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  • iPhone SDK: Why is didSelectRowAtIndexPath not being fired?

    - by iPhone Developer
    I have a view with a table on it. When the app starts, it loads the first 5 visble cells. That works as expected. My problem is that, when I try to scroll down in the table the app crashes with this error. What I've found is that didSelectRowAtIndexPath is not being called. AFAIK, all I need to do is to subscribe to the delegate. But I must be missing something? @interface LandingRetailersViewController : TableSectionHeaderViewController<UITableViewDataSource, UITableViewDelegate, UITabBarDelegate> { Any help appreciated. 2010-06-06 12:25:42.547 iphoneos[18238:207] * -[NSCFString tableView:cellForRowAtIndexPath:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x451a980 2010-06-06 12:25:42.549 iphoneos[18238:207] Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '** -[NSCFString tableView:cellForRowAtIndexPath:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x451a980' Here is my code to load cells. UITableViewCell * cell = nil; NSInteger index = [indexPath indexAtPosition:1]; NSLog(@"WHAT IS INDEX %i", indexPath); RoundedGradientTableViewCell *retailerCell = (RoundedGradientTableViewCell *)[tb dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:@"RET"]; if(!retailerCell){ retailerCell = [[[RoundedGradientTableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleSubtitle reuseIdentifier:@"RET"] autorelease]; } [retailerCell setArcSize:5.0]; [retailerCell setStrokeSize:1.0]; [retailerCell setStrokeColor:[UIColor clearColor]]; [retailerCell setBackgroundFillColor:[UIColor clearColor]]; [retailerCell setBackgroundColor:[UIColor clearColor]]; Retailer *retailer = [self retailerAtIndex:index]; if(retailer){ [[retailerCell textLabel] setText:[retailer name]]; if([retailer hasImage]){ [[retailerCell contentImageView] setImage:[retailer image]]; } } else { [[retailerCell textLabel] setText:@"No title"]; } cell = retailerCell; [cell setSelectionStyle:UITableViewCellSelectionStyleNone]; NSLog(@"retailer: %@ ", [retailer name]); NSLog(@"log: %i ", index); return cell;

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  • sql server 2005 command line install error ADD_LOCAL property already installed

    - by Belliez
    I have a silent installation of SQL Server 2005 that works great when installing SQL Server on a machine that does not have it already installed. I use the following parameters when I perform the installation: #define SQL_SILENT "/passive /qb" #define SQL_USERNAME "username=MyUserName" #define SQL_COMPANYNAME "companyname=MyCompanyName" #define SQL_ADDLOCAL "ADDLOCAL=SQL_Engine" #define SQL_UPGRADE "" #define SQL_DISABLENETWORKPROTOCOLS "disablenetworkprotocols=0" #define SQL_INSTANCENAME "instancename=MYSQLINSTANCE" #define SQL_SQLAUTOSTART "SQLAUTOSTART=1" #define SQL_SECURITYMODE "SECURITYMODE=SQL" #define SQL_SAPWD "SAPWD=StrongPassword" #define SQL_SQLACCOUNT "SQLACCOUNT=""""" #define SQL_SQLPASSWORD "SQLPASSWORD=""""" It installs the instance of SQL Server Express without a problem. However, when I attempt to install SQL Server on a machine that already has another instance with components I get the following error: *"A component that you have specified in the ADD_LOCAL property is already installed. To upgrade the existing component, refer to the template.ini and set the UPGRADE property to the name of the component."* I have also tried using the UPGRADE method as per the error message #define SQL_UPGRADE "UPGRADE=SQL_Engine INSTANCENAME=MYSQLINSTANCE" but get the following error: "SQL Server Setup cannot perform the upgrade because the component is not installed on the computer. To proceed, verify the component to be upgraded in currently installed, and that the component to be upgraded is specified in the ADDLOCAL property." Does anyone have any suggestions? Thank you

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  • Some $_SERVER parameters missing when accessing PHP script via Cron

    - by Jakobud
    I have a script that I need to run with PHP via cron. The original author of the script made a lot of user of certain $_SERVER parameters (like REQUEST_URI). But it appears that certain variables don't exist when running PHP via command line or via CRON. For example, there is no request uri, so it makes sense that the REQUEST_URI parameter wouldn't be available. Is there any way around this other than to completely rewrite the script in order to avoid using special $_SERVER parameters that aren't universally available?

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  • How to display panel which is of Singleton class in two different frames at a time?

    - by Sriku
    I am trying to display a singleton obj on two different Jframe, but it is displayed only in the Jframe in which the object is added at last ( in example Frame2). Other Jframe is empty. This Singleton class is inherited from Panel and contains a label in it. Can anybody please tell me how can i display this singleton object in two different frame ? public static void main(String[] args) { SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { NewJFrame inst = new NewJFrame(); inst.setTitle("Frame1"); inst.setSize(300, 300); inst.setLocationRelativeTo(null); inst.setVisible(true); singltonpanel _sin = singltonpanel.instance(); inst.add(_sin); inst.repaint(); JFrame frame = new JFrame("Frame2"); frame.setSize(300, 300); frame.setVisible(true); singltonpanel _sin1 = singltonpanel.instance(); frame.add(_sin1); frame.repaint(); } });

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  • Property on business objects - getting and setting

    - by Mike
    Hi, I am using LINQ to SQL for the DataAccess layer. I have similar business objects to what is in the data access layer. I have got the dataprovider getting the message #23. On instantiation of the message, in the message constructor, it gets the MessageType and makes a new instance of MessageType class and fills in the MessageType information from the database. Therefore; I want this to get the Name of the MessageType of the Message. user.Messages[23].MessageType.Name I also want an administrator to set the MessageType user.Messages[23].MessageType = MessageTypes.LoadType(3); but I don't want the user to publicly set the MessageType.Name. But when I make a new MessageType instance, the access modifier for the Name property is public because I want to set that from an external class (my data access layer). I could change this to property to internal, so that my class can access it like a public variable, and not allow my other application access to modify it. This still doesn't feel right as it seems like a public property. Are public access modifiers in this situation bad? Any tips or suggestions would be appreciated. Thanks.

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  • What are good and bad jitter times for a LAN

    - by garyb32234234
    Ive just ran jperf (frontend to iperf) on our network between 2 workstations, its recorded jitter between 0.033ms and 0.048ms. Is this good or bad? Are there more variables that i would need to consider to make the decision? EDIT: TCP/IP Ethernet LAN 43 PCs 1 server, 100Mbits main switch, various small 8 port switches, test was done using UDP, Its a Windows Domain. I want to instal a few voip softphones on the workstations, see how many i can use that reliably work, im testing a few different workstations around the network to see where the best quality network paths are. Will also change some equipment if i identify bad connections.

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  • Locked out by changing file permissions

    - by Valeriy
    I just locked my root account (and all other accounts if it matters) completely out of the RHEL 5.4 by changing permissions on every file to 400. Now I have "Permission denied" on any command that I try to run, including chmod itself. Any idea on how to recover? The only access I have to the server is via terminal or SSH. (If anyone cares how it happened, I was running a hardening script and one of the lines was supposed to change permission on some config files in /etc directory. It has couple of variables that had not been set, so the command essentially evaluated to chmod -R 0400 /* Ouch! This is sure a great lesson on checking the scripts even more carefully in the future but what can I do now?

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  • Why is this MySQL FULLTEXT query returning 0 rows when matching rows are present?

    - by Don MacAskill
    I have a MySQL table with 200M rows which has a FULLTEXT index on two columns (Title,Body). When I do a simple FULLTEXT query in the default NATURAL LANGUAGE mode for some popular results (they'd return 2M+ rows), I'm getting zero rows back: SELECT COUNT(*) FROM itemsearch WHERE MATCH (Title, Body) AGAINST ('fubar'); But when I do a FULLTEXT query in BOOLEAN mode, I can see the rows in question do exist (I get 2M+ back, depending): SELECT COUNT(*) FROM itemsearch WHERE MATCH (Title, Body) AGAINST ('+fubar' IN BOOLEAN MODE); I have some queries which return ~500K rows which are working fine in either mode, so if it's result size related, it seems to crop up somewhere between 500K and a little north of 2M. I've tried playing with the various buffer size variables, to no avail. It's clearly not the 50% threshold, since we're not getting 100M rows back for any result. Any ideas?

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  • Namespace Traversal

    - by RikSaunderson
    I am trying to parse the following sample piece of XML: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <soapenv:Body> <d2LogicalModel modelBaseVersion="1.0" xmlns="http://datex2.eu/schema/1_0/1_0" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://datex2.eu/schema/1_0/1_0 http://datex2.eu/schema/1_0/1_0/DATEXIISchema_1_0_1_0.xsd"> <payloadPublication xsi:type="PredefinedLocationsPublication" lang="en"> <predefinedLocationSet id="GUID-NTCC-VariableMessageSignLocations"> <predefinedLocation id="VMS30082775"> <predefinedLocationName> <value lang="en">VMS M60/9084B</value> </predefinedLocationName> </predefinedLocation> </predefinedLocationSet> </payloadPublication> </d2LogicalModel> </soapenv:Body> </soapenv:Envelope> I specifically need to get at the contents of the top-level predefinedLocation tag. By my calculations, the correct XPath should be /soapenv:Envelope/soapenv:Body/d2LogicalModel/payloadPublication/predefinedLocationSet/predefinedLocation I am using the following C# code to parse the XML: string filename = "content-sample.xml"; XmlDocument xmlDoc = new XmlDocument(); xmlDoc.Load(filename); XmlNamespaceManager nsmanager = new XmlNamespaceManager(xmlDoc.NameTable); nsmanager.AddNamespace("soapenv", "http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/Envelope"); string xpath ="/soapenv:Envelope/soapenv:Body/d2LogicalModel/payloadPublication/predefinedLocationSet/predefinedLocation"; XmlNodeList itemNodes = xmlDoc.SelectNodes(xpath, nsmanager); However, this keeps coming up with no results. Can anyone shed any light on this, because I feel like I'm banging my head on a brick wall.

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  • Unity: Replace registered type with another type at runtime

    - by gehho
    We have a scenario where the user can choose between different hardware at runtime. In the background we have several different hardware classes which all implement an IHardware interface. We would like to use Unity to register the currently selected hardware instance for this interface. However, when the user selects another hardware, this would require us to replace this registration at runtime. The following example might make this clearer: public interface IHardware { // some methods... } public class HardwareA : IHardware { // ... } public class HardwareB : IHardware { // ... } container.RegisterInstance<IHardware>(new HardwareA()); // user selects new hardware somewhere in the configuration... // the following is invalid code, but can it be achieved another way? container.ReplaceInstance<IHardware>(new HardwareB()); Can this behavior be achieved somehow? BTW: I am completely aware that instances which have already been resolved from the container will not be replaced with the new instances, of course. We would take care of that ourselves by forcing them to resolve the instance once again.

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  • How do I make a serialization class for this?

    - by chobo2
    I have something like this (sorry for the bad names) <root xmlns="http://www.domain.com" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.Domain.com Schema.xsd> <product></product> <SomeHighLevelElement> <anotherElment> <lowestElement> </lowestElement> </anotherElment> </SomeHighLevelElement> </root> I have something like this for my class public class MyClass { public MyClass() { ListWrapper= new List<UserInfo>(); } public string product{ get; set; } public List<SomeHighLevelElement> ListWrapper{ get; set; } } public class SomeHighLevelElement { public string lowestElement{ get; set; } } But I don't know how to write the code for the "anotherElement" not sure if I have to make another wrapper around it. Edit I know get a error in my actual xml file. I have this in my tag xmlns="http://www.domain.com" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.Domain.com Schema.xsd Throws an exception on the root line saying there was a error with this stuff. So I don't know if it is mad at the schemaLocation since I am using local host right now or what.

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  • Working with fields which can mutate or be new instances altogether

    - by dotnetdev
    Structs are usually used for immutable data, eg a phone number, which does not mutate, but instead you get a new one (eg the number 000 becoming 0001 would mean two seperate numbers). However, pieces of information like Name, a string, can either mutate (company abc changing its name to abcdef, or being given a new name like def). For fields like this, I assume they should reside in the mutable class and not an immutable structure? My way of structuring code is to have an immutable concept, like Address (any change is a new address completely), in a struct and then reference it from a class like Customer, since Customer always has an address. So I would put CompanyName, or Employer, in the class as it is mutable. But a name can either mutate and so be the same 1 instance, or a new name setup and while the company still owning the first name too. Would the correct pattern for assigning a new instance (eg a new company name but the old name still owned by the company) be?: string name = ""; string newName = new string(); newName = "new"; name = newName; And a mutation just the standard assignment pattern? Thanks

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  • tk: how to invoke it just to display something, and return to the main program?

    - by max
    Sorry for the noob question but I really don't understand this. I'm using python / tkinter and I want to display something (say, a canvas with a few shapes on it), and keep it displayed until the program quits. I understand that no widgets would be displayed until I call tkinter.tk.mainloop(). However, if I call tkinter.tk.mainloop(), I won't be able to do anything else until the user closes the main window. I don't need to monitor any user input events, just display some stuff. What's a good way to do this without giving up control to mainloop? EDIT: Is this sample code reasonable: class App(tk.Tk): def __init__(self, sim): self.sim = sim # link to the simulation instance self.loop() def loop(): self.redraw() # update all the GUI to reflect new simulation state sim.next_step() # advance simulation another step self.after(0, self.loop) def redraw(): # get whatever we need from self.sim, and put it on the screen EDIT2 (added after_idle): class App(tk.Tk): def __init__(self, sim): self.sim = sim # link to the simulation instance self.after_idle(self.preloop) def preloop(): self.after(0, self.loop) def loop(): self.redraw() # update all the GUI to reflect new simulation state sim.next_step() # advance simulation another step self.after_idle(self.preloop) def redraw(): # get whatever we need from self.sim, and put it on the screen

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  • Calling a WPF Application and modify exposed properties?

    - by Justin
    I have a WPF Keyboard Application, it is developed in such a way that an application could call it and modify its properties to adapt the Keyboard to do what it needs to. Right now I have a file *.Keys.Set which tells the application (on open) to style itself according to that new style. I know this file could be passed as a command line argument into the application. That would not be a problem. My concern is, is there a way via a managed environment to change the properties of the executable as long as they are exposed properly, an example: 'Creates a new instance of the Keyboard Application Dim e_key as new WpfApplication("C:\egt\components\keyboard.exe") 'Sets the style path e_key.SetStylePath("c:\users\joe\apps\me\default.keys.set") e_key.Refresh() 'Applies the style e_key.HideMenu() 'Hides the menu e_key.ShowDeck("PIN") 'Shows the custom "deck" of keyboard keys the developer 'Created in the style application. ''work with events and response 'Clear the instance from memory e_key.close e_key.dispose e_key = nothing This would allow my application to become easily accessible to other Touch Screen Application Developers, allowing them to use my keyboard and keep the functionality they need. It seems like it might be possible because (name of executable).application shows all the exposed functions, properties, and values. I just have never done this before. Any help would be appreciated, thank you in advance.

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  • SQL - date variable isn't being parsed correctly?

    - by Bill Sambrone
    I am pulling a list of invoices filtered by a starting and ending date, and further filtered by type of invoice from a SQL table. When I specify a range of 2013-07-01 through 2013-09-30 I am receiving 2 invoices per company when I expect 3. When I use the built in select top 1000 query in SSMS and add my date filters, all the expected invoices appear. Here is my fancy query that I'm using that utilizing variables that are fed in: DECLARE @ReportStart datetime DECLARE @ReportStop datetime SET @ReportStart = '2013-07-01' SET @ReportStop = '2013-09-30' SELECT Entity_Company.CompanyName, Reporting_AgreementTypes.Description, Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceAmount, ISNULL(Reporting_ProductCost.ProductCost,0), (Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceAmount - ISNULL(Reporting_ProductCost.ProductCost,0)), (Reporting_AgreementTypes.Description + Entity_Company.CompanyName), Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate FROM Reporting_Invoices JOIN Entity_Company ON Entity_Company.ClientID = Reporting_Invoices.ClientID LEFT JOIN Reporting_ProductCost ON Reporting_ProductCost.InvoiceNumber =Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceNumber JOIN Reporting_AgreementTypes ON Reporting_AgreementTypes.AgreementTypeID = Reporting_Invoices.AgreementTypeID WHERE Reporting_Invoices.AgreementTypeID = (SELECT AgreementTypeID FROM Reporting_AgreementTypes WHERE Description = 'Resold Services') AND Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate >= @ReportStart AND Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate <= @ReportStop ORDER BY CompanyName,InvoiceDate The above only returns 2 invoices per company. When I run a much more basic query through SSMS I get 3 as expected, which looks like: SELECT TOP 1000 [InvoiceID] ,[AgreementID] ,[AgreementTypeID] ,[InvoiceDate] ,[Comment] ,[InvoiceAmount] ,[InvoiceNumber] ,[TicketID] ,Entity_Company.CompanyName FROM Reporting_Invoices JOIN Entity_Company ON Entity_Company.ClientID = Reporting_Invoices.ClientID WHERE Entity_Company.ClientID = '9' AND AgreementTypeID = (SELECT AgreementTypeID FROM Reporting_AgreementTypes WHERE Description = 'Resold Services') AND Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate >= '2013-07-01' AND Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate <= '2013-09-30' ORDER BY InvoiceDate DESC I've tried stripping down the 1st query to include only a client ID on the original invoice table, the invoice date, and nothing else. Still only get 2 invoices instead of the expected 3. I've also tried manually entering the dates instead of the @ variables, same result. I confirmed that InvoiceDate is defined as a datetime in the table. I've tried making all JOIN's a FULL JOIN to see if anything is hiding, but no change. Here is how I stripped down the original query to keep all other tables out of the mix and yet I'm still getting only 2 invoices per client ID instead of 3 (I manually entered the ID for the type filter): --DECLARE @ReportStart datetime --DECLARE @ReportStop datetime --SET @ReportStart = '2013-07-01' --SET @ReportStop = '2013-09-30' SELECT --Entity_Company.CompanyName, --Reporting_AgreementTypes.Description, Reporting_Invoices.ClientID, Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceAmount, --ISNULL(Reporting_ProductCost.ProductCost,0), --(Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceAmount - ISNULL(Reporting_ProductCost.ProductCost,0)), --(Reporting_AgreementTypes.Description + Entity_Company.CompanyName), Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate FROM Reporting_Invoices --JOIN Entity_Company ON Entity_Company.ClientID = Reporting_Invoices.ClientID --LEFT JOIN Reporting_ProductCost ON Reporting_ProductCost.InvoiceNumber = Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceNumber --JOIN Reporting_AgreementTypes ON Reporting_AgreementTypes.AgreementTypeID = Reporting_Invoices.AgreementTypeID WHERE Reporting_Invoices.AgreementTypeID = '22'-- (SELECT AgreementTypeID FROM Reporting_AgreementTypes WHERE Description = 'Resold Services') AND Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate >= '2013-07-01' AND Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate <= '2013-09-30' ORDER BY ClientID,InvoiceDate This strikes me as really weird as it is pretty much the same query as the SSMS generated one that returns correct results. What am I overlooking? UPDATE I've further refined my "test query" that is returning only 2 invoices per company to help troubleshoot this. Below is the query and a relevant subset of data for 1 company from the appropriate tables: SELECT Reporting_Invoices.ClientID, Reporting_AgreementTypes.Description, Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceAmount, Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate FROM Reporting_Invoices JOIN Reporting_AgreementTypes ON Reporting_AgreementTypes.AgreementTypeID = Reporting_Invoices.AgreementTypeID WHERE Reporting_Invoices.AgreementTypeID = (SELECT AgreementTypeID FROM Reporting_AgreementTypes WHERE Description = 'Resold Services') AND Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate >= '2013-07-01T00:00:00' AND Reporting_Invoices.InvoiceDate <= '2013-09-30T00:00:00' ORDER BY Reporting_Invoices.ClientID,InvoiceDate The above only returns 2 invoices. Here is the relevant table data: Relevant data from Reporting_AgreementTypes AgreementTypeID Description 22 Resold Services Relevant data from Reporting_Invoices InvoiceID ClientID AgreementID AgreementTypeID InvoiceDate 16111 9 757 22 2013-09-30 00:00:00.000 15790 9 757 22 2013-08-30 00:00:00.000 15517 9 757 22 2013-07-31 00:00:00.000 Actual results from my new modified query ClientID Description InvoiceAmount InvoiceDate 9 Resold Services 3513.79 7/31/13 00:00:00 9 Resold Services 3570.49 8/30/13 00:00:00

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  • Is there a definitive reference document for Ruby syntax?

    - by JSW
    I'm searching for a definitive document on Ruby syntax. I know about the definitive documents for the core API and standard library, but what about the syntax itself? For instance, such a document should cover: reserved words, string literals syntax, naming rules for variables/classes/modules, all the conditional statements and their permutations, and so forth. I know there are many books and tutorials, yes, but every one of them is essentially a tutorial, each one having a range of different depth and focus. They will all, by necessity of brevity and narrative flow, omit certain details of the language that the author deems insignificant. For instance, did you know that you can use a case statement without an initial case value, and it will then execute the first true when clause? Any given Ruby book or tutorial may or may not cover that particular lesser-known functionality of the case syntax. It's not discussed in the section in "Programming Ruby" about case statements. But that is just one small example. So far the best documentation I've found is the rubyspec project, which appears to be an attempt to write a complete test suite for the language. That's not bad, but it's a bit hard to use from a practical standpoint as a developer working on my own projects. Am I just missing something or is there really no definitive readable document defining the whole of Ruby syntax?

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  • Integrated Windows authentication in IIS causing ADO.NET failure

    - by TrueWill
    We have a .NET 3.5 Web Service running under IIS. It must use identity impersonate="true" and Integrated Windows authentication in order to authenticate to third-party software. In addition, it connects to a SQL Server database using ADO.NET and SQL Server Authentication (specifying a fixed User ID and Password in the connection string). Everything worked fine until the database was moved to another SQL Server. Then the Web Service would throw the following exception: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) This error only occurs if identity impersonate is true in the Web.config. Again, the connection string hasn't changed and it specifies the user. I have tested the connection string and it works, both under the impersonated account and under the service account (and from both the remote machine and the server). What needs to be changed to get this to work with impersonation?

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  • Python base classes share attributes?

    - by tad
    Code in test.py: class Base(object): def __init__(self, l=[]): self.l = l def add(self, num): self.l.append(num) def remove(self, num): self.l.remove(num) class Derived(Base): def __init__(self, l=[]): super(Derived, self).__init__(l) Python shell session: Python 2.6.5 (r265:79063, Apr 1 2010, 05:22:20) [GCC 4.4.3 20100316 (prerelease)] on linux2 Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import test >>> a = test.Derived() >>> b = test.Derived() >>> a.l [] >>> b.l [] >>> a.add(1) >>> a.l [1] >>> b.l [1] >>> c = test.Derived() >>> c.l [1] I was expecting "C++-like" behavior, in which each derived object contains its own instance of the base class. Is this still the case? Why does each object appear to share the same list instance?

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  • Is there anything inherently wrong with long variable/method names in Java?

    - by Doug Smith
    I know this is probably is a question of personal opinion, but I want to know what's standard practice and what would be frowned upon. One of my profs in university always seems to make his variable and method names as short as possible (getAmt() instead of getAmount) for instance. I have no objection to this, but personally, I prefer to have mine a little longer if it adds descriptiveness so the person reading it won't have to check or refer to documentation. For instance, we made a method that given a list of players, returns the player who scored the most goals. I made the method getPlayerWithMostGoals(), is this wrong? I toiled over choosing a way to make it shorter for awhile, but then I thought "why?". It gets the point across clearly and Eclipse makes it easy to autocomplete it when I type. I'm just wondering if the short variable names are a piece of the past due to needing everything to be as small as possible to be efficient. Is this still a requirement?

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  • Percona system tables corrupted.

    - by Anand Jeyahar
    I am having problems setting up mysql replication with a percona as server. accidentally, took a full dump from mysql and restored it on percona and then started,the replication. now when i stop slave and start slave, i am getting the error "[ERROR] Failed to open the relay log './s5-bin.000003' (relay_log_pos 2029993) 110103 9:15:59 [ERROR] Could not find target log during relay log initialization " But show local variables shows the relay_log variable as set in the cnf file.. But the relay-log variable is set to slave-relay-bin alright. I am able to start mysql as a service. But mysqld_safe fails with error "110103 9:19:39 [ERROR] /usr/sbin/mysqld: Can't create/write to file '/var/run/mysqld/mysqld.pid' (Errcode: 2) 110103 9:19:39 [ERROR] Can't start server: can't create PID file: No such file or directory " Am now lost as to what is the problem.

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  • Grails - Removing an item from a hasMany association List on data bind?

    - by ecrane
    Grails offers the ability to automatically create and bind domain objects to a hasMany List, as described in the grails user guide. So, for example, if my domain object "Author" has a List of many "Book" objects, I could create and bind these using the following markup (from the user guide): <g:textField name="books[0].title" value="the Stand" /> <g:textField name="books[1].title" value="the Shining" /> <g:textField name="books[2].title" value="Red Madder" /> In this case, if any of the books specified don't already exist, Grails will create them and set their titles appropriately. If there are already books in the specified indices, their titles will be updated and they will be saved. My question is: is there some easy way to tell Grails to remove one of those books from the 'books' association on data bind? The most obvious way to do this would be to omit the form element that corresponds to the domain instance you want to delete; unfortunately, this does not work, as per the user guide: Then Grails will automatically create a new instance for you at the defined position. If you "skipped" a few elements in the middle ... Then Grails will automatically create instances in between. I realize that a specific solution could be engineered as part of a command object, or as part of a particular controller- however, the need for this functionality appears repeatedly throughout my application, across multiple domain objects and for associations of many different types of objects. A general solution, therefore, would be ideal. Does anyone know if there is something like this included in Grails?

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  • Run arbitrary subprocesses on Windows and still terminate cleanly?

    - by Weeble
    I have an application A that I would like to be able to invoke arbitrary other processes as specified by a user in a configuration file. Batch script B is one such process a user would like to be invoked by A. B sets up some environment variables, shows some messages and invokes a compiler C to do some work. Does Windows provide a standard way for arbitrary processes to be terminated cleanly? Suppose A is run in a console and receives a CTRL+C. Can it pass this on to B and C? Suppose A runs in a window and the user tries to close the window, can it cancel B and C? TerminateProcess is an option, but not a very good one. If A uses TerminateProcess on B, C keeps running. This could cause nasty problems if C is long-running, since we might start another instance of C to operate on the same files while the first instance of C is still secretly at work. In addition, TerminateProcess doesn't result in a clean exit. GenerateConsoleCtrlEvent sounds nice, and might work when everything's running in a console, but the documentation says that you can only send CTRL+C to your own console, and so wouldn't help if A were running in a window. Is there any equivalent to SIGINT on Windows? I would love to find an article like this one: http://www.cons.org/cracauer/sigint.html for Windows.

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  • MVVM and avoiding Monolithic God object

    - by bufferz
    I am in the completion stage of a large project that has several large components: image acquisition, image processing, data storage, factory I/O (automation project) and several others. Each of these components is reasonably independent, but for the project to run as a whole I need at least one instance of each component. Each component also has a ViewModel and View (WPF) for monitoring status and changing things. My question is the safest, most efficient, and most maintainable method of instantiating all of these objects, subscribing one class to an Event in another, and having a common ViewModel and View for all of this. Would it best if I have a class called God that has a private instance of all of these objects? I've done this in the past and regretted it. Or would it be better if God relied on Singleton instances of these objects to get the ball rolling. Alternatively, should Program.cs (or wherever Main(...) is) instantiate all of these components, and pass them to God as parameters and then let Him (snicker) and His ViewModel deal with the particulars of running this projects. Any other suggestions I would love to hear. Thank you!

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  • How can I remap control+e to escape+control+e in iTerm2?

    - by cwd
    I have set up a few custom keyboard shortcuts in iTerm2 to easily move the cursor around with the arrow keys, but now I'd like to remap control+e to be escape, control+e because bash 4.2 no longer auto-expands variables using the tab key. I know I've done the first part correctly in choosing the keyboard shortcut to remap, but I don't understand how to look up the correct escape sequence (or hex codes) to send in the bottom section: I reference they keyboard codes but that wasn't much help. How can I remap this, and how can I look up the codes in the future? (No luck with Google) Update @db - thanks. To save others trouble I also found a cool util Key Codes.app which can be used to find key codes:

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  • application trying to connect to mirrored sql db

    - by hp
    Hello, We have 4 web servers that host our asp.net (3.5) application. Randomly, we get error messages like : 1) "Login failed for user 'userid'" 2) "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server)" we are running sql2005 and have a principle and a mirror db (sync). When these exceptions are thrown, I look at the SQL error logs on the mirrored db and noticed the failed login messages in there. The principle db is running fine and the other web apps are working great. this will happen for maybe 10 min, then the app pool recycles and it starts hitting the principle db again. Is there a configuration I have incorrect? my theory is that our principle db is forwarding the request to the mirror, but that should never happen. any help??

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