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• Linux, GNU GCC, ld, version scripts and the ELF binary format -- How does it work??

  - by themoondothshine

  Hey all, I'm trying to learn more about library versioning in Linux and how to put it all to work. Here's the context: -- I have two versions of a dynamic library which expose the same set of interfaces, say libsome1.so and libsome2.so. -- An application is linked against libsome1.so. -- This application uses libdl.so to dynamically load another module, say libmagic.so. -- Now libmagic.so is linked against libsome2.so. Obviously, without using linker scripts to hide symbols in libmagic.so, at run-time all calls to interfaces in libsome2.so are resolved to libsome1.so. This can be confirmed by checking the value returned by libVersion() against the value of the macro LIB_VERSION. -- So I try next to compile and link libmagic.so with a linker script which hides all symbols except 3 which are defined in libmagic.so and are exported by it. This works... Or at least libVersion() and LIB_VERSION values match (and it reports version 2 not 1). -- However, when some data structures are serialized to disk, I noticed some corruption. In the application's directory if I delete libsome1.so and create a soft link in its place to point to libsome2.so, everything works as expected and the same corruption does not happen. I can't help but think that this may be caused due to some conflict in the run-time linker's resolution of symbols. I've tried many things, like trying to link libsome2.so so that all symbols are alised to symbol@@VER_2 (which I am still confused about because the command nm -CD libsome2.so still lists symbols as symbol and not symbol@@VER_2)... Nothing seems to work!!! Help!!!!!! Edit: I should have mentioned it earlier, but the app in question is Firefox, and libsome1.so is libsqlite3.so shipped with it. I don't quite have the option of recompiling them. Also, using version scripts to hide symbols seems to be the only solution right now. So what really happens when symbols are hidden? Do they become 'local' to the SO? Does rtld have no knowledge of their existence? What happens when an exported function refers to a hidden symbol?

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• Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

  - by Corey Henderson

  I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

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• I want to set the AutoCompleteMode property in ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl subroutine

  - by Ranjan Gupta

  Hi, I am creating a DataGridView Column. and it is working well. now I want to customise this column with AutoCompleteMode, and AutoCompleteSource properties to show the customised data. I made the properties for this columns, and these are also working well. but these properties are not working in the "ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl" subroutine. Please help me to use these column properties in the "ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl" subroutine. Public Class DataGridViewDataValueColumn Inherits DataGridViewColumn Dim m_AutoCompleteMode As AutoCompleteMode, _ m_AutoCompleteSource As AutoCompleteSource, _ m_AutoCompleteStringCollection As AutoCompleteStringCollection Public Sub New() MyBase.New(New DataValueCell()) End Sub Public Overrides Property CellTemplate() As DataGridViewCell Get Return MyBase.CellTemplate End Get Set(ByVal value As DataGridViewCell) ' Ensure that the cell used for the template is a DataValueCell. If (value IsNot Nothing) AndAlso _ Not value.GetType().IsAssignableFrom(GetType(DataValueCell)) _ Then Throw New InvalidCastException("Must be a DataValueCell") End If MyBase.CellTemplate = value End Set End Property Region "User Defined Properties" '&*--------------------------------------*&' <Description("Indicates the text completion behaviour of the combo box."), DefaultValue(AutoCompleteMode.None)> _ Public Property AutoCompleteMode() As AutoCompleteMode Get Return m_AutoCompleteMode End Get Set(ByVal value As AutoCompleteMode) m_AutoCompleteMode = value End Set End Property <Description("The source of complete strings used to automatic completion."), DefaultValue(AutoCompleteSource.None)> _ Public Property AutoCompleteSource() As AutoCompleteSource Get Return m_AutoCompleteSource End Get Set(ByVal value As AutoCompleteSource) m_AutoCompleteSource = value End Set End Property <Description("The autocomplete custom source.")> _ Public Property AutoCompleteCustomSource() As AutoCompleteStringCollection Get Return m_AutoCompleteStringCollection End Get Set(ByVal value As AutoCompleteStringCollection) m_AutoCompleteStringCollection = value End Set End Property End Region End Class '&*--------------------------------------*&' Class DataValueCell Inherits DataGridViewTextBoxCell Public Sub New() ' End Sub Public Overrides ReadOnly Property EditType As Type Get Return GetType(PCLDataGridViewTextBoxEditingControl) End Get End Property End Class '&*--------------------------------------*&' '&* Edit DataGridView Columns *&' '&*--------------------------------------*&' Class PCLDataGridViewTextBoxEditingControl Inherits DataGridViewTextBoxEditingControl Public Overrides Function EditingControlWantsInputKey(ByVal keyData As Keys, ByVal dataGridViewWantsInputKey As Boolean) As Boolean Select Case ((keyData And Keys.KeyCode)) Case Keys.Prior, Keys.Next, Keys.End, Keys.Home, Keys.Left, Keys.Up, Keys.Right, Keys.Down, Keys.Delete Return True End Select Return MyBase.EditingControlWantsInputKey(keyData, dataGridViewWantsInputKey) End Function Public Overrides Sub ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl(ByVal dataGridViewCellStyle As DataGridViewCellStyle) With DirectCast(Me, TextBox) '.AutoCompleteMode = DataGridViewDataValueColumn.AutoCompleteMode_Value '.AutoCompleteSource = DataGridViewDataValueColumn.AutoCompleteSource_Value '.AutoCompleteCustomSource = MyBase.AutoCompleteCustomSource End With End Sub End Class

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• Wordpress pages address rewrite

  - by kemp

  UPDATE I tried using the internal wordpress rewrite. What I have to do is an address like this: http://example.com/galleria/artist-name sent to the gallery.php page with a variable containing the artist-name. I used these rules as per Wordpress' documentation: // REWRITE RULES (per gallery) {{{ add_filter('rewrite_rules_array','wp_insertMyRewriteRules'); add_filter('query_vars','wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars'); add_filter('init','flushRules'); // Remember to flush_rules() when adding rules function flushRules(){ global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } // Adding a new rule function wp_insertMyRewriteRules($rules) { $newrules = array(); $newrules['(galleria)/(.*)$'] = 'index.php?pagename=gallery&galleryname=$matches[2]'; return $newrules + $rules; } // Adding the id var so that WP recognizes it function wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars($vars) { array_push($vars, 'galleryname'); return $vars; } what's weird now is that on my local wordpress test install, that works fine: the gallery page is called and the galleryname variable is passed. On the real site, on the other hand, the initial URL is accepted (as in it doesn't go into a 404) BUT it changes to http://example.com/gallery (I mean it actually changes in the browser's address bar) and the variable is not defined in gallery.php. Any idea what could possibly cause this different behavior? Alternatively, any other way I couldn't think of which could achieve the same effect described in the first three lines is perfectly fine. Old question What I need to do is rewriting this address: (1) http://localhost/wordpress/fake/text-value to (2) http://localhost/wordpress/gallery?somevar=text-value Notes: the remapping must be transparent: the user always has to see address (1) gallery is a permalink to a wordpress page, not a real address I basically need to rewrite the address first (to modify it) and then feed it back to mod rewrite again (to let wordpress parse it its own way). Problems if I simply do RewriteRule ^fake$ http://localhost/wordpress/gallery [L] it works but the address in the browser changes, which is no good, if I do RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [L] I get a 404. I tried different flags instead of [L] but to no avail. How can I get this to work? EDIT: full .htaccess # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [R] RewriteBase /wordpress/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /wordpress/index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress

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• How do I code a loop for my echo statements?

  - by ggg

  <?php defined('_JEXEC') or die('Restricted access'); $db =& JFactory::getDBO(); $query0 = "SELECT * FROM `#__chesspositions` WHERE . . . . ."; //echo $query0; $db->setQuery($query0); $ginfo = $db->loadObjectList(); //echo $ginfo[0]; echo $db->getErrorMsg(); if(empty($ginfo)){ echo "<center><h2 style='color:navy'>No game found, we apologize</h2></center>"; }else{ $query1= "SELECT * FROM `#__chessmoves` WHERE Id='".$ginfo[0]->MoveDataId."'"; $db->setQuery($query1); echo $db->getErrorMsg(); $gmove = $db->loadObjectList(); } //define array; //how do I code a foreach loop (or any other type of loop) here? //I'm having trouble properly defining the array and structuring the syntax. echo "[Event \"".$ginfo[0]->Event."\"]\n"; echo "[Site \"".$ginfo[0]->Site."\"]\n"; echo "[Date \"".$ginfo[0]->Date."\"]\n"; echo "[Round \"".$ginfo[0]->Round."\"]\n"; echo "[White \"".$ginfo[0]->White."\"]\n"; echo "[Black \"".$ginfo[0]->Black."\"]\n"; echo "[Result \"".$ginfo[0]->Result."\"]\n"; echo "[ECO \"".$ginfo[0]->ECO."\"]\n"; echo "[WhiteElo \"".$ginfo[0]->WhiteElo."\"]\n"; echo "[BlackElo \"".$ginfo[0]->BlackElo."\"]\n"; echo "[Annotator \"".$ginfo[0]->Annotator."\"]\n"; echo "[SetUp \"".$ginfo[0]->SetUp."\"]\n"; echo $gmove[0]->MoveData; ?>

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• LINQ Except operator and object equality

  - by Abhijeet Patel

  Here is an interesting issue I noticed when using the Except Operator: I have list of users from which I want to exclude some users: The list of users is coming from an XML file: The code goes like this: interface IUser { int ID { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } class User: IUser { #region IUser Members public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } #endregion public override string ToString() { return ID + ":" +Name; } public static IEnumerable<IUser> GetMatchingUsers(IEnumerable<IUser> users) { IEnumerable<IUser> localList = new List<User> { new User{ ID=4, Name="James"}, new User{ ID=5, Name="Tom"} }.OfType<IUser>(); var matches = from u in users join lu in localList on u.ID equals lu.ID select u; return matches; } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { XDocument doc = XDocument.Load("Users.xml"); IEnumerable<IUser> users = doc.Element("Users").Elements("User").Select (u => new User { ID = (int)u.Attribute("id"), Name = (string)u.Attribute("name") } ).OfType<IUser>(); //still a query, objects have not been materialized var matches = User.GetMatchingUsers(users); var excludes = users.Except(matches); // excludes should contain 6 users but here it contains 8 users } } When I call User.GetMatchingUsers(users) I get 2 matches as expected. The issue is that when I call users.Except(matches) The matching users are not being excluded at all! I am expecting 6 users ut "excludes" contains all 8 users instead. Since all I'm doing in GetMatchingUsers(IEnumerable users) is taking the IEnumerable and just returning the IUsers whose ID's match( 2 IUsers in this case), my understanding is that by default "Except" will use reference equality for comparing the objects to be excluded. Is this not how "Except" behaves? What is even more interesting is that if I materialize the objects using .ToList() and then get the matching users, and call "Except", everything works as expected! Like so: IEnumerable users = doc.Element("Users").Elements("User").Select (u = new User { ID = (int)u.Attribute("id"), Name = (string)u.Attribute("name") } ).OfType().ToList(); //explicity materializing all objects by calling ToList() var matches = User.GetMatchingUsers(users); var excludes = users.Except(matches); // excludes now contains 6 users as expected I don't see why I should need to materialize objects for calling "Except" given that its defined on IEnumerable? Any suggesstions / insights would be much appreciated.

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• Making Global Struct in C++ Program

  - by mosg

  Hello world! I am trying to make global structure, which will be seen from any part of the source code. I need it for my big Qt project, where some global variables needed. Here it is: 3 files (global.h, dialog.h & main.cpp). For compilation I use Visual Studio (Visual C++). global.h #ifndef GLOBAL_H_ #define GLOBAL_H_ typedef struct TNumber { int g_nNumber; } TNum; TNum Num; #endif dialog.h #ifndef DIALOG_H_ #define DIALOG_H_ #include <iostream> #include "global.h" using namespace std; class ClassB { public: ClassB() {}; void showNumber() { Num.g_nNumber = 82; cout << "[ClassB][Change Number]: " << Num.g_nNumber << endl; } }; #endif and main.cpp #include <iostream> #include "global.h" #include "dialog.h" using namespace std; class ClassA { public: ClassA() { cout << "Hello from class A!\n"; }; void showNumber() { cout << "[ClassA]: " << Num.g_nNumber << endl; } }; int main(int argc, char **argv) { ClassA ca; ClassB cb; ca.showNumber(); cb.showNumber(); ca.showNumber(); cout << "Exit.\n"; return 0; } When I`m trying to build this little application, compilation works fine, but the linker gives me back an error: 1>dialog.obj : error LNK2005: "struct TNumber Num" (?Num@@3UTNumber@@A) already defined in main.obj Is there exists any solution? Thanks.

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• Why does WebSharingAppDemo-CEProviderEndToEnd sample still need a client db connection after scope c

  - by Don

  I'm researching a way to build an n-tierd sync solution. From the WebSharingAppDemo-CEProviderEndToEnd sample it seems almost feasable however for some reason, the app will only sync if the client has a live SQL db connection. Can some one explain what I'm missing and how to sync without exposing SQL to the internet? The problem I'm experiencing is that when I provide a Relational sync provider that has an open SQL connection from the client, then it works fine but when I provide a Relational sync provider that has a closed but configured connection string, as in the example, I get an error from the WCF stating that the server did not receive the batch file. So what am I doing wrong? SqlConnectionStringBuilder builder = new SqlConnectionStringBuilder(); builder.DataSource = hostName; builder.IntegratedSecurity = true; builder.InitialCatalog = "mydbname"; builder.ConnectTimeout = 1; provider.Connection = new SqlConnection(builder.ToString()); // provider.Connection.Open(); **** un-commenting this causes the code to work** //create anew scope description and add the appropriate tables to this scope DbSyncScopeDescription scopeDesc = new DbSyncScopeDescription(SyncUtils.ScopeName); //class to be used to provision the scope defined above SqlSyncScopeProvisioning serverConfig = new SqlSyncScopeProvisioning(); .... The error I get occurs in this part of the WCF code: public SyncSessionStatistics ApplyChanges(ConflictResolutionPolicy resolutionPolicy, ChangeBatch sourceChanges, object changeData) { Log("ProcessChangeBatch: {0}", this.peerProvider.Connection.ConnectionString); DbSyncContext dataRetriever = changeData as DbSyncContext; if (dataRetriever != null && dataRetriever.IsDataBatched) { string remotePeerId = dataRetriever.MadeWithKnowledge.ReplicaId.ToString(); //Data is batched. The client should have uploaded this file to us prior to calling ApplyChanges. //So look for it. //The Id would be the DbSyncContext.BatchFileName which is just the batch file name without the complete path string localBatchFileName = null; if (!this.batchIdToFileMapper.TryGetValue(dataRetriever.BatchFileName, out localBatchFileName)) { //Service has not received this file. Throw exception throw new FaultException<WebSyncFaultException>(new WebSyncFaultException("No batch file uploaded for id " + dataRetriever.BatchFileName, null)); } dataRetriever.BatchFileName = localBatchFileName; } Any ideas?

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• Class template specializations with shared functionality

  - by Thomas

  I'm writing a simple maths library with a template vector type: template<typename T, size_t N> class Vector { public: Vector<T, N> &operator+=(Vector<T, N> const &other); // ... more operators, functions ... }; Now I want some additional functionality specifically for some of these. Let's say I want functions x() and y() on Vector<T, 2> to access particular coordinates. I could create a partial specialization for this: template<typename T> class Vector<T, 3> { public: Vector<T, 3> &operator+=(Vector<T, 3> const &other); // ... and again all the operators and functions ... T x() const; T y() const; }; But now I'm repeating everything that already existed in the generic template. I could also use inheritance. Renaming the generic template to VectorBase, I could do this: template<typename T, size_t N> class Vector : public VectorBase<T, N> { }; template<typename T> class Vector<T, 3> : public VectorBase<T, 3> { public: T x() const; T y() const; }; However, now the problem is that all operators are defined on VectorBase, so they return VectorBase instances. These cannot be assigned to Vector variables: Vector<float, 3> v; Vector<float, 3> w; w = 5 * v; // error: no conversion from VectorBase<float, 3> to Vector<float, 3> I could give Vector an implicit conversion constructor to make this possible: template<typename T, size_t N> class Vector : public VectorBase<T, N> { public: Vector(VectorBase<T, N> const &other); }; However, now I'm converting from Vector to VectorBase and back again. Even though the types are the same in memory, and the compiler might optimize all this away, it feels clunky and I don't really like to have potential run-time overhead for what is essentially a compile-time problem. Is there any other way to solve this?

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• get renamed file names of multiple upload form [js array] in codeigniter

  - by artmania

  Hi friends, I use codeigniter. I have a multiple image upload form. The code below is working well for uploading, but I also need to save file names to database. How can I get the names in here? I spent hours & hours :/ but could not sort it :/ Appreciate helps!!! uploadform.php echo form_open_multipart('gallery/upload'); <input type="file" name="photo" size="50" /> <input type="file" name="thumb" size="50" /> <input type="submit" value="Upload" /> </form> I have a controller between form view and model load model (of course : )) but didnt post here because of no need. gallery_model.php function multiple_upload($upload_dir = 'uploads/', $config = array()) { /* Upload */ $CI =& get_instance(); $files = array(); if(empty($config)) { $config['upload_path'] = realpath($upload_dir); $config['allowed_types'] = 'gif|jpg|jpeg|jpe|png'; $config['max_size'] = '2048'; } $CI->load->library('upload', $config); $errors = FALSE; foreach($_FILES as $key => $value) { if( ! empty($value['name'])) { if( ! $CI->upload->do_upload($key)) { $data['upload_message'] = $CI->upload->display_errors(ERR_OPEN, ERR_CLOSE); // ERR_OPEN and ERR_CLOSE are error delimiters defined in a config file $CI->load->vars($data); $errors = TRUE; } else { // Build a file array from all uploaded files $files[] = $CI->upload->data(); } } } // There was errors, we have to delete the uploaded files if($errors) { foreach($files as $key => $file) { @unlink($file['full_path']); } } elseif(empty($files) AND empty($data['upload_message'])) { $CI->lang->load('upload'); $data['upload_message'] = ERR_OPEN.$CI->lang->line('upload_no_file_selected').ERR_CLOSE; $CI->load->vars($data); } else { return $files; } /* ------------------------------- Insert to database */ // problem is here, i need file names to add db. // if there is already same names file at the folder, it rename file itself. so in such case, I need renamed file name :/ } }

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• Across process marhalling problem with an array of points

  - by ElMagn

  Hi All, We have what we think is a marshalling problem with a renderer object when called across process boundaries. The renderer is an ATL COM server with a COM object that implements the IPoints interface defined below: typedef [uuid(B0E01719-005A-427c-B9DD-B42A18E969AE)] struct Point { double X; double Y; } Point; [ object, uuid(3BFECFE3-B4FB-4f14-8257-6E065D02E3B3), helpstring("IPoints Interface"), dual, ] interface IPoints : IDispatch { HRESULT DrawPolyLine([in] long hDC, [in] short count, [in, size_is(count)] Point * points ); // many more like DrawLine } The count parameter represents the number of points and the points parameter represents an array of the actual points. We have two process running, a graphical display process (GDP) and a tabular (grid) display process (TDP). A factory in the GDP, written in C#, creates the renderer and the clients of the renderer in the GDP. When the clients call into the renderer, everything displays correctly. The renderer is created at start up BTW. There is another factory in the TDP, written in VB6, that calls into the factory in the GDP to create the clients. When the clients call into the renderer, only the first point in the array is marshaled correctly, all the other points are garbage. Seems that the rendering works only when the client creation is started from the same process as the renderer. Now, i am not sure what the solution to this problem is. It seems that if we can guarantee that the clients are always created from a thread in the same GDP process as the renderer then the points are marshaled correctly. We tried using a background thread from the Thread Pool in C# and it indeed worked. The problem is that Windows Forms created from the clients stopped working because accessing the form's controls from a thread other than the thread that created the control is not allowed. We might change the calls to access the forms but we have quite a few of them and are trying to look into a different solution that might involve making changes to the renderer. The other problem is that the renderer is legacy code and we can't just change the interface. I am wondering what can we do to the renderer's interface that would help with marshalling from across process calls. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated. Regards, ElMagn

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• asp:Button is not calling server-side function

  - by Richard Neil Ilagan

  Hi guys, I know that there has been much discussion here about this topic, but none of the threads I got across helped me solve this problem. I'm hoping that mine is somewhat unique, and may actually merit a different solution. I'm instantiating an asp:Button inside a data-bound asp:GridView through template fields. Some of the buttons are supposed to call a server-side function, but for some weird reason, it doesn't. All the buttons do when you click them is fire a postback to the current page, doing nothing, effectively just reloading the page. Below is a fragment of the code: <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" CssClass="l2 submissions" ShowHeader="false"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate><asp:Panel ID="swatchpanel" CssClass='<%# Bind("status") %>' runat="server"></asp:Panel></ItemTemplate> <ItemStyle Width="50px" CssClass="sw" /> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="description" ReadOnly="true"> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="owner" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Font-Italic="true" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="last-modified" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Width="100px" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Button ID="viewBtn" cssclass='<%# Bind("sid") %>' runat="server" Text="View" OnClick="viewBtnClick" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> The viewBtn above should call the viewBtnClick() function on server-side. I do have that function defined, along with a proper signature (object,EventArgs). One thing that may be of note is that this code is actually inside an ASCX, which is loaded in another ASCX, finally loaded into an ASPX. Any help or insight into the matter will be SO appreciated. Thanks! (oh, and please don't mind my trashy HTML/CSS semantics - this is still in a very,very early stage :p)

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• Javascript self contained sandbox events and client side stack

  - by amnon

  I'm in the process of moving a JSF heavy web application to a REST and mainly JS module application . I've watched "scalable javascript application architecture" by Nicholas Zakas on yui theater (excellent video) and implemented much of the talk with good success but i have some questions : I found the lecture a little confusing in regards to the relationship between modules and sandboxes , on one had to my understanding modules should not be effected by something happening outside of their sandbox and this is why they publish events via the sandbox (and not via the core as they do access the core for hiding base libary) but each module in the application gets a new sandbox ? , shouldn't the sandbox limit events to the modoules using it ? or should events be published cross page ? e.g. : if i have two editable tables but i want to contain each one in a different sandbox and it's events effect only the modules inside that sandbox something like messabe box per table which is a different module/widget how can i do that with sandbox per module , ofcourse i can prefix the events with the moduleid but that creates coupling that i want to avoid ... and i don't want to package modules toghter as one module per combination as i already have 6-7 modules ? while i can hide the base library for small things like id selector etc.. i would still like to use the base library for module dependencies and resource loading and use something like yui loader or dojo.require so in fact i'm hiding the base library but the modules themself are defined and loaded by the base library ... seems a little strange to me libraries don't return simple js objects but usualy wrap them e.g. : u can do something like $$('.classname').each(.. which cleans the code alot , it makes no sense to wrap the base and then in the module create a dependency for the base library by executing .each but not using those features makes a lot of code written which can be left out ... and implemnting that functionality is very bug prone does anyonen have any experience with building a front side stack of this order ? how easy is it to change a base library and/or have modules from different libraries , using yui datatable but doing form validation with dojo ... ? some what of a combination of 2+4 if u choose to do something like i said and load dojo form validation widgets for inputs via yui loader would that mean dojocore is a module and the form module is dependant on it ? Thanks .

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• [CakePHP] I am so confused. What should I write in the default.ctp

  - by kwokwai

  Hi all, I am learning cakePHP, everything seems alright except that I am very confused of how to make use of the default.ctp and what should be put inside the Elements folder. Here is the default.ctp file that I have been using since my very first lesson on learning cakePHP: (I copied from this URL http://book.cakephp.org/view/96/Layouts) <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title><?php echo $title_for_layout?></title> <link rel="shortcut icon" href="favicon.ico" type="image/x-icon"> <!-- Include external files and scripts here (See HTML helper for more info.) --> <?php echo $scripts_for_layout ?> </head> <body> <!-- If you'd like some sort of menu to show up on all of your views, include it here --> <div id="header"> <div id="menu">...</div> </div> <!-- Here's where I want my views to be displayed --> <?php echo $content_for_layout ?> <!-- Add a footer to each displayed page --> <div id="footer">...</div> </body> </html> But the problem is that the layout will take effect to all web pages that I have created. Let's see the case that I have recently encountered. In one of the .ctp files, I need to use JQuery function and I need to ass some and tags in the .ctp file. Here are the and tags I used: <Script language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { // some functions here }); </Script> <style type="text/css"> { #toppage{ width:800px; } But when I followed the default.ctp file, I noticed that these tags (i.e. and ) happened to appear below the tag. As far as I know, the and self-defined Javascript functions should be put inside the tag of the HTML instead. I have considered to add the and in the default.ctp file, but then these codes would appear in every web pages instead of just a particular web page. Please help.

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• mod_rewrite not working for a specific directory

  - by punkish

  This has got me completely foxed for a couple of days now, and I am convinced that I will look stupid once I solve it, but will be even stupider if I don't ask for help now. I have mod_rewrite working successfully on my localhost (no vhosts involved; this is my laptop, my development machine), and I use .htaccess in various directories to help rewrite crufty URLs to clean ones. EXCEPT... it doesn't work in one directory. Since it is impossible to reproduce my entire laptop in this question, I provide the following details. In my httpd.conf, I have mod_rewrite.so loaded. LoadModule rewrite_module modules/mod_rewrite.so In my httpd.conf, I have included another conf file like so Include /usr/local/apache2/conf/other/punkish.conf In my punkish.conf, I have directories defined like so DocumentRoot "/Users/punkish/Sites" <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites"> Options ExecCGI AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/one"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/two"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> In ~/Sites/one I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /one/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, everything works just fine. However, in my directory ~/Sites/two I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /two/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, nothing works. Nada. Zip. Zilch. I just get a 404. I have determined that mod_rewrite is not even looking at my ~/Sites/two/.htaccess by putting spurious commands in it and not getting any error other than 404. Another confounding issue -- I have turned on RewriteLog in my httpd.conf with RewriteLogLevel 3, but my rewrite_log is completely empty. I know this is hard to trouble shoot unless sitting physically at the computer in question, but I hope someone can give me some indication as to what is going on. **Update: ** There are no aliases involved anywhere. This is my laptop, and everything is under the above stated Document Root, so I just access each directory as http://localhost/. Yes, typos are a big possibility (I did say that I will look stupid once I solve it, however, for now, I have not discovered a single typo anywhere, and yes, I have restarted Apache about a dozen times now. I even thought that perhaps I had two different Apaches running, but no, I have only one, the one under /usr/local/apache2, and I installed it myself a while back.

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• Urgent help needed on How to update NSMutableDictionary. My code doesn't work.

  - by dawatson833

  I've populated an array using. arrSettings = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:[self settingsPath]]; The file is a plist with the root as an array and then a dictionary with three three keys defined as number. I've also tried setting the keys to string. I display the values in the plist file on a view using. diaper = [[arrSettings objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Diaper Expenses"]; oil = [[arrSettings objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Oil Used"]; tree = [[arrSettings objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Wood Used"]; This code works fine, the values in the dictionary are assigned to the variables and they are displayed. The user can make changes and then press a save button. I use this code to extract the dictionary part of the array so I can update it. The assignment to editDictionary works. I've double checked the key names including case and that is correct. editDictionary = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; editDictionary = [arrSettings objectAtIndex:0]; NSNumber *myNumber = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:diaperAmount]; [editDictionary setValue:myNumber forKey:@"Diaper Expenses"]; myNumber = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:oilAmount]; [editDictionary setValue:myNumber forKey:@"Oil Used"]; myNumber = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:treeAmount]; [editDictionary setValue:myNumber forKey:@"Wood Used"]; In this example I've used a nsnumber. But I've also tried the xxxAmount field as part of SetValue instead of creating a NSNumber. Neither implementation works. Several strange things happen. Sometimes the first two setvalue statements work, but the last setvalue fails with a EXC_BAD_ACCESS failure. Other times the first setValue fails with the same error. I have no idea why the first two sometimes work. I'm at a loss of what to do next. I've tried several implentations and none of them work. Also, in the debugger how can I display the editDictionary elements. I can see editDictionary, but I don't know how to display the individual elements.

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• PHP - error when insert date into MySQL

  - by Michael Mao

  Hello everyone: I've got a typical problem when trying to insert a date into MySQL. The column defined in MySQL is of type DATE. My PHP version is 5.3.0 Apart from this date-related issue, the rest of my code works just fine. And this is my PHP script to do this: $tablename = BOOKS_TABLE; $insert = mysql_query("INSERT INTO $tablename (barcode, book_name, volume_num,". " author, publisher, item_type, buy_price, buy_date) VALUES ". "(". "'" . $barcode . "', ". "'" . $bookname . "', ". "'" . $volumenum . "', ". "'" . $author . "', ". "'" . $publisher . "', ". "'" . $itemtype . "', ". "'" . $buyprice . "', ". "'" . getMySQLDateString($buydate). //"'STR_TO_DATE('".$buydate ."', '%d/%m/%Y'))'". //nothing changes in MySQL ")"); And this is the faulty function : function getMySQLDateString($buydate) //typical buydate : 04/21/2009 { $mysqlDateString = date('Y-m-d H:i:s', $strtotime($buydate)); return $mysqlDateString; } The first commented out line wouldn't do anything, the script is executed with no error, however, there is nothing changed in datebase after this. The current approach will cause a Fatal error saying function name must be a string in this line. Actually I followed this thread on SO, but just cannot pass the date into MySQL... Can anyone help me figure out which part is not right? How would you do it, in this case, to get it right? Sorry about such a journeyman-like question, thanks a lot in advance.

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• Delphi - Read File To StringList, then delete and write back to file.

  - by Jkraw90

  I'm currently working on a program to generate the hashes of files, in Delphi 2010. As part of this I have a option to create User Presets, e.g. pre-defined choice of hashing algo's which the user can create/save/delete. I have the create and load code working fine. It uses a ComboBox and loads from a file "fhpre.ini", inside this file is the users presets stored in format of:- PresetName PresetCode (a 12 digit string using 0 for don't hash and 1 for do) On application loading it loads the data from this file into the ComboBox and an Array with the ItemIndex of ComboBox matching the corrisponding correct string of 0's and 1's in the Array. Now I need to implement a feature to have the user delete a preset from the list. So far my code is as follows, procedure TForm1.Panel23Click(Sender : TObject); var fil : textfile; contents : TStringList; x,i : integer; filline : ansistring; filestream : TFileStream; begin //Start Procedure //Load data into StringList contents := TStringList.Create; fileStream := TFileStream.Create((GetAppData+'\RFA\fhpre.ini'), fmShareDenyNone); Contents.LoadFromStream(fileStream); fileStream.Destroy(); //Search for relevant Preset i := 0; if ComboBox4.Text <> Contents[i] then begin Repeat i := i + 1; Until ComboBox4.Text = Contents[i]; end; contents.Delete(i); //Delete Relevant Preset Name contents.Delete(i); //Delete Preset Digit String //Write StringList back to file. AssignFile(fil,(GetAppData+'\RFA\fhpre.ini')); ReWrite(fil); for i := 0 to Contents.Count -1 do WriteLn(Contents[i]); CloseFile(fil); Contents.Free; end; However if this is run, I get a 105 error when it gets to the WriteLn section. I'm aware that the code isn't great, for example doesn't have checks for presets with same name, but that will come, I want to get the base code working first then can tweak and add extra checks etc. Any help would be appreciated.

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• How to define 'Attached property' as 'SelectedValuePath' in ComboBox?

  - by SpudCZ

  Hi, I have a problem with binding in ComboBox. I'd like to bind ComboBox items to ListView columns and as a selected value return value of attached property defined on the selected column. In example bellow you can see working sample that displays width of selected column. If you try to change SelectedValuePath in ComboBox into (loc:SampleBehavior.SampleValue) you get binding error: BindingExpression path error: '(u:SearchableListView.SearchMemberPath)' property not found on 'object' ''GridViewColumn' <Window x:Class="Problem_Sample1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:loc="clr-namespace:Problem_Sample1" WindowStartupLocation="CenterScreen" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <DockPanel> <ComboBox DockPanel.Dock="Top" x:Name="combobox" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=View.Columns, ElementName=listview}" DisplayMemberPath="Header" SelectedValuePath="Width"> </ComboBox> <StatusBar DockPanel.Dock="Bottom"> <TextBlock> <TextBlock Text="Selected column (value): " /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=SelectedValue, ElementName=combobox}" /> </TextBlock> </StatusBar> <ListView x:Name="listview"> <ListView.View> <GridView> <GridViewColumn Header="Name" Width="101" loc:SampleBehavior.SampleValue="201" /> <GridViewColumn Header="Surname" Width="102" loc:SampleBehavior.SampleValue="202" /> </GridView> </ListView.View> </ListView> </DockPanel> </Window>   SampleBehavior.cs using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; namespace Problem_Sample1 { public static class SampleBehavior { public static readonly DependencyProperty SampleValueProperty = DependencyProperty.RegisterAttached( "SampleValue", typeof (int), typeof (SampleBehavior)); [AttachedPropertyBrowsableForType(typeof(GridViewColumn))] public static int GetSampleValue(GridViewColumn column) { return (int)column.GetValue(SampleValueProperty); } [AttachedPropertyBrowsableForType(typeof(GridViewColumn))] public static void SetSampleValue(GridViewColumn column, int value) { column.SetValue(SampleValueProperty, value); } } }   Thanks for any help or suggestion.

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• Which MS technologies would be suited for a data intensive application?

  - by steve.tse

  I'm a junior VB.net developer with little application design knowledge. I've been reading a lot of material online regarding different design patterns, frameworks, and methodologies. It's become a bit confusing for me. Right now I'm trying to decide on what language would be best suited to convert an existing VB6 application (with SQL server backend.) I need to update the UI and add more user functionality and reporting capabilities. Initially I was thinking of using WPF and attempting the MVVM model for this big project. Reports would be generated from SSRS. A peer suggested using ASP.net and I don't have enough experience to determine what would be better. The senior programmers here are stuck on using VB6 and don't have any input on what to use. They are encouraging me to use the latest technologies. This application would be for ~20 users in a central location. Ideally I would stick to a Microsoft .net language. Current interface is similar to a datagrid table where the user would click in to see the detail of each record. They would need to have multiple records open at any given time. I look forward to all the advice I can get. EDIT 2010/04/22 2:47 PM EST What is your audience? Internal clients within an intranet How complex are the interactions you expect to implement? not very... displaying data from SQL server to UI. Allow user updates to said data. Typically just one user modifying a record. Do you require near real-time data updates? no How often do you expect to update the application after the first release? twice/year Do you expect a well-defined set of client platforms? Yes, windows xp environment, potentially upgrading to Win7. Currently in IE.6 moving to IE7 or 8 within a couple of months. Do users need access from anywhere? No, just from their PC.

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• C++ segmentation error when first parameter is null in comparison operator overload

  - by user1774515

  I am writing a class called Word, that handles a c string and overloads the <, , <=, = operators. word.h: friend bool operator<(const Word &a, const Word &b); word.cc: bool operator<(const Word &a, const Word &b) { if(a == NULL && b == NULL) return false; if(a == NULL) return true; if(b == NULL) return false; return a.wd < b.wd; //wd is a valid c string } main: char* temp = NULL; //EDIT: i was mistaken, temp is a char pointer Word a("blah"); //a.wd = [b,l,a,h] cout << (temp<a); i get a segmentation error before the first line of the operator< method after the last line in the main. I can correct the problem by writing cout << (a>temp); where the operator> is similarly defined and i get no errors. but my assignment requires (temp < a) to work so this is where i ask for help. EDIT: i made a mistake the first time and i said temp was of type Word, but it is actually of type char*. so i assume that the compiler converts temp to a Word using one of my constructors. i dont know which one it would use and why this would work since the first parameter is not Word. here is the constructor i think is being used to make the Word using temp: Word::Word(char* c, char* delimeters=NULL) { char *temporary = "\0"; if(c == NULL) c = temporary; check(stoppers!=NULL, "(Word(char*,char*))NULL pointer"); //exits the program if the expression is false if(strlen(c) == 0) size = DEFAULT_SIZE; //10 else size = strlen(c) + 1 + DEFAULT_SIZE; wd = new char[size]; check(wd!=NULL, "Word(char*,char*))heap overflow"); delimiters = new char[strlen(stoppers) + 1]; //EDIT: changed to [] check(delimiters!=NULL,"Word(char*,char*))heap overflow"); strcpy(wd,c); strcpy(delimiters,stoppers); count = strlen(wd); } wd is of type char* thanks for looking at this big question and trying to help. let me know if you need more code to look at

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• git: setting a single tracking remote from a public repo.

  - by Gauthier

  I am confused with remote branches. My local repo: (local) ---A---B---C-master My remote repo (called int): (int) ---A---B---C---D---E-master What I want to do is to setup the local repo's master branch to follow that of int. Local repo: (local) ---A---B---C---D---E-master-remotes/int/master So that when int changes to: (int) ---A---B---C---D---E---F-master I can run git pull from the local repo's master and get (local) ---A---B---C---D---E---F-master-remotes/int/master Here's what I have tried: git fetch int gets me all the branches of int into remote branches. This can get messy since int might have hundreds of branches. git fetch int master gets me the commits, but no ref to it, only FETCH_HEAD. No remote branch either. git fetch int master:new_master works but I don't want a new name every time I update, and no remote branch is setup. git pull int master does what I want, but there is still no remote branch setup. I feel that it is ok to do so (that's the best I have now), but I read here and there that with the remote setup it is enough with git pull. git branch --track new_master int/master, as per http://www.gitready.com/beginner/2009/03/09/remote-tracking-branches.html . I get "not a valid object name: int/master". git remote -v does show me that int is defined and points at the correct location (1. worked). What I miss is the int/master branch, which is precisely what I want to get. git fetch in master:int/master. Well, int/master is created, but is no remote. So to summarize, I've tried some stuff with no luck. I would expect 2 to give me the remote branch to master in the repo int. The solution I use now is option 3. I read somewhere that you could change some config file by hand, but isn't that a bit cumbersome? The "cumbersome" way of editting the config file did work: [branch "master"] remote = int merge = master It can be done from command line: $ git config branch.master.remote int $ git config branch.master.merge master Any reason why option 2 above wouldn't do that automatically? Even in that case, git pull fetches all branches from the remote.

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• T-SQL generated from LINQ to SQL is missing a where clause

  - by Jimmy W

  I have extended some functionality to a DataContext object (called "CodeLookupAccessDataContext") such that the object exposes some methods to return results of LINQ to SQL queries. Here are the methods I have defined: public List<CompositeSIDMap> lookupCompositeSIDMap(int regionId, int marketId) { var sidGroupId = CompositeSIDGroupMaps.Where(x => x.RegionID.Equals(regionId) && x.MarketID.Equals(marketId)) .Select(x => x.CompositeSIDGroup); IEnumerator<int> sidGroupIdEnum = sidGroupId.GetEnumerator(); if (sidGroupIdEnum.MoveNext()) return lookupCodeInfo<CompositeSIDMap, CompositeSIDMap>(x => x.CompositeSIDGroup.Equals(sidGroupIdEnum.Current), x => x); else return null; } private List<TResult> lookupCodeInfo<T, TResult>(Func<T, bool> compLambda, Func<T, TResult> selectLambda) where T : class { System.Data.Linq.Table<T> dataTable = this.GetTable<T>(); var codeQueryResult = dataTable.Where(compLambda) .Select(selectLambda); List<TResult> codeList = new List<TResult>(); foreach (TResult row in codeQueryResult) codeList.Add(row); return codeList; } CompositeSIDGroupMap and CompositeSIDMap are both tables in our database that are represented as objects in my DataContext object. I wrote the following code to call these methods and display the T-SQL generated after calling these methods: using (CodeLookupAccessDataContext codeLookup = new CodeLookupAccessDataContext()) { codeLookup.Log = Console.Out; List<CompositeSIDMap> compList = codeLookup.lookupCompositeSIDMap(5, 3); } I got the following results in my log after invoking this code: SELECT [t0].[CompositeSIDGroup] FROM [dbo].[CompositeSIDGroupMap] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[RegionID] = @p0) AND ([t0].[MarketID] = @p1) -- @p0: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [5] -- @p1: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [3] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.1 SELECT [t0].[PK_CSM], [t0].[CompositeSIDGroup], [t0].[InputSID], [t0].[TargetSID], [t0].[StartOffset], [t0].[EndOffset], [t0].[Scale] FROM [dbo].[CompositeSIDMap] AS [t0] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.1 The first T-SQL statement contains a where clause as specified and returns one column as expected. However, the second statement is missing a where clause and returns all columns, even though I did specify which rows I wanted to view and which columns were of interest. Why is the second T-SQL statement generated the way it is, and what should I do to ensure that I filter out the data according to specifications via the T-SQL? Also note that I would prefer to keep lookupCodeInfo() and especially am interested in keeping it enabled to accept lambda functions for specifying which rows/columns to return.

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• C++ Beginner - 'friend' functions and << operator overloading: What is the proper way to overload an

  - by Francisco P.

  Hello, everyone! In a project I'm working on, I have a Score class, defined below in score.h. I am trying to overload it so, when a << operation is performed on it, _points + " " + _name is returned. Here's what I tried to do: ostream & Score::operator<< (ostream & os, Score right) { os << right.getPoints() << " " << right.scoreGetName(); return os; } Here are the errors returned: 1>c:\users\francisco\documents\feup\1a2s\prog\projecto3\projecto3\score.h(30) : error C2804: binary 'operator <<' has too many parameters (This error appears 4 times, actually) I managed to get it working by declaring the overload as a friend function: friend ostream & operator<< (ostream & os, Score right); And removing the Score:: from the function declaration in score.cpp (effectively not declaring it as a member). Why does this work, yet the code describe above doesn't? Thanks for your time! Below is the full score.h /////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// // Score.h // Implementation of the Class Score // Created on: 10-Mai-2010 11:43:56 // Original author: Francisco /////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// #ifndef SCORE_H_ #define SCORE_H_ #include <string> #include <iostream> #include <iostream> using std::string; using std::ostream; class Score { public: Score(string name); Score(); virtual ~Score(); void addPoints(int n); string scoreGetName() const; int getPoints() const; void scoreSetName(string name); bool operator>(const Score right) const; ostream & operator<< (ostream & os, Score right); private: string _name; int _points; }; #endif

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• How does your team work together in a remote setup?

  - by Carl Rosenberger

  Hi, we are a distributed team working on the object database db4o. The way we work: We try to program in pairs only. We use Skype and VNC or SharedView to connect and work together. In our online Tuesday meeting every week (usually about 1 hour) we talk about the tasks done last week we create new pairs for the next week with a random generator so knowledge and friendship distribute evenly we set the priority for any new tasks or bugs that have come in each team picks the tasks it likes to do from the highest prioritized ones. From Tuesday to Wednesday we estimate tasks. We have a unit of work we call "Ideal Developer Session" (IDS), maybe 2 or 3 hours of working together as a pair. It's not perfectly well defined (because we know estimation always is inaccurate) but from our past shared experience we have a common sense of what an IDS is. If we can't estimate a task because it feels too long for a week we break it down into estimatable smaller tasks. During a short meeting on Wednesday we commit to a workload we feel is well doable in a week. We commit to complete. If a team runs out of committed tasks during the week, it can pick new ones from the prioritized queue we have in Jira. When we started working this way, some of us found that remote pair programming takes a lot of energy because you are so focussed. If you pair program for more than 5 or 6 hours per day, you get drained. On the other hand working like this has turned out to be very efficient. The knowledge about our codebase is evenly distributed and we have really learnt lots from eachother. I would be very interested to hear about the experiences from other teams working in a similar way. Things like: How often do you meet? Have you tried different sprint lengths (one week, two week, longer) ? Which tools do you use? Which issue tracker do you use? What do you do about time zone differences? How does it work for you to integrate new people into the team? How many hours do you usually work per week? How does your management interact with the way you are working? Do you get put on a waterfall with hard deadlines? What's your unit of work? What is your normal velocity? (units of work done per week) Programming work should be fun and for us it usually is great fun. I would be happy about any new ideas how to make it even more fun and/or more efficient.

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