. I check if the timestamp is older than 24 hours. If that is the case, the counter gets reseted (-5) and the user can comment again. In order to do that, I use the following code, however it never stops at five, my guess is that my comparison is wrong somehow: $counter = "SELECT FROM table VALUES CommentCounterReset WHERE Name = '$name'"; if(!isset($_SESSION['ts'])); { $_SESSION['ts'] = time(); } if ($counter >= 5) { if (time() - $_SESSION['ts'] <= 60*60*24){ echo "You already wrote five comments."; } else { $sql = "UPDATE table SET CommentCounterReset = CommentCounterReset-5 WHERE Name = '$name'"; } } else { $sql = "UPDATE table SET CommentCounterReset = CommentCounterReset+1 WHERE Name = '$name'"; echo "Your comment has been added."; }

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• Another IE jQuery AJAX/post problem..

  - by Azzyh

  OK so i have this website, http://www.leinstein.dk. You will see "Hello World!" This is from ok.php, ive made a script that refreshes ok.php after 10 seconds. Anyways, This does not show in IE. I dont know why, and i hope you can help me out. Here's My script: function ajax_update() { cache: false /* var wrapperId = '#wtf'; */ var postFile = 'ok.php'; $.post("ok.php", function(data){ cache: false $("#wtf").html(data); }); setTimeout('ajax_update()', 10000); } And here's index.php: <? header("cache-control: no-cache"); ?> <html> <head> <link href="style.css" type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" /> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="ajax_framework.js" language="javascript" charset="UTF-8"></script> </head> <!-- AJAX UPDATE COMMENTS BEGIN --> <body onload="ajax_update();"> <!-- AJAX UPDATE END --> <br> <div id="wtf"></div> </body> </html> Thank you in forward..!

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• Good Replacement for User Control?

  - by David Lively

  I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. I've searched previous SO questions, and have yet to find a good answer. Options so far In an attempt to avoid turning the comments section into a discussion... RenderAction This allows the view to call another controller, which will be responsible for interacting with the BLL and whatever data is necessary to its corresponding view. The calling view needs to be aware of the sub controller. This seems to provide a nice way to encapsulate partial views and controls, without having to modify the calling controller. RenderPartial The calling controller is still responsible for executing whatever code is associated with the partial view, and making sure that the model passed to the partial view contains the data it expects. Effectively, modifying the partial view potentially means modifying the calling controller. Annoying especially if this is used in multiple places. Portable Areas Place each control in its own project/area?

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• Generic validate input data via regex. Input error when match.count == 0

  - by Valamas

  Hi, I have a number of types of data fields on an input form, for example, a web page. Some fields are like, must be an email address, must be a number, must be a number between, must have certain characters. Basically, the list is undefinable. I wish to come up with a generic way of validating the data inputed. I thought I would use regex to validate the data. The fields which need validation would be related to a "regex expression" and a "regex error message" stating what the field should contain. My current mock up has that when the match count is zero, that would signify an error and to display the message. While still a white belt regex designer I have come to understand that in certain situations that it is difficult to write a regex which results in a match count of zero for every case. A complex regex case I looked for help on was Link Here. The forum post was a disaster because I confused people helping me. But one of the statements said that it was difficult to make a regex with a match count of zero meaning the input data was invalid; that the regex was very difficult to write that for. Does anyone have comments or suggestions on this generic validation system I am trying to create? thanks

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• Problems breaking out of nested loops

  - by user1040281

  I have problems breaking out off these nested loops correctly. What the code is trying to do is to indicate that a customer has rented a certain movie. Both the movie and customer are compared to properties of arraylist objects and then if all checks out the name property and ID property of a movie object are added as a string to another arraylist. All this works correctly as long as I use the first movie (from movies) and the first customer (from customers) but if I try renting other movies further down my arraylist with other customers then it adds the rented movie to the customerRentedMovies arraylist but prints out the "else message". I figure I need to break out of the foreach(blabla) loops aswell? or could goto be used? Comments was removed (looked kinda messy, can explain further if needed) public void RentMovie(string titel, int movieID, string name, int customerID) { foreach (Customer customer in customers) { if (name == customer.Name && customerID == customer.CustomerID) { foreach (MovieInfo movie in movies) { if (titel == movie.Titel && movieID == movie.MovieID) { movie.rented = true; string rentedMovie = string.Format("{0} ID: {1}", movie.Titel, movie.MovieID); customer.customerRentedMovies.Add(rentedMovie); break; } else { Console.WriteLine("No movie with that titel and ID!"); } } break; } else { Console.WriteLine("No customer with that ID and name"); } } }

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• getElementByTagName does not return comment nodes in javascript

  - by Sourabh

  Hi , I want to retrieve all the nodes present in particular DIV element.see the below test page (firefox) <HTML> <HEAD> <TITLE> New Document </TITLE> <META NAME="Generator" CONTENT="EditPlus"> <META NAME="Author" CONTENT=""> <META NAME="Keywords" CONTENT=""> <META NAME="Description" CONTENT=""> <script> function processTags() { var chNodes = document.getElementById('foo').getElementsByTagName('*') ; console.log(chNodes); } </script> </HEAD> <BODY onload="processTags();"> <div id="foo"> <!-- this is a comment -->this is some text ? <span>this is inside span</span> <div><p>test</p>test<div> </div> </BODY> </HTML> But it does not give me comments tag.. what is the best way to retrieve all tags ??

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• Can we run two simultaneous non-nested loops in Perl?

  - by Mike

  Part of my code goes like this: while(1){ my $winmm = new Win32::MediaPlayer; $winmm->load('1.mp3'); $winmm->play; $winmm->volume(100); Do Some Stuff; last if some condition is met; } Problem is: I want the music to be always on when I'm in the Do Some Stuff stage in the while loop. But the length of the music is so short that it will come to a full stop before I go to the next stage, so I want the music to repeat itself, but the Win32::Mediaplayer module does not seem to have a repeat mode, so I'm thinking of doing an infinite loop for the music playing part. Like this: while(1){ my $winmm = new Win32::MediaPlayer; $winmm->load('1.mp3'); $winmm->play; $winmm->volume(100); } while(2){ Do some stuff; last if some condition is met } But based on my current Perl knowledge if I'm in the while(1) part, I can never go to the while(2) part. Even if it comes to a nested loop, I have to do something to break out of the inside loop before going to the other part of the outside loop. The answer to my question "Can we run two simultaneous non-nested loops in Perl?" may be a NO, but I assume there is some way of handling such situation. Correct me if I'm wrong. Thanks as always for any comments/suggestions :) UPDATE I really appreciate the help from everyone. Thanks :) So the answer to my question is a YES, not a NO. I'm happy that I've learned how to use fork() and threads to solve a real problem :)

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• Best way to migrate export/import from SQL Server to oracle

  - by matao

  Hi guys! I'm faced with needing access for reporting to some data that lives in Oracle and other data that lives in a SQL Server 2000 database. For various reasons these live on different sides of a firewall. Now we're looking at doing an export/import from sql server to oracle and I'd like some advice on the best way to go about it... The procedure will need to be fully automated and run nightly, so that excludes using the SQL developer tools. I also can't make a live link between databases from our (oracle) side as the firewall is in the way. The data needs to be transformed in the process from a star schema to a de-normalised table ready for reporting. What I'm thinking about is writing a monster query for SQL Server (which I mostly have already) that will denormalise and read out the data from SQL Server into a flat file using the sql server equivalent of sqlplus as a scheduled task, dump into a Well Known Location, then on the oracle side have a cron job that copies down the file and loads it with sql loader and rebuilds indexes etc. This is all doable, but very manual. Is there one or a combination of FOSS or standard oracle/SQL Server tools that could automate this for me? the Irreducible complexity is the query on one side and building indexes on the other, but I would love to not have to write the CSV dumping detail or the SQL loader script, just say dump this view out to CSV on one side, and on the other truncate and insert into this table from CSV and not worry about mapping column names and all other arcane sqlldr voodoo... best practices? thoughts? comments? edit: I have about 50+ columns all of varying types and lengths in my dataset, which is why I'd prefer to not have to write out how to generate and map each single column...

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• Nested Data XML design

  - by esryl

  Looking to nest (to unlimited levels) elements in XML. Like so: <items> <item> <name>Item One</name> <item> <name>Item Two</name> </item> <item> <name>Item Three</name> <item> <name>Item Four</name> </item> <!-- etc... --> </item> </item> </items> However. While browsing for a solution I noticed in the comments of: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/988139/weird-nesting-in-xml while the above is well formed it would not validate against any sinsible DTD. Two things, what is a better way of nesting similar elements, and secondly what would be the design of the DTD. UPDATE: Would prefer to validate against an XML Schema rather than DTD.

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• Is there a JavaScript event that fires when a tab index switch is triggered? (TABINDEX does not work for inputs in IFRAME)

  - by treeface

  My specific use case is that I have a WYSIWYG editor which is basically an editable iframe. To the user, however, it looks like a standard-issue textarea. My problem is that I have inputs that sit before and after this editor in the (perceived) tab index and I'd like the user to be able to press tab (or the equivalent on his platform of choice) to get to the WYSIWYG editor when he's in the previous element and shift-tab to get to it when he's in the latter element. I know this can be faked using the key events and checking whether or not the tab key was pressed, but I'm curious if there's a better way. UPDATE. treeface clarified the actual problem in the comments. PROBLEM: In normal case, you can use "TABINDEX" attribute of the <input> element to control that, when tabbing out of "Subject" input field (in an email form), the focus lands on "Body" input field in the e-mail. This is done simply by assigning correctly ordered values to "TABINDEX" attribute of both input fields. The problem is that TABINDEX attribute only orders elements within the same frame. So, if "Body" input field is actually in an internal IFRAME, you can't tab out of "Subject" in the parent frame straight into "Body" in the IFRAME using TABINDEX order.

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• Does the pointer to free() have to point to beginning of the memory block, or can it point to the interior?

  - by Lambert

  The question is in the title... I searched but couldn't find anything. Edit: I don't really see any need to explain this, but because people think that what I'm saying makes no sense (and that I'm asking the wrong questions), here's the problem: Since people seem to be very interested in the "root" cause of all the problem rather than the actual question asked (since that apparently helps things get solved better, let's see if it does), here's the problem: I'm trying to make a D runtime library based on NTDLL.dll, so that I can use that library for subsystems other than the Win32 subsystem. So that forces me to only link with NTDLL.dll. Yes, I'm aware that the functions are "undocumented" and could change at any time (even though I'd bet a hundred dollars that wcstombs will still do the same exact thing 20 years from now, if it still exists). Yes, I know people (especially Microsoft) don't like developers linking to that library, and that I'll probably get criticized for the right here. And yes, those two points above mean that programs like chkdsk and defragmenters that run before the Win32 subsystem aren't even supposed to be created in the first place, because it's literally impossible to link with anything like kernel32.dll or msvcrt.dll and still have NT-native executables, so we developers should just pretend that those stages are meant to be forever out of our reaches. But no, I doubt that anyone here would like me to paste a few thousand lines of code and help me look through them and try to figure out why memory allocations that aren't failing are being rejected by the source code I'm modifying. So that's why I asked about a different problem than the "root" cause, even though that's supposedly known to be the best practice by the community. If things still don't make sense, feel free to post comments below! :)

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• reading newlines with FORMAT statement

  - by peter.murray.rust

  I'm writing a preprocessor and postprocessor for Fortran input and output using FORMAT-like statements (there are reasons not to use a FORTRAN library). I want to treat the new line ("/") character correctly. I don't have a Fortran compiler immediately to hand. Is there a simple algorithm for working out how many newlines are written or consumed (This post just gives reading examples) [Please assume a FORTRAN77-like mentality in the FORTRAN code and correct any FORTRAN syntax on my part] UPDATE: no comments yet so I am reduced to finding a compiler and running it myself. I'll post the answers if I'm not beaten to it. No-one commented I had the format syntax wrong. I've changed it but there may still be errors Assume datafile 1 a b c d etc... (a) does the READ command always consume a newline? does READ(1, '(A)') A READ(1, '(A)') B give A='a' and B='b' (b) what does READ(1,'(A,/)') A READ(1,'(A)') B give for B? (I would assume 'c') (c) what does READ(1, '(/)') READ(1, '(A)') A give for A (is it 'b' or 'c') (d) what does READ(1,'(A,/,A)') A, B READ(1,'(A)') C give for A and B and C(can I assume 'a' and 'b' and 'c') (e) what does READ(1,'(A,/,/,A)') A, B READ(1,'(A)') C give for A and B and C(can I assume 'a' and 'c' and 'd')? Are there any cases in which the '/' is redundant?

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• Cassandra instead of MySQL for social networking app

  - by Christopher McCann

  I am in the middle of building a new app which will have very similar features to Facebook and although obviously it wont ever have to deal with the likes of 400,000,000 million users it will still be used by a substantial user base and most of them will demand it run very very quickly. I have extensive experience with MySQL but a social app offers complexities which MySQL is not well suited too. I know Facebook, Twitter etc have moved towards Cassandra for a lot of their data but I am not sure how far to go with it. For example would you store such things as user data - username, passwords, addresses etc in Cassandra? Would you store e-mails, comments, status updates etc in Cassandra? I have also read alot that something like neo4j is much better for representing the friend relationships used by social apps as it is a graph database. I am only just starting down the NoSQL route so any guidance is greatly appreciated. Would anyone be able to advise me on this? I hope I am not being too general!

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