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  • Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

    - by Corey Henderson
    I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

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  • asp:Button is not calling server-side function

    - by Richard Neil Ilagan
    Hi guys, I know that there has been much discussion here about this topic, but none of the threads I got across helped me solve this problem. I'm hoping that mine is somewhat unique, and may actually merit a different solution. I'm instantiating an asp:Button inside a data-bound asp:GridView through template fields. Some of the buttons are supposed to call a server-side function, but for some weird reason, it doesn't. All the buttons do when you click them is fire a postback to the current page, doing nothing, effectively just reloading the page. Below is a fragment of the code: <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" CssClass="l2 submissions" ShowHeader="false"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate><asp:Panel ID="swatchpanel" CssClass='<%# Bind("status") %>' runat="server"></asp:Panel></ItemTemplate> <ItemStyle Width="50px" CssClass="sw" /> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="description" ReadOnly="true"> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="owner" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Font-Italic="true" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="last-modified" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Width="100px" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Button ID="viewBtn" cssclass='<%# Bind("sid") %>' runat="server" Text="View" OnClick="viewBtnClick" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> The viewBtn above should call the viewBtnClick() function on server-side. I do have that function defined, along with a proper signature (object,EventArgs). One thing that may be of note is that this code is actually inside an ASCX, which is loaded in another ASCX, finally loaded into an ASPX. Any help or insight into the matter will be SO appreciated. Thanks! (oh, and please don't mind my trashy HTML/CSS semantics - this is still in a very,very early stage :p)

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  • I want to set the AutoCompleteMode property in ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl subroutine

    - by Ranjan Gupta
    Hi, I am creating a DataGridView Column. and it is working well. now I want to customise this column with AutoCompleteMode, and AutoCompleteSource properties to show the customised data. I made the properties for this columns, and these are also working well. but these properties are not working in the "ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl" subroutine. Please help me to use these column properties in the "ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl" subroutine. Public Class DataGridViewDataValueColumn Inherits DataGridViewColumn Dim m_AutoCompleteMode As AutoCompleteMode, _ m_AutoCompleteSource As AutoCompleteSource, _ m_AutoCompleteStringCollection As AutoCompleteStringCollection Public Sub New() MyBase.New(New DataValueCell()) End Sub Public Overrides Property CellTemplate() As DataGridViewCell Get Return MyBase.CellTemplate End Get Set(ByVal value As DataGridViewCell) ' Ensure that the cell used for the template is a DataValueCell. If (value IsNot Nothing) AndAlso _ Not value.GetType().IsAssignableFrom(GetType(DataValueCell)) _ Then Throw New InvalidCastException("Must be a DataValueCell") End If MyBase.CellTemplate = value End Set End Property Region "User Defined Properties" '&*--------------------------------------*&' <Description("Indicates the text completion behaviour of the combo box."), DefaultValue(AutoCompleteMode.None)> _ Public Property AutoCompleteMode() As AutoCompleteMode Get Return m_AutoCompleteMode End Get Set(ByVal value As AutoCompleteMode) m_AutoCompleteMode = value End Set End Property <Description("The source of complete strings used to automatic completion."), DefaultValue(AutoCompleteSource.None)> _ Public Property AutoCompleteSource() As AutoCompleteSource Get Return m_AutoCompleteSource End Get Set(ByVal value As AutoCompleteSource) m_AutoCompleteSource = value End Set End Property <Description("The autocomplete custom source.")> _ Public Property AutoCompleteCustomSource() As AutoCompleteStringCollection Get Return m_AutoCompleteStringCollection End Get Set(ByVal value As AutoCompleteStringCollection) m_AutoCompleteStringCollection = value End Set End Property End Region End Class '&*--------------------------------------*&' Class DataValueCell Inherits DataGridViewTextBoxCell Public Sub New() ' End Sub Public Overrides ReadOnly Property EditType As Type Get Return GetType(PCLDataGridViewTextBoxEditingControl) End Get End Property End Class '&*--------------------------------------*&' '&* Edit DataGridView Columns *&' '&*--------------------------------------*&' Class PCLDataGridViewTextBoxEditingControl Inherits DataGridViewTextBoxEditingControl Public Overrides Function EditingControlWantsInputKey(ByVal keyData As Keys, ByVal dataGridViewWantsInputKey As Boolean) As Boolean Select Case ((keyData And Keys.KeyCode)) Case Keys.Prior, Keys.Next, Keys.End, Keys.Home, Keys.Left, Keys.Up, Keys.Right, Keys.Down, Keys.Delete Return True End Select Return MyBase.EditingControlWantsInputKey(keyData, dataGridViewWantsInputKey) End Function Public Overrides Sub ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl(ByVal dataGridViewCellStyle As DataGridViewCellStyle) With DirectCast(Me, TextBox) '.AutoCompleteMode = DataGridViewDataValueColumn.AutoCompleteMode_Value '.AutoCompleteSource = DataGridViewDataValueColumn.AutoCompleteSource_Value '.AutoCompleteCustomSource = MyBase.AutoCompleteCustomSource End With End Sub End Class

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  • Opinions on collision detection objects with a moving scene

    - by Evan Teran
    So my question is simple, and I guess it boils down to how anal you want to be about collision detection. To keep things simple, lets assume we're talking about 2D sprites defined by a bounding box. In addition, let's assume that my sprite object has a function to detect collisions like this: S.collidesWith(other); Finally the scene is moving and "walls" in the scene can move, an object may not touch a wall. So a simple implementation might look like this (psuedo code): moveWalls(); moveSprite(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } The problem with this is that if the sprite and wall move towards each other, depending on the circumstances (such as diagonal moment). They may pass though each other (unlikely but could happen). So I may do this instead. moveWalls(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } moveSprite(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } This takes care of the passing through each other issue, but another rare issue comes up. If they are adjacent to each other (literally the next pixel) and both the wall and the sprite are moving left, then I will get an invalid collision since the wall moves, checks for collision (hit) then the sprite is moved. Which seems unfair. In addition, to that, the redundant collision detection feels very inefficient. I could give the player movement priority alleviating the first issue but it is still checking twice. moveSprite(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } moveWalls(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } Am I simply over thinking this issue, should this just be chalked up to "it'll happen rare enough that no one will care"? Certainly looking at old sprite based games, I often find situations where the collision detection has subtle flaws, but I figure by now we can do better :-P. What are people's thoughts?

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  • Javascript self contained sandbox events and client side stack

    - by amnon
    I'm in the process of moving a JSF heavy web application to a REST and mainly JS module application . I've watched "scalable javascript application architecture" by Nicholas Zakas on yui theater (excellent video) and implemented much of the talk with good success but i have some questions : I found the lecture a little confusing in regards to the relationship between modules and sandboxes , on one had to my understanding modules should not be effected by something happening outside of their sandbox and this is why they publish events via the sandbox (and not via the core as they do access the core for hiding base libary) but each module in the application gets a new sandbox ? , shouldn't the sandbox limit events to the modoules using it ? or should events be published cross page ? e.g. : if i have two editable tables but i want to contain each one in a different sandbox and it's events effect only the modules inside that sandbox something like messabe box per table which is a different module/widget how can i do that with sandbox per module , ofcourse i can prefix the events with the moduleid but that creates coupling that i want to avoid ... and i don't want to package modules toghter as one module per combination as i already have 6-7 modules ? while i can hide the base library for small things like id selector etc.. i would still like to use the base library for module dependencies and resource loading and use something like yui loader or dojo.require so in fact i'm hiding the base library but the modules themself are defined and loaded by the base library ... seems a little strange to me libraries don't return simple js objects but usualy wrap them e.g. : u can do something like $$('.classname').each(.. which cleans the code alot , it makes no sense to wrap the base and then in the module create a dependency for the base library by executing .each but not using those features makes a lot of code written which can be left out ... and implemnting that functionality is very bug prone does anyonen have any experience with building a front side stack of this order ? how easy is it to change a base library and/or have modules from different libraries , using yui datatable but doing form validation with dojo ... ? some what of a combination of 2+4 if u choose to do something like i said and load dojo form validation widgets for inputs via yui loader would that mean dojocore is a module and the form module is dependant on it ? Thanks .

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  • On Click alert if $.get returns a value, if not, submit the form

    - by bradenkeith
    If the submit button is clicked, prevent the default action and see if the field 'account_name' is already in use. If the $.get() returns a result, alert the user of the results. If it doesn't, submit form with id="add_account_form". My problem is that my else{} statement is not submitting the form. I get no response when submit is clicked & there is no value returned. Also I would like to change my code where it goes $("#add_account_form").submit(..) instead of .click() however, would that cause a problem when trying to submit the form later in the script? <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function () { $("#submit").click( function () { var account_name = $("input[name=account_name]").val(); $.get( "'.url::site("ajax/check_account_name").'", {account_name: account_name}, function(data){ if(data.length > 0){ confirm( "The account name you entered looks like the following:\n" +data+ "Press cancel if this account already exists or ok to create it." ); }else{ $("#add_account_form").submit(); } }); return false; }); }); </script> <p> <input type="submit" id="submit" class="submit small" name="submit" value="Submit" /> </p> </form> Thanks for your help. EDIT So anyone who runs into my problems, it's that $.get() is asynchronous, so it will always return false, or true depending on what submitForm is defined as. $.ajax() however, allows async to be set as false, which allows the function to finish before moving on. See what I mean: $(document).ready( function () { $("#add_account_form").submit( function () { var submitForm = true; var account_name = $("input[name=account_name]").val(); $.ajax({ type: "GET", async: false, url: "'.url::site("ajax/check_account_name").'", data: ({account_name: account_name}), success: function(data){ if(data.length > 0){ if(!confirm( "The account name you entered looks like the following:\n" +data+ "Press cancel if this account already exists or ok to create it." )){ submitForm = false; } } } }); if (submitForm == false ) { return false; } }); }); Thanks for your help @Dan

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  • How do I code a loop for my echo statements?

    - by ggg
    <?php defined('_JEXEC') or die('Restricted access'); $db =& JFactory::getDBO(); $query0 = "SELECT * FROM `#__chesspositions` WHERE . . . . ."; //echo $query0; $db->setQuery($query0); $ginfo = $db->loadObjectList(); //echo $ginfo[0]; echo $db->getErrorMsg(); if(empty($ginfo)){ echo "<center><h2 style='color:navy'>No game found, we apologize</h2></center>"; }else{ $query1= "SELECT * FROM `#__chessmoves` WHERE Id='".$ginfo[0]->MoveDataId."'"; $db->setQuery($query1); echo $db->getErrorMsg(); $gmove = $db->loadObjectList(); } //define array; //how do I code a foreach loop (or any other type of loop) here? //I'm having trouble properly defining the array and structuring the syntax. echo "[Event \"".$ginfo[0]->Event."\"]\n"; echo "[Site \"".$ginfo[0]->Site."\"]\n"; echo "[Date \"".$ginfo[0]->Date."\"]\n"; echo "[Round \"".$ginfo[0]->Round."\"]\n"; echo "[White \"".$ginfo[0]->White."\"]\n"; echo "[Black \"".$ginfo[0]->Black."\"]\n"; echo "[Result \"".$ginfo[0]->Result."\"]\n"; echo "[ECO \"".$ginfo[0]->ECO."\"]\n"; echo "[WhiteElo \"".$ginfo[0]->WhiteElo."\"]\n"; echo "[BlackElo \"".$ginfo[0]->BlackElo."\"]\n"; echo "[Annotator \"".$ginfo[0]->Annotator."\"]\n"; echo "[SetUp \"".$ginfo[0]->SetUp."\"]\n"; echo $gmove[0]->MoveData; ?>

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  • PHP - error when insert date into MySQL

    - by Michael Mao
    Hello everyone: I've got a typical problem when trying to insert a date into MySQL. The column defined in MySQL is of type DATE. My PHP version is 5.3.0 Apart from this date-related issue, the rest of my code works just fine. And this is my PHP script to do this: $tablename = BOOKS_TABLE; $insert = mysql_query("INSERT INTO $tablename (barcode, book_name, volume_num,". " author, publisher, item_type, buy_price, buy_date) VALUES ". "(". "'" . $barcode . "', ". "'" . $bookname . "', ". "'" . $volumenum . "', ". "'" . $author . "', ". "'" . $publisher . "', ". "'" . $itemtype . "', ". "'" . $buyprice . "', ". "'" . getMySQLDateString($buydate). //"'STR_TO_DATE('".$buydate ."', '%d/%m/%Y'))'". //nothing changes in MySQL ")"); And this is the faulty function : function getMySQLDateString($buydate) //typical buydate : 04/21/2009 { $mysqlDateString = date('Y-m-d H:i:s', $strtotime($buydate)); return $mysqlDateString; } The first commented out line wouldn't do anything, the script is executed with no error, however, there is nothing changed in datebase after this. The current approach will cause a Fatal error saying function name must be a string in this line. Actually I followed this thread on SO, but just cannot pass the date into MySQL... Can anyone help me figure out which part is not right? How would you do it, in this case, to get it right? Sorry about such a journeyman-like question, thanks a lot in advance.

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  • Wordpress pages address rewrite

    - by kemp
    UPDATE I tried using the internal wordpress rewrite. What I have to do is an address like this: http://example.com/galleria/artist-name sent to the gallery.php page with a variable containing the artist-name. I used these rules as per Wordpress' documentation: // REWRITE RULES (per gallery) {{{ add_filter('rewrite_rules_array','wp_insertMyRewriteRules'); add_filter('query_vars','wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars'); add_filter('init','flushRules'); // Remember to flush_rules() when adding rules function flushRules(){ global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } // Adding a new rule function wp_insertMyRewriteRules($rules) { $newrules = array(); $newrules['(galleria)/(.*)$'] = 'index.php?pagename=gallery&galleryname=$matches[2]'; return $newrules + $rules; } // Adding the id var so that WP recognizes it function wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars($vars) { array_push($vars, 'galleryname'); return $vars; } what's weird now is that on my local wordpress test install, that works fine: the gallery page is called and the galleryname variable is passed. On the real site, on the other hand, the initial URL is accepted (as in it doesn't go into a 404) BUT it changes to http://example.com/gallery (I mean it actually changes in the browser's address bar) and the variable is not defined in gallery.php. Any idea what could possibly cause this different behavior? Alternatively, any other way I couldn't think of which could achieve the same effect described in the first three lines is perfectly fine. Old question What I need to do is rewriting this address: (1) http://localhost/wordpress/fake/text-value to (2) http://localhost/wordpress/gallery?somevar=text-value Notes: the remapping must be transparent: the user always has to see address (1) gallery is a permalink to a wordpress page, not a real address I basically need to rewrite the address first (to modify it) and then feed it back to mod rewrite again (to let wordpress parse it its own way). Problems if I simply do RewriteRule ^fake$ http://localhost/wordpress/gallery [L] it works but the address in the browser changes, which is no good, if I do RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [L] I get a 404. I tried different flags instead of [L] but to no avail. How can I get this to work? EDIT: full .htaccess # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [R] RewriteBase /wordpress/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /wordpress/index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress

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  • Linux, GNU GCC, ld, version scripts and the ELF binary format -- How does it work??

    - by themoondothshine
    Hey all, I'm trying to learn more about library versioning in Linux and how to put it all to work. Here's the context: -- I have two versions of a dynamic library which expose the same set of interfaces, say libsome1.so and libsome2.so. -- An application is linked against libsome1.so. -- This application uses libdl.so to dynamically load another module, say libmagic.so. -- Now libmagic.so is linked against libsome2.so. Obviously, without using linker scripts to hide symbols in libmagic.so, at run-time all calls to interfaces in libsome2.so are resolved to libsome1.so. This can be confirmed by checking the value returned by libVersion() against the value of the macro LIB_VERSION. -- So I try next to compile and link libmagic.so with a linker script which hides all symbols except 3 which are defined in libmagic.so and are exported by it. This works... Or at least libVersion() and LIB_VERSION values match (and it reports version 2 not 1). -- However, when some data structures are serialized to disk, I noticed some corruption. In the application's directory if I delete libsome1.so and create a soft link in its place to point to libsome2.so, everything works as expected and the same corruption does not happen. I can't help but think that this may be caused due to some conflict in the run-time linker's resolution of symbols. I've tried many things, like trying to link libsome2.so so that all symbols are alised to symbol@@VER_2 (which I am still confused about because the command nm -CD libsome2.so still lists symbols as symbol and not symbol@@VER_2)... Nothing seems to work!!! Help!!!!!! Edit: I should have mentioned it earlier, but the app in question is Firefox, and libsome1.so is libsqlite3.so shipped with it. I don't quite have the option of recompiling them. Also, using version scripts to hide symbols seems to be the only solution right now. So what really happens when symbols are hidden? Do they become 'local' to the SO? Does rtld have no knowledge of their existence? What happens when an exported function refers to a hidden symbol?

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  • git: setting a single tracking remote from a public repo.

    - by Gauthier
    I am confused with remote branches. My local repo: (local) ---A---B---C-master My remote repo (called int): (int) ---A---B---C---D---E-master What I want to do is to setup the local repo's master branch to follow that of int. Local repo: (local) ---A---B---C---D---E-master-remotes/int/master So that when int changes to: (int) ---A---B---C---D---E---F-master I can run git pull from the local repo's master and get (local) ---A---B---C---D---E---F-master-remotes/int/master Here's what I have tried: git fetch int gets me all the branches of int into remote branches. This can get messy since int might have hundreds of branches. git fetch int master gets me the commits, but no ref to it, only FETCH_HEAD. No remote branch either. git fetch int master:new_master works but I don't want a new name every time I update, and no remote branch is setup. git pull int master does what I want, but there is still no remote branch setup. I feel that it is ok to do so (that's the best I have now), but I read here and there that with the remote setup it is enough with git pull. git branch --track new_master int/master, as per http://www.gitready.com/beginner/2009/03/09/remote-tracking-branches.html . I get "not a valid object name: int/master". git remote -v does show me that int is defined and points at the correct location (1. worked). What I miss is the int/master branch, which is precisely what I want to get. git fetch in master:int/master. Well, int/master is created, but is no remote. So to summarize, I've tried some stuff with no luck. I would expect 2 to give me the remote branch to master in the repo int. The solution I use now is option 3. I read somewhere that you could change some config file by hand, but isn't that a bit cumbersome? The "cumbersome" way of editting the config file did work: [branch "master"] remote = int merge = master It can be done from command line: $ git config branch.master.remote int $ git config branch.master.merge master Any reason why option 2 above wouldn't do that automatically? Even in that case, git pull fetches all branches from the remote.

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  • [CakePHP] I am so confused. What should I write in the default.ctp

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I am learning cakePHP, everything seems alright except that I am very confused of how to make use of the default.ctp and what should be put inside the Elements folder. Here is the default.ctp file that I have been using since my very first lesson on learning cakePHP: (I copied from this URL http://book.cakephp.org/view/96/Layouts) <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title><?php echo $title_for_layout?></title> <link rel="shortcut icon" href="favicon.ico" type="image/x-icon"> <!-- Include external files and scripts here (See HTML helper for more info.) --> <?php echo $scripts_for_layout ?> </head> <body> <!-- If you'd like some sort of menu to show up on all of your views, include it here --> <div id="header"> <div id="menu">...</div> </div> <!-- Here's where I want my views to be displayed --> <?php echo $content_for_layout ?> <!-- Add a footer to each displayed page --> <div id="footer">...</div> </body> </html> But the problem is that the layout will take effect to all web pages that I have created. Let's see the case that I have recently encountered. In one of the .ctp files, I need to use JQuery function and I need to ass some and tags in the .ctp file. Here are the and tags I used: <Script language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { // some functions here }); </Script> <style type="text/css"> { #toppage{ width:800px; } But when I followed the default.ctp file, I noticed that these tags (i.e. and ) happened to appear below the tag. As far as I know, the and self-defined Javascript functions should be put inside the tag of the HTML instead. I have considered to add the and in the default.ctp file, but then these codes would appear in every web pages instead of just a particular web page. Please help.

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  • get renamed file names of multiple upload form [js array] in codeigniter

    - by artmania
    Hi friends, I use codeigniter. I have a multiple image upload form. The code below is working well for uploading, but I also need to save file names to database. How can I get the names in here? I spent hours & hours :/ but could not sort it :/ Appreciate helps!!! uploadform.php echo form_open_multipart('gallery/upload'); <input type="file" name="photo" size="50" /> <input type="file" name="thumb" size="50" /> <input type="submit" value="Upload" /> </form> I have a controller between form view and model load model (of course : )) but didnt post here because of no need. gallery_model.php function multiple_upload($upload_dir = 'uploads/', $config = array()) { /* Upload */ $CI =& get_instance(); $files = array(); if(empty($config)) { $config['upload_path'] = realpath($upload_dir); $config['allowed_types'] = 'gif|jpg|jpeg|jpe|png'; $config['max_size'] = '2048'; } $CI->load->library('upload', $config); $errors = FALSE; foreach($_FILES as $key => $value) { if( ! empty($value['name'])) { if( ! $CI->upload->do_upload($key)) { $data['upload_message'] = $CI->upload->display_errors(ERR_OPEN, ERR_CLOSE); // ERR_OPEN and ERR_CLOSE are error delimiters defined in a config file $CI->load->vars($data); $errors = TRUE; } else { // Build a file array from all uploaded files $files[] = $CI->upload->data(); } } } // There was errors, we have to delete the uploaded files if($errors) { foreach($files as $key => $file) { @unlink($file['full_path']); } } elseif(empty($files) AND empty($data['upload_message'])) { $CI->lang->load('upload'); $data['upload_message'] = ERR_OPEN.$CI->lang->line('upload_no_file_selected').ERR_CLOSE; $CI->load->vars($data); } else { return $files; } /* ------------------------------- Insert to database */ // problem is here, i need file names to add db. // if there is already same names file at the folder, it rename file itself. so in such case, I need renamed file name :/ } }

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  • Why does WebSharingAppDemo-CEProviderEndToEnd sample still need a client db connection after scope c

    - by Don
    I'm researching a way to build an n-tierd sync solution. From the WebSharingAppDemo-CEProviderEndToEnd sample it seems almost feasable however for some reason, the app will only sync if the client has a live SQL db connection. Can some one explain what I'm missing and how to sync without exposing SQL to the internet? The problem I'm experiencing is that when I provide a Relational sync provider that has an open SQL connection from the client, then it works fine but when I provide a Relational sync provider that has a closed but configured connection string, as in the example, I get an error from the WCF stating that the server did not receive the batch file. So what am I doing wrong? SqlConnectionStringBuilder builder = new SqlConnectionStringBuilder(); builder.DataSource = hostName; builder.IntegratedSecurity = true; builder.InitialCatalog = "mydbname"; builder.ConnectTimeout = 1; provider.Connection = new SqlConnection(builder.ToString()); // provider.Connection.Open(); **** un-commenting this causes the code to work** //create anew scope description and add the appropriate tables to this scope DbSyncScopeDescription scopeDesc = new DbSyncScopeDescription(SyncUtils.ScopeName); //class to be used to provision the scope defined above SqlSyncScopeProvisioning serverConfig = new SqlSyncScopeProvisioning(); .... The error I get occurs in this part of the WCF code: public SyncSessionStatistics ApplyChanges(ConflictResolutionPolicy resolutionPolicy, ChangeBatch sourceChanges, object changeData) { Log("ProcessChangeBatch: {0}", this.peerProvider.Connection.ConnectionString); DbSyncContext dataRetriever = changeData as DbSyncContext; if (dataRetriever != null && dataRetriever.IsDataBatched) { string remotePeerId = dataRetriever.MadeWithKnowledge.ReplicaId.ToString(); //Data is batched. The client should have uploaded this file to us prior to calling ApplyChanges. //So look for it. //The Id would be the DbSyncContext.BatchFileName which is just the batch file name without the complete path string localBatchFileName = null; if (!this.batchIdToFileMapper.TryGetValue(dataRetriever.BatchFileName, out localBatchFileName)) { //Service has not received this file. Throw exception throw new FaultException<WebSyncFaultException>(new WebSyncFaultException("No batch file uploaded for id " + dataRetriever.BatchFileName, null)); } dataRetriever.BatchFileName = localBatchFileName; } Any ideas?

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  • Which MS technologies would be suited for a data intensive application?

    - by steve.tse
    I'm a junior VB.net developer with little application design knowledge. I've been reading a lot of material online regarding different design patterns, frameworks, and methodologies. It's become a bit confusing for me. Right now I'm trying to decide on what language would be best suited to convert an existing VB6 application (with SQL server backend.) I need to update the UI and add more user functionality and reporting capabilities. Initially I was thinking of using WPF and attempting the MVVM model for this big project. Reports would be generated from SSRS. A peer suggested using ASP.net and I don't have enough experience to determine what would be better. The senior programmers here are stuck on using VB6 and don't have any input on what to use. They are encouraging me to use the latest technologies. This application would be for ~20 users in a central location. Ideally I would stick to a Microsoft .net language. Current interface is similar to a datagrid table where the user would click in to see the detail of each record. They would need to have multiple records open at any given time. I look forward to all the advice I can get. EDIT 2010/04/22 2:47 PM EST What is your audience? Internal clients within an intranet How complex are the interactions you expect to implement? not very... displaying data from SQL server to UI. Allow user updates to said data. Typically just one user modifying a record. Do you require near real-time data updates? no How often do you expect to update the application after the first release? twice/year Do you expect a well-defined set of client platforms? Yes, windows xp environment, potentially upgrading to Win7. Currently in IE.6 moving to IE7 or 8 within a couple of months. Do users need access from anywhere? No, just from their PC.

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  • propertyplaceholderconfigurer class name substitution problem

    - by Alex
    The following example works for "class name substitution using the PropertyPlaceHolderConfigurer": http://forum.springsource.org/showpost.php?p=228136&postcount=2 HOWEVER, when porting this code over (messages.properties, com.spring.ioc.TestClass, and spring-config.xml) to a web application, the class name substitution now fails! 1) I am running on the webapp on Tomcat through the Eclipse plugin. 2) In the web.xml I have the following: <context-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value>/WEB-INF/spring-config.xml</param-value> </context-param> <listener> <listener-class>org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener</listener-class> </listener> 3) The following is output in the log: 282 [main] DEBUG org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory - Ignoring bean class loading failure for bean 'test' org.springframework.beans.factory.CannotLoadBeanClassException: Cannot find class [${test.class}] for bean with name 'test' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/spring-config.xml]; nested exception is java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: ${test.class} at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory.resolveBeanClass(AbstractBeanFactory.java:1141) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.predictBeanType(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:524) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory.isFactoryBean(AbstractBeanFactory.java:1177) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.getBeanNamesForType(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:222) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.invokeBeanFactoryPostProcessors(AbstractApplicationContext.java:505) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.refresh(AbstractApplicationContext.java:362) at org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader.createWebApplicationContext(ContextLoader.java:255) at org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader.initWebApplicationContext(ContextLoader.java:199) at org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener.contextInitialized(ContextLoaderListener.java:45) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext.listenerStart(StandardContext.java:3795) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext.start(StandardContext.java:4252) at org.apache.catalina.core.ContainerBase.start(ContainerBase.java:1014) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHost.start(StandardHost.java:736) at org.apache.catalina.core.ContainerBase.start(ContainerBase.java:1014) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngine.start(StandardEngine.java:443) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardService.start(StandardService.java:448) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardServer.start(StandardServer.java:700) at org.apache.catalina.startup.Catalina.start(Catalina.java:552) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at org.apache.catalina.startup.Bootstrap.start(Bootstrap.java:295) at org.apache.catalina.startup.Bootstrap.main(Bootstrap.java:433) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: ${test.class} at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1438) at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1284) at org.springframework.util.ClassUtils.forName(ClassUtils.java:211) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanDefinition.resolveBeanClass(AbstractBeanDefinition.java:385) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory.resolveBeanClass(AbstractBeanFactory.java:1138) ... 23 more Note: I haven't included it, but the PropertyPlaceHolderConfigurer is successfully locating the messages.properties file, but this seems to happen AFTER the above error is output?! DOES ANYBODY KNOW WHY THIS IS THE CASE AND HOW I CAN OVERCOME THIS PROBLEM?

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  • Across process marhalling problem with an array of points

    - by ElMagn
    Hi All, We have what we think is a marshalling problem with a renderer object when called across process boundaries. The renderer is an ATL COM server with a COM object that implements the IPoints interface defined below: typedef [uuid(B0E01719-005A-427c-B9DD-B42A18E969AE)] struct Point { double X; double Y; } Point; [ object, uuid(3BFECFE3-B4FB-4f14-8257-6E065D02E3B3), helpstring("IPoints Interface"), dual, ] interface IPoints : IDispatch { HRESULT DrawPolyLine([in] long hDC, [in] short count, [in, size_is(count)] Point * points ); // many more like DrawLine } The count parameter represents the number of points and the points parameter represents an array of the actual points. We have two process running, a graphical display process (GDP) and a tabular (grid) display process (TDP). A factory in the GDP, written in C#, creates the renderer and the clients of the renderer in the GDP. When the clients call into the renderer, everything displays correctly. The renderer is created at start up BTW. There is another factory in the TDP, written in VB6, that calls into the factory in the GDP to create the clients. When the clients call into the renderer, only the first point in the array is marshaled correctly, all the other points are garbage. Seems that the rendering works only when the client creation is started from the same process as the renderer. Now, i am not sure what the solution to this problem is. It seems that if we can guarantee that the clients are always created from a thread in the same GDP process as the renderer then the points are marshaled correctly. We tried using a background thread from the Thread Pool in C# and it indeed worked. The problem is that Windows Forms created from the clients stopped working because accessing the form's controls from a thread other than the thread that created the control is not allowed. We might change the calls to access the forms but we have quite a few of them and are trying to look into a different solution that might involve making changes to the renderer. The other problem is that the renderer is legacy code and we can't just change the interface. I am wondering what can we do to the renderer's interface that would help with marshalling from across process calls. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated. Regards, ElMagn

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  • T-SQL generated from LINQ to SQL is missing a where clause

    - by Jimmy W
    I have extended some functionality to a DataContext object (called "CodeLookupAccessDataContext") such that the object exposes some methods to return results of LINQ to SQL queries. Here are the methods I have defined: public List<CompositeSIDMap> lookupCompositeSIDMap(int regionId, int marketId) { var sidGroupId = CompositeSIDGroupMaps.Where(x => x.RegionID.Equals(regionId) && x.MarketID.Equals(marketId)) .Select(x => x.CompositeSIDGroup); IEnumerator<int> sidGroupIdEnum = sidGroupId.GetEnumerator(); if (sidGroupIdEnum.MoveNext()) return lookupCodeInfo<CompositeSIDMap, CompositeSIDMap>(x => x.CompositeSIDGroup.Equals(sidGroupIdEnum.Current), x => x); else return null; } private List<TResult> lookupCodeInfo<T, TResult>(Func<T, bool> compLambda, Func<T, TResult> selectLambda) where T : class { System.Data.Linq.Table<T> dataTable = this.GetTable<T>(); var codeQueryResult = dataTable.Where(compLambda) .Select(selectLambda); List<TResult> codeList = new List<TResult>(); foreach (TResult row in codeQueryResult) codeList.Add(row); return codeList; } CompositeSIDGroupMap and CompositeSIDMap are both tables in our database that are represented as objects in my DataContext object. I wrote the following code to call these methods and display the T-SQL generated after calling these methods: using (CodeLookupAccessDataContext codeLookup = new CodeLookupAccessDataContext()) { codeLookup.Log = Console.Out; List<CompositeSIDMap> compList = codeLookup.lookupCompositeSIDMap(5, 3); } I got the following results in my log after invoking this code: SELECT [t0].[CompositeSIDGroup] FROM [dbo].[CompositeSIDGroupMap] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[RegionID] = @p0) AND ([t0].[MarketID] = @p1) -- @p0: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [5] -- @p1: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [3] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.1 SELECT [t0].[PK_CSM], [t0].[CompositeSIDGroup], [t0].[InputSID], [t0].[TargetSID], [t0].[StartOffset], [t0].[EndOffset], [t0].[Scale] FROM [dbo].[CompositeSIDMap] AS [t0] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.1 The first T-SQL statement contains a where clause as specified and returns one column as expected. However, the second statement is missing a where clause and returns all columns, even though I did specify which rows I wanted to view and which columns were of interest. Why is the second T-SQL statement generated the way it is, and what should I do to ensure that I filter out the data according to specifications via the T-SQL? Also note that I would prefer to keep lookupCodeInfo() and especially am interested in keeping it enabled to accept lambda functions for specifying which rows/columns to return.

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  • Table prefix for MySqlMembershipProvider

    - by choudeshell
    I have MySqlMembershipProvider working with Asp.Net MVC. My question is how can I configure the table prefix... so instead of 'my_aspnet_' prefix on the tables, I want this to be either none or defined by me. My web.config: <?xml version="1.0"?> <add name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="server=localhost;user id=root;Password=*********;database=sparkSources" providerName="MySql.Data.MySqlClient"/> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/Account/LogOn" timeout="2880" /> </authentication> <membership defaultProvider="MySqlMembershipProvider"> <providers> <clear/> <add name="MySqlMembershipProvider" type="MySql.Web.Security.MySQLMembershipProvider, MySql.Web, Version=6.3.4.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=c5687fc88969c44d" autogenerateschema="true" tablePrefix="ss" connectionStringName="ApplicationServices" enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresQuestionAndAnswer="false" requiresUniqueEmail="false" passwordFormat="Hashed" maxInvalidPasswordAttempts="5" minRequiredPasswordLength="6" minRequiredNonalphanumericCharacters="0" passwordAttemptWindow="10" passwordStrengthRegularExpression="" applicationName="sparkSources" /> </providers> </membership> <profile> <providers> <clear/> <add name="AspNetSqlProfileProvider" type="System.Web.Profile.SqlProfileProvider" connectionStringName="ApplicationServices" applicationName="/" /> </providers> </profile> <roleManager enabled="false"> <providers> <clear/> <add name="AspNetSqlRoleProvider" type="System.Web.Security.SqlRoleProvider" connectionStringName="ApplicationServices" applicationName="/" /> <add name="AspNetWindowsTokenRoleProvider" type="System.Web.Security.WindowsTokenRoleProvider" applicationName="/" /> </providers> </roleManager> <pages> <namespaces> <add namespace="System.Web.Mvc" /> <add namespace="System.Web.Mvc.Ajax" /> <add namespace="System.Web.Mvc.Html" /> <add namespace="System.Web.Routing" /> </namespaces> </pages>

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  • C++ Beginner - 'friend' functions and << operator overloading: What is the proper way to overload an

    - by Francisco P.
    Hello, everyone! In a project I'm working on, I have a Score class, defined below in score.h. I am trying to overload it so, when a << operation is performed on it, _points + " " + _name is returned. Here's what I tried to do: ostream & Score::operator<< (ostream & os, Score right) { os << right.getPoints() << " " << right.scoreGetName(); return os; } Here are the errors returned: 1>c:\users\francisco\documents\feup\1a2s\prog\projecto3\projecto3\score.h(30) : error C2804: binary 'operator <<' has too many parameters (This error appears 4 times, actually) I managed to get it working by declaring the overload as a friend function: friend ostream & operator<< (ostream & os, Score right); And removing the Score:: from the function declaration in score.cpp (effectively not declaring it as a member). Why does this work, yet the code describe above doesn't? Thanks for your time! Below is the full score.h /////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// // Score.h // Implementation of the Class Score // Created on: 10-Mai-2010 11:43:56 // Original author: Francisco /////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// #ifndef SCORE_H_ #define SCORE_H_ #include <string> #include <iostream> #include <iostream> using std::string; using std::ostream; class Score { public: Score(string name); Score(); virtual ~Score(); void addPoints(int n); string scoreGetName() const; int getPoints() const; void scoreSetName(string name); bool operator>(const Score right) const; ostream & operator<< (ostream & os, Score right); private: string _name; int _points; }; #endif

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  • How to define 'Attached property' as 'SelectedValuePath' in ComboBox?

    - by SpudCZ
    Hi, I have a problem with binding in ComboBox. I'd like to bind ComboBox items to ListView columns and as a selected value return value of attached property defined on the selected column. In example bellow you can see working sample that displays width of selected column. If you try to change SelectedValuePath in ComboBox into (loc:SampleBehavior.SampleValue) you get binding error: BindingExpression path error: '(u:SearchableListView.SearchMemberPath)' property not found on 'object' ''GridViewColumn' <Window x:Class="Problem_Sample1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:loc="clr-namespace:Problem_Sample1" WindowStartupLocation="CenterScreen" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <DockPanel> <ComboBox DockPanel.Dock="Top" x:Name="combobox" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=View.Columns, ElementName=listview}" DisplayMemberPath="Header" SelectedValuePath="Width"> </ComboBox> <StatusBar DockPanel.Dock="Bottom"> <TextBlock> <TextBlock Text="Selected column (value): " /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=SelectedValue, ElementName=combobox}" /> </TextBlock> </StatusBar> <ListView x:Name="listview"> <ListView.View> <GridView> <GridViewColumn Header="Name" Width="101" loc:SampleBehavior.SampleValue="201" /> <GridViewColumn Header="Surname" Width="102" loc:SampleBehavior.SampleValue="202" /> </GridView> </ListView.View> </ListView> </DockPanel> </Window>   SampleBehavior.cs using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; namespace Problem_Sample1 { public static class SampleBehavior { public static readonly DependencyProperty SampleValueProperty = DependencyProperty.RegisterAttached( "SampleValue", typeof (int), typeof (SampleBehavior)); [AttachedPropertyBrowsableForType(typeof(GridViewColumn))] public static int GetSampleValue(GridViewColumn column) { return (int)column.GetValue(SampleValueProperty); } [AttachedPropertyBrowsableForType(typeof(GridViewColumn))] public static void SetSampleValue(GridViewColumn column, int value) { column.SetValue(SampleValueProperty, value); } } }   Thanks for any help or suggestion.

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  • How can I improve the recursion capabilities of my ECMAScript implementation?

    - by ChaosPandion
    After some resent tests I have found my implementation cannot handle very much recursion. Although after I ran a few tests in Firefox I found that this may be more common than I originally thought. I believe the basic problem is that my implementation requires 3 calls to make a function call. The first call is made to a method named Call that makes sure the call is being made to a callable object and gets the value of any arguments that are references. The second call is made to a method named Call which is defined in the ICallable interface. This method creates the new execution context and builds the lambda expression if it has not been created. The final call is made to the lambda that the function object encapsulates. Clearly making a function call is quite heavy but I am sure that with a little bit of tweaking I can make recursion a viable tool when using this implementation. public static object Call(ExecutionContext context, object value, object[] args) { var func = Reference.GetValue(value) as ICallable; if (func == null) { throw new TypeException(); } if (args != null && args.Length > 0) { for (int i = 0; i < args.Length; i++) { args[i] = Reference.GetValue(args[i]); } } var reference = value as Reference; if (reference != null) { if (reference.IsProperty) { return func.Call(reference.Value, args); } else { return func.Call(((EnviromentRecord)reference.Value).ImplicitThisValue(), args); } } return func.Call(Undefined.Value, args); } public object Call(object thisObject, object[] arguments) { var lexicalEnviroment = Scope.NewDeclarativeEnviroment(); var variableEnviroment = Scope.NewDeclarativeEnviroment(); var thisBinding = thisObject ?? Engine.GlobalEnviroment.GlobalObject; var newContext = new ExecutionContext(Engine, lexicalEnviroment, variableEnviroment, thisBinding); Engine.EnterContext(newContext); var result = Function.Value(newContext, arguments); Engine.LeaveContext(); return result; }

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  • whats wrong with this php mysql_real_escape_string

    - by skyhigh
    Hi Atomic Number Latin English Abbreviation * check the variables for content */ /*** a list of filters ***/ $filters = array( 'searchtext' => array( 'filter' => FILTER_CALLBACK, 'options' => 'mysql_real_escape_string'), 'fieldname' => array( 'filter' => FILTER_CALLBACK, 'options' => 'mysql_real_escape_string') ); /*** escape all POST variables ***/ $input = filter_input_array(INPUT_POST, $filters); /*** check the values are not empty ***/ if(empty($input['fieldname']) || empty($input['searchtext'])) { echo 'Invalid search'; } else { /*** mysql hostname ***/ $hostname = 'localhost'; /*** mysql username ***/ $username = 'username'; /*** mysql password ***/ $password = 'password'; /*** mysql database name ***/ $dbname = 'periodic_table'; /*** connect to the database ***/ $link = @mysql_connect($hostname, $username, $password); /*** check if the link is a valid resource ***/ if(is_resource($link)) { /*** select the database we wish to use ***/ if(mysql_select_db($dbname, $link) === TRUE) { /*** sql to SELECT information***/ $sql = sprintf("SELECT * FROM elements WHERE %s = '%s'", $input['fieldname'], $input['searchtext']); /*** echo the sql query ***/ echo '<h3>'.$sql.'</h3>'; /*** run the query ***/ $result = mysql_query($sql); /*** check if the result is a valid resource ***/ if(is_resource($result)) { /*** check if we have more than zero rows ***/ if(mysql_num_rows($result) !== 0) { echo '<table>'; while($row=mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr> <td>'.$row['atomicnumber'].'</td> <td>'.$row['latin'].'</td> <td>'.$row['english'].'</td> <td>'.$row['abbr'].'</td> </tr>'; } echo '</table>'; } else { /*** if zero results are found.. ***/ echo 'Zero results found'; } } else { /*** if the resource is not valid ***/ 'No valid resource found'; } } /*** if we are unable to select the database show an error ****/ else { echo 'Unable to select database '.$dbname; } /*** close the connection ***/ mysql_close($link); } else { /*** if we fail to connect ***/ echo 'Unable to connect'; } } } else { echo 'Please Choose An Element'; } ? I got this code from phppro.org tutorials site and i tried to run it. It gives Warning: mysql_real_escape_string() [function.mysql-real-escape-string]: A link to the server could not be established. .... Warning: mysql_real_escape_string() [function.mysql-real-escape-string]: Access denied for user 'ODBC'@'localhost' (using password: NO).... I went to php.net and look it up "Note: A MySQL connection is required before using mysql_real_escape_string() otherwise an error of level E_WARNING is generated, and FALSE is returned. If link_identifier isn't defined, the last MySQL connection is used." My questions are: 1-why they put single quotation around mysql_real_escape_string ? 2-They should establish a connection first, then use the $filter array statement with mysql_real_escape_string ?

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  • Calling a function that resides in the main page from a plugin?

    - by Justin Lee
    I want to call a function from within plugin, but the function is on the main page and not the plugin's .js file. EDIT I have jQuery parsing a very large XML file and building, subsequently, a large list (1.1 MB HTML file when dynamic content is copied, pasted, then saved) that has expand/collapse functionality through a plugin. The overall performance on IE is super slow and doggy, assuming since the page/DOM is so big. I am currently trying to save the collapsed content in the event.data when it is collapsed and remove it from the DOM, then bring it back when it is told to expand... the issue that I am having is that when I bring the content back, obviously the "click" and "hover" events are gone. I'm trying to re-assign them, currently doing so inside the plugin after the plugin expands the content. The issue then though is that is says the function that I declare within the .click() is not defined. Also the hover event doesn't seem to be re-assigning either.... if ($(event.data.trigger).attr('class').indexOf('collapsed') != -1 ) { // if expanding // console.log(event.data.targetContent); $(event.data.trigger).after(event.data.targetContent); $(event.data.target).hide(); /* This Line --->*/ $(event.data.target + 'a.addButton').click(addResourceToList); $(event.data.target + 'li.resource') .hover( function() { if (!($(this).attr("disabled"))) { $(this).addClass("over"); $(this).find("a").css({'display':'block'}); } }, function () { if (!($(this).attr("disabled"))) { $(this).removeClass("over"); $(this).children("a").css({'display':'none'}); } } ); $(event.data.target).css({ "height": "0px", "padding-top": "0px", "padding-bottom": "0px", "margin-top": "0px", "margin-bottom": "0px"}); $(event.data.target).show(); $(event.data.target).animate({ height: event.data.heightVal + "px", paddingTop: event.data.topPaddingVal + "px", paddingBottom: event.data.bottomPaddingVal + "px", marginTop: event.data.topMarginVal + "px", marginBottom: event.data.bottomMarginVal + "px"}, "normal");//, function(){$(this).hide();}); $(event.data.trigger).removeClass("collapsed"); $.cookies.set('jcollapserSub_' + event.data.target, 'expanded', {hoursToLive: 24 * 365}); } else if ($(event.data.trigger).attr('class').indexOf('collapsed') == -1 ) { // if collapsing $(event.data.target).animate({ height: "0px", paddingTop: "0px", paddingBottom: "0px", marginTop: "0px", marginBottom: "0px"}, "normal", function(){$(this).hide();$(this).remove();}); $(event.data.trigger).addClass("collapsed"); $.cookies.set('jcollapserSub_' + event.data.target, 'collapsed', {hoursToLive: 24 * 365}); } EDIT So, having new eyes truly makes a difference. As I was reviewing the code in this post this morning after being away over the weekend, I found where I had err'd. This: $(event.data.target + 'a.addButton').click(addResourceToList); Should be this (notice the space before a.addbutton): $(event.data.target + ' a.addButton').click(addResourceToList); Same issue with the "li.resource". So it was never pointing to the right elements... Thank you, Rene, for your help!!

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  • mod_rewrite not working for a specific directory

    - by punkish
    This has got me completely foxed for a couple of days now, and I am convinced that I will look stupid once I solve it, but will be even stupider if I don't ask for help now. I have mod_rewrite working successfully on my localhost (no vhosts involved; this is my laptop, my development machine), and I use .htaccess in various directories to help rewrite crufty URLs to clean ones. EXCEPT... it doesn't work in one directory. Since it is impossible to reproduce my entire laptop in this question, I provide the following details. In my httpd.conf, I have mod_rewrite.so loaded. LoadModule rewrite_module modules/mod_rewrite.so In my httpd.conf, I have included another conf file like so Include /usr/local/apache2/conf/other/punkish.conf In my punkish.conf, I have directories defined like so DocumentRoot "/Users/punkish/Sites" <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites"> Options ExecCGI AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/one"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/two"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> In ~/Sites/one I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /one/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, everything works just fine. However, in my directory ~/Sites/two I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /two/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, nothing works. Nada. Zip. Zilch. I just get a 404. I have determined that mod_rewrite is not even looking at my ~/Sites/two/.htaccess by putting spurious commands in it and not getting any error other than 404. Another confounding issue -- I have turned on RewriteLog in my httpd.conf with RewriteLogLevel 3, but my rewrite_log is completely empty. I know this is hard to trouble shoot unless sitting physically at the computer in question, but I hope someone can give me some indication as to what is going on. **Update: ** There are no aliases involved anywhere. This is my laptop, and everything is under the above stated Document Root, so I just access each directory as http://localhost/. Yes, typos are a big possibility (I did say that I will look stupid once I solve it, however, for now, I have not discovered a single typo anywhere, and yes, I have restarted Apache about a dozen times now. I even thought that perhaps I had two different Apaches running, but no, I have only one, the one under /usr/local/apache2, and I installed it myself a while back.

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