Search Results

Search found 50304 results on 2013 pages for 'class variables'.

Page 298/2013 | < Previous Page | 294 295 296 297 298 299 300 301 302 303 304 305  | Next Page >

• Is there a way to prevent an ASP.Net webapp from clearing out page variables on VB side?

  - by Chapso

  I have a webapp in ASP.Net with a VB codebehind. I need a List variable I have declared to persist as long as the person is on the page, but currently any time a control posts back to the code, everything is cleared out. I am completely new to ASP.net, so I have no idea if this is even possible. Can it be done with a Session variable? Those seem to me to be limited to base types, but I could be wrong.

  Read the article

• How do I split up a long value (32 bits) into four char variables (8bits) using C?

  - by Jordan S

  I have a 32 bit long variable, CurrentPosition, that I want to split up into 4, 8bit characters. How would I do that most efficiently in C? I am working with an 8bit MCU, 8051 architectecture. unsigned long CurrentPosition = 7654321; unsigned char CP1 = 0; unsigned char CP2 = 0; unsigned char CP3 = 0; unsigned char CP4 = 0; // What do I do next? Should I just reference the starting address of CurrentPosition with a pointer and then add 8 two that address four times? It is little Endian. ALSO I want CurrentPosition to remain unchanged.

  Read the article

• Should I cast variables that use a typdef'd type?

  - by mesorismo

  If I have something like: typedef int MyType; is it good practice to cast the operands of an operation if I do something like this: int x = 5; int y = 6; MyType a = (MyType)(x + y); I know that I don't need to do that but wondering if it's better for intent/documentation/readability concerns.

  Read the article

• Pointer to a C++ class member function as a global function's parameter?

  - by marcin1400

  I have got a problem with calling a global function, which takes a pointer to a function as a parameter. Here is the declaration of the global function: int lmdif ( minpack_func_mn fcn, void *p, int m, int n, double *x, double *fvec, double ftol) The "minpack_func_mn" symbol is a typedef for a pointer to a function, defined as: typedef int (*minpack_func_mn)(void *p, int m, int n, const double *x, double *fvec, int iflag ); I want to call the "lmdif" function with a pointer to a function which is a member of a class I created, and here is the declaration of this class function: int LT_Calibrator::fcn(void *p, int m, int n, const double *x, double *fvec,int iflag) I am calling a global function like this: info=lmdif(&LT_Calibrator::fcn, 0, m, n, x, fvec, ftol) Unfortunately, I get a compiler error, which says: "error C2664: 'lmdif' : cannot convert parameter 1 from 'int (__thiscall LT_Calibrator::* )(void *,int,int,const double *,double *,int)' to 'minpack_func_mn' 1 There is no context in which this conversion is possible" Is there any way to solve that problem?

  Read the article

• What could possibly cause this error when declaring an object inside a class?

  - by M4design

  I'm battling with this assignment :) I've got two classes: Ocean and Grid. When I declare an object of the Grid inside the Ocean: unsigned int sharkCount; Grid grid; The compiler/complainer says: error C2146: syntax error : missing ';' before identifier 'grid' Can you possibly predict what produces this error with the limited info I provided? It seems that as if the Ocean doesn't like the Grid class. Could this be because of the poor implementation of the grid class. BTW the Grid has a default constructor. Yet the error happens in compiling time!. EDIT: They're each in separate header file, and I've included the Grid.h in the Ocean.h.

  Read the article

• jquery :last missing multiple classes

  - by mickyjtwin

  I have an unordered list, and am using jquery to find the last ul and apply a class. jQuery("ul.class1:last").addClass("lastUi"); The html is as follows: <ul class="class1"></ul> <ul class="class1"></ul> This is working fine, however it has now changed in that another class is being added to the list so the html looks like: <ul class="class1"></ul> <ul class="class1 class2"></ul> <ul class="class1"></ul> <ul class="class1 class2"></ul> The jQuery code is now not picking up the last ul with both class1 and class2 as the last element and isn't adding the lastUI class.

  Read the article

• mootools 1.1.1 scrollto element with class name ... anything like jquery?

  - by dtour

  I get the impression mootools will do this, but in a roundabout way. I am working with livevalidation script. What I want to achieve is when the from runs and errors are generated then the page will scroll to the first error found. This will be outputted as: <span class=" LV_validation_message LV_invalid">Can't be empty!</span> with jquery I could do the following: $.scrollTo($('span.LV_invalid:1')); I get the feeling in mootools I have to first find the position of the first span with class LV_invalid then pass this to the scrollTo function or is there a much simpler solution?

  Read the article

• Is it possible to override a property and return a derived type in VB.NET?

  - by Casey

  Consider the following classes representing an Ordering system: Public Class OrderBase Public MustOverride Property OrderItem() as OrderItemBase End Class Public Class OrderItemBase End Class Now, suppose we want to extend these classes to a more specific set of order classes, keeping the aggregate nature of OrderBase: Public Class WebOrder Inherits OrderBase Public Overrides Property OrderItem() as WebOrderItem End Property End Class Public Class WebOrderItem Inherits OrderItemBase End Class The Overriden property in the WebOrder class will cause an error stating that the return type is different from that defined in OrderBase... however, the return type is a subclass of the type defined in OrderBase. Why won't VB allow this?

  Read the article

• Why doesn't Rails' "errors.full_messages" replace attribute and message variables?

  - by tybro0103

  Having a strange problem with a rails model I just created. Here are my validations: validates_presence_of :from_name, :message => 'Please provide a from name.' validates_presence_of :from_email validates_presence_of :giftition_plan_id I'm having issues using errors.full_messages as well as f.error_messages in my form: g = Giftition.create g.errors.first => ["from_name", "Please provide a from name."] >> g.errors.full_messages => ["{{attribute}} {{message}}", "{{attribute}} {{message}}", "{{attribute}} {{message}}"] I'm just getting "{{attribute}} {{message}}". Any ideas? UPDATE: I've uninstalled rails 3 and all the gems that were installed with it and that made the problem go away. It's not a fix though... I would still like to have rails 3 installed.

  Read the article

• passing variables to a function. getting error:cannot use parenthesis when calling a sub.

  - by sushant

  x="D:\d" y="ehgfh" button onclick="zips (x,y)" id=button1 name=button1clickme function zips(x,y) alert(y) dim shell,z z="c.bat " & x set shell=createobject("wscript.shell") shell.Run z, 1, true shell.Run "a.bat", 1, true set shell=nothing end function how to eliminate the error? any help is really appriciated.

  Read the article

• Editing/Modifying a .java file programmatically? (not the .class file)

  - by Jay

  So, here is a piece of code using CodeModel that generates java code: JCodeModel cm = new JCodeModel(); JDefinedClass dc = cm._class("foo.Bar"); JMethod m = dc.method(0, int.class, "foo"); m.body()._return(JExpr.lit(5)); File f = new File("C:/target/classes"); f.mkdirs(); cm.build(f); This code generates a .java file: package foo; public class Bar { int foo() { return 5; } } However, I DO NOT want CodeModel to create a new java file for me. I do have a .java file already and would like to add a few lines of code to a method inside it. So, I would like the API to modify the java file directly/ create a modified copy of it. Is there a way to doing this?

  Read the article

• How do I indicate that a class doesn't support certain operators?

  - by romeovs

  I'm writing a class that represents an ordinal scale, but has no logical zero-point (eg time). This scale should permit addition and substraction (operator+, operator+=, ...) but not multiplication. Yet, I always felt it to be a good practice that when one overloads one operator of a certain group (in this case the math operators), one should also overload all the others that belong to that group. In this case that would mean I should need to overload the multiplication and division operators also, because if a user can use A+B he would probable expect to be able the other operators. Is there a method that I can use to throw an error for this at compiler time? The easiest method would be just no to overload the operators operator*, ... yet it would seem appropriate to add a bit more explaination than operator* is not know for class "time". Or is this something that I really should not care about (RTFM user)?

  Read the article

• Is it possible to apply inheritance to a Singleton class?

  - by Bragaadeesh

  Hi, Today I faced one question in interview. Is it possible to apply inheritance concept on Singleton Classes. I said since the constructor is private, we cannot extend that Singleton class (can someone please validate this). Next thing he asked me is to apply inheritance on that Singleton class. So, I made the Singleton's constructor as protected thinking that child's constructor also has be protected. But I was wrong the child can have a modifier either equal to or higher than that. So, I asked him to give a real world example on such a case. He was not able to give me one and said that I cant ask questions and wanted me to tell whether this scenario is possible or not. I went kind of blank. My question here is, Is this possible? Even if its possible, what is the use of it? What real world scenario would demand such a use. Thanks

  Read the article

• How do I dynamically point an interface to a specific class at runtime?

  - by Jon

  As a simple example, I have an xml file with a list of names of classes which actually carry out the work and all implement interface IDoWork with a method Process(). I loop through the items in the xml file. How do I actually dynamically assign the class to the interface from a string name? e.g. var IDoWork = new "DoWorkType1"(); IDoWork.Process(); <work> <item id="DoWorkType1"> </item> <item id="DoWorkType2"> </item> </work> I want to achieve a plugin type architecture, except the plugin isn't at an assembly level only a class level within my program.

  Read the article

• Cache an FTP connection via session variables for use via AJAX?

  - by Chad Johnson

  I'm working on a Ruby web Application that uses the Net::FTP library. One part of it allows users to interact with an FTP site via AJAX. When the user does something, and AJAX call is made, and then Ruby reconnects to the FTP server, performs an action, and outputs information. Every time the AJAX call is made, Ruby has to reconnect to the FTP server, and that's slow. Is there a way I could cache this FTP connection? I've tried caching in the session hash, but "We're sorry, but something went wrong" is displayed, and a TCP dump is outputted in my logs whenever I attempt to store it in the session hash. I haven't tried memcache yet. Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• How to optimize 'class name' in Android XML Layout ?

  - by Mac

  Hello, I am using some custom components in my project for that I am using following code. <view class="com.android.mypackage.myclass" id="@+id/button" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:background="@android:drawable/button" android:padding="10dip" /> Its working perfectly fine, I am using this code near about 35 times in my application. so while creating new clone application from same project, I need to update package name in 35 places. Is there any way to reduce these efforts? I had tried with "class="@string/class_name" but its not working.

  Read the article

• Is is possible to intercept a constructor on a class you do not own?

  - by code poet

  Referring to my possible answer to this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2907535/how-would-you-audit-asp-net-membership-tables-while-recording-what-user-made-the/2911616#2911616 Is it possible to intercept a call, coming from code you do not own, to a ctor on a sealed internal class that you do not own with the intention of manipulating the object before returning? Concrete example: SqlMembershipProvider, for all of it's data access, instantiates a connection helper class, System.Web.DataAccess.SqlConnectionHolder. The desired result is to intercept this instantiation and perform an operation on the public connection that is opened in the ctor of System.Web.DataAccess.SqlConnectionHolder before letting execution continue. Is this possible. If so, an brief example would be appreciated.

  Read the article

• What is the best way to pass server side variables to JavaScript on the client side?

  - by steve_c

  Our application uses a lot of configuration options. Those options need to be reflected on the client side in the form of User preferences, site wide preferences, etc. Currently, we pass server side settings down to the client side in the form of JSON that is stored in custom attributes in the markup for a specific element (and no, our application currently doesn't worry about W3C validation). We then retrieve the data from the custom attribute, and parse it into a JSON object for use in script using jQuery. One drawback to this is referencing attributes on elements from within event handlers. I know this is frowned upon, as it can create circular references, and subsequently memory leaks. I would much prefer to use jQuery's data function, but you can't invoke this from the server side at page render time. What does everyone else do in this type of scenario?

  Read the article

• Can you pass _POST variables from 1 server to another?

  - by Dr. DOT

  I have a web form on an IIS server (has no PHP). I have a PHP script on a LAMP server. My _POST var array is coming up empty on the LAMP server. My suspicion is I cannot pass POST vars from 1 server to another but I would like to have that confirmed. Does anyone know the answer to this? If that's the case then I know I need to with use _GET vars in the URL's Query String or set a cookie (which I can do because both servers are config'd with the domain name). Thanks for your help.

  Read the article

• In Java ,where in memory are class functions put?

  - by husain

  In java ,where in memory are class functions put?

  Read the article

• What is the correct way to use variables in JQuery?

  - by Jared Christensen

  I want to reference an element once and then reuse it threw out my code but I'm not sure the correct way. Below is what I tried but it only works in some places. $(document).ready(function() { var image = $("#content img"); image.wrap("<span />"); // Works! image.hover(function(){}, function(){}); // Does not work? });

  Read the article

• Is there a shorthand form to get variables' values with numbered scopes?

  - by guillermooo

  Is there any shorter way of doing this? & { $a = 1 ; & { $a = 2 ; & { get-variable -name a -scope 2 } } } ... like, for instance, this?: & { $a = 1 ; & { $a = 2 ; & { $2:a } } }

  Read the article

• how to access a label form user control in Parent class ?

  - by haansi

  I have a class UserControlBase that inherits System.Web.UI.UserControl and my user controls inherit UserControlBase class. UserControlBase has some common functions that are used in all user controls. I want to put error display funtion to UserControlBase as well so that I may not have to declare and manage it in all user controls. Error will be displayed in some label in usercontrol. Issue is how to access label which is in usercontrol in UserControlBase in function ? I dont want to pass label as argument. Please guide me on this issue. thanks

  Read the article

• How to store NSMutableArray of user defined class objects to file system in iphone?

  - by chaitanya

  Can anyone please tell me how to write NSMutableArray of custom class objects to file? below is the code which i am using to write my array "medicationsArray" to file. medicationsArray contains the objects of below medicationData class @interface medicationData: NSObject { NSString *drName; NSString *date; NSString *description; } @end NSArray *path = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory,NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentDir = [path objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *pathWithFileName; NSString *pathWithFileName = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@/medicationsArray",documentDir]; [medicationsArray writeToFile:pathWithFileName atomically:NO]; by using this code i am not able to create a file. can anyone help me in this, thanks in advance

  Read the article

• Is it inefficient to access a python class member container in a loop statement?

  - by Dave

  Hi there. I'm trying to adopt some best practices to keep my python code efficient. I've heard that accessing a member variable inside of a loop can incur a dictionary lookup for every iteration of the loop, so I cache these in local variables to use inside the loop. My question is about the loop statement itself... if I have the following class: class A(object): def init(self) self.myList = [ 'a','b','c', 'd', 'e' ] Does the following code in a member function incur one, or one-per-loop-iteration (5) dictionary lookups? for letter in self.myList: print letter IE, should I adopt the following pattern, if I am concerned about efficiency... localList = self.myList for letter in localList: print letter or is that actually LESS efficient due to the local variable assign? Note, I am aware that early optimization is a dangerous pitfall if I'm concerned about the overall efficiency of code development. Here I am specifically asking about the efficiency of the code, not the coding. Thanks in advance! D

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 294 295 296 297 298 299 300 301 302 303 304 305  | Next Page >