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  • Not getting concept of null

    - by appu
    Hy Guys, Beginning with mysql. I am not able to grasp the concept of NULL. Check screen-shot (*declare_not_null, link*). In it when I specifically declared 'name' field to be NOT NULL. When i run the 'desc test' table command, the table description shows default value for name field to be NULL.Why is that so? From what I have read about NULL, it connotes a missing or information that is not applicable. So when I declare a field to be NOT NULL it implies (as per my understanding) that user must enter a value for the name field else the DB engine should generate an error i.e. record will not be entered in DB. However when i run 'insert into test value();' the DB engine enters the record in table. Check screen-shot(*empty_value, link*). FLICKR LINKS *declare_not_null* http://www.flickr.com/photos/55097319@N03/5302758813/ *empty_values* Check the second screenshot on flickr Q.2 what would be sql statemetn to drop a primary key from a table's field. If I use 'ALTER TABLE test drop key id;' it gives the following: ERROR: Incorrect table definition; there can be only one auto column and it must be defined as a key. Thanks for your help..

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  • Windows 2008 and wrong BPL loading [SOLVED]

    - by Beto Neto
    I have an application builded with Run-time Packages. When the executable starts it auto loads the required packages (.bpl). Recently we has installed an Windows 2008 R2 server to use as Terminal Services. We maintain some old compiled versions of our application in different paths, like this: c:\app\version_1\common.bpl c:\app\version_1\app.exe c:\app\version_2\common.bpl c:\app\version_2\app.exe Common.bpl is the a run-time package what app.exe depends on. THE PROBLEM: I start "c:\app\version_2\app.exe" and it loads "c:\app\version_2\common.bpl". When I start the "c:\app\version_1\app.exe" it loads the WRONG bpl (from version_2). The path "c:\app\version_2\" isn't at the system search path. At Windows2003 server this problem doesn't occurs. What can I do to solve this? Thanks! I have downloaded the Process Explorer (microsoft sysinternals), and checked the loaded modules of each executable, all they are correct! But I noticed another problem. After start the second version, an entry-not-found-error occurs, telling me what a initialization entry point, of an unit what only exists in one of the versions, could not be found. Something is very strange. The ProcessExplorer is telling me that the process is loading the correct modoles, but when they are running this seems not be happening. Seems the applications are sharing the loaded modules. SOLVED There was a MouseHook using FindVCLWindow, this was generating the AV. Sorry about inconvenience guys, and thanks!

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  • Make div expand only horizontally when more floating divs are added to it

    - by Wesam
    I am trying to make a div that contains other floating divs to adjust its width such that adding more floating divs (dynamically using jQuery) will only expand the div in its width, not allowing the floating divs to create a new line. Therefore, I want to fix this issue such that each div with class grid-row only expands in width, and so I will be able to scroll using the overflow: scroll for the parent grid div. I have searched a lot for answers, and it seems that it is a famous issue. However, non of the answer solved my problem. I am currently doing this: <div id="grid_container"> <div id="grid"> <div class="grid_row"> <div class="module" id="experience"> Experience </div> <div class="header"> Google </div> <div class="header"> Microsoft </div> </div> <div class="grid_row"> </div> </div> </div> CSS: body { } #grid_container { margin: 50px auto; width: 500px; height: 500px; padding: 10px; border: black solid 1px; } #grid { overflow:scroll; height: 100%; } .grid_row { clear: both; height: 50px; } .module, .header{ padding: 10px; float: left; border: gray solid 1px; }

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  • What encoding does c32rtomb convert to?

    - by R. Martinho Fernandes
    The functions c32rtomb and mbrtoc32 from <cuchar>/<uchar.h> are described in the C Unicode TR (draft) as performing conversions between UTF-321 and "multibyte characters". (...) If s is not a null pointer, the c32rtomb function determines the number of bytes needed to represent the multibyte character that corresponds to the wide character given by c32 (including any shift sequences), and stores the multibyte character representation in the array whose first element is pointed to by s. (...) What is this "multibyte character representation"? I'm actually interested in the behaviour of the following program: #include <cassert> #include <cuchar> #include <string> int main() { std::u32string u32 = U"this is a wide string"; std::string narrow = "this is a wide string"; std::string converted(1000, '\0'); char* ptr = &converted[0]; std::mbstate_t state {}; for(auto u : u32) { ptr += std::c32rtomb(ptr, u, &state); } converted.resize(ptr - &converted[0]); assert(converted == narrow); } Is the assertion in it guaranteed to hold1? 1 Working under the assumption that __STDC_UTF_32__ is defined.

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  • Why my tracking service freezes when the phone moves?

    - by user2878181
    I have developed a service which includes timer task and runs after every 5 minutes for keeping tracking record of the device, every five minutes it adds a record to the database. My service is working fine when the phone is not moving i.e it gives records after every 5 minutes as it should be. But i have noticed that when the phone is on move it updates the points after 10 or 20 minutes , i.e whenever the user stops in his way whenever he is on the move. Do service freezes on the move, if yes! how is whatsapp messenger managing it?? Please help! i am writing my onstart method. please help @Override public void onStart(Intent intent, int startId) { Toast.makeText(this, "My Service Started", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); Log.d(TAG, "onStart"); mLocationClient.connect(); final Handler handler_service = new Handler(); timer_service = new Timer(); TimerTask thread_service = new TimerTask() { @Override public void run() { handler_service.post(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { try { some function of tracking } }); } }; timer_service.schedule(thread_service, 1000, service_timing); //sync thread final Handler handler_sync = new Handler(); timer_sync = new Timer(); TimerTask thread_sync = new TimerTask() { @Override public void run() { handler_sync.post(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { try { //connecting to the central server for updation Connect(); } catch (Exception e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block } } }); } }; timer_sync.schedule(thread_sync,2000, sync_timing); }

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  • need help speeding up tag cloud filter for IE

    - by rod
    Hi All, Any ideas on how to speed this up in IE (performs decent in Firefox, but almost unusable in IE). Basically, it's a tag cloud with a filter text box to filter the cloud. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#tagFilter').keyup(function(e) { if (e.keyCode==8) { $('#cloudDiv > span').show(); } $('#cloudDiv > span').not('span:contains(' + $(this).val() + ')').hide(); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <input type="text" id="tagFilter" /> <div id="cloudDiv" style="height: 200px; width: 400px; overflow: auto;"> <script type="text/javascript"> for (i=0;i<=1300;i++) { document.write('<span><a href="#">Test ' + i + '</a>&nbsp;</span>'); } </script> </div> </body> </html> thanks, rodchar

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  • Using addMouseListener() and paintComponent() for JPanel

    - by Alex
    This is a follow-up to my previous question. I've simplified things as much as I could, and it still doesn't work! Although the good thing I got around using getGraphics(). A detailed explanation on what goes wrong here is massively appreciated. My suspicion is that something's wrong with the the way I used addMouseListener() method here. import java.awt.Color; import java.awt.Graphics; import java.awt.event.MouseAdapter; import java.awt.event.MouseEvent; import javax.swing.JFrame; import javax.swing.JPanel; public class MainClass1{ private static PaintClass22 inst2 = new PaintClass22(); public static void main(String args[]){ JFrame frame1 = new JFrame(); frame1.add(inst2); frame1.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); frame1.setTitle("NewPaintToolbox"); frame1.setSize(200, 200); frame1.setLocationRelativeTo(null); frame1.setVisible(true); } } class PaintClass11 extends MouseAdapter{ int xvar; int yvar; static PaintClass22 inst1 = new PaintClass22(); public PaintClass11(){ inst1.addMouseListener(this); inst1.addMouseMotionListener(this); } @Override public void mouseClicked(MouseEvent arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub xvar = arg0.getX(); yvar = arg0.getY(); inst1.return_paint(xvar, yvar); } } class PaintClass22 extends JPanel{ private static int varx; private static int vary; public void return_paint(int input1, int input2){ varx = input1; vary = input2; repaint(varx,vary,10,10); } public void paintComponent(Graphics g){ super.paintComponents(g); g.setColor(Color.RED); g.fillRect(varx, vary, 10, 10); } }

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  • Drop down menu going under #main div background in IE 7/8/9

    - by Adrift
    Here is the link to the domain http://linenwoods.com I am working on. I am going to fit the navigation list items on the header, but when the drop down menu is implemented I'm pretty sure it'll go under the #main div like you see currently. Is there any easy way fix to this? I couldn't find anything related to this from a google search .. was hoping someone could help me out. Below is the relevant CSS .. I tried playing around with z-index with no luck as I was told IE8 renders it strangely. If you have the time please follow the link with IE and leave a response .. I am trying to be as cross-browser compatible as possible and already am at a pretty pathetic start. Any help would be appreciated :) body { background-image:url('Background1.jpg'); background-position: center; height: 100%; margin: 0; padding: 0; opacity: 0.8; filter: alpha(opacity=80); } #main { width : 1010px; height: 1315px; background-color: white; margin-top: 15px; filter: alpha(opacity=80); } header { width: 1010px; height: 230px; background-color: white; margin: 0 auto; margin-top: 15px; filter: alpha(opacity=80); } footer { width: 1010px; height: 230px; background-color: white; margin: 15px 0 15px 0; filter: alpha(opacity=80); }

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  • Change value of adjacent vertices and remove self loop

    - by StereoMatching
    Try to write a Karger’s algorithm with boost::graph example (first column is vertice, other are adjacent vertices): 1 2 3 2 1 3 4 3 1 2 4 4 2 3 assume I merge 2 to 1, I get the result 1 2 3 2 1 1 3 4 2 1 3 4 3 1 2 4 4 2 3 first question : How could I change the adjacent vertices("2" to "1") of vertice 1? my naive solution template<typename Vertex, typename Graph> void change_adjacent_vertices_value(Vertex input, Vertex value, Graph &g) { for (auto it = boost::adjacent_vertices(input, g); it.first != it.second; ++it.first){ if(*it.first == value){ *(it.first) = input; //error C2106: '=' : left operand must be l-value } } } Apparently, I can't set the value of the adjacent vertices to "1" by this way The result I want after "change_adjacent_vertices_value" 1 1 3 1 1 1 3 4 2 1 3 4 3 1 2 4 4 2 3 second question : How could I pop out the adjacent vertices? Assume I want to pop out the consecutive 1 from the vertice 1 The result I expected 1 1 3 1 3 4 2 1 3 4 3 1 2 4 4 2 3 any function like "pop_adjacent_vertex" could use?

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  • How to display inline several <li> with 100% width?

    - by Rui
    Hi, I have the following html: <div id="container"> <ul> <li>element 1</li> <li>element 2</li> </ul> </div> applied with a css as follows: #container { width:100%; overflow:auto; } #container ul { width: 100%; } #container li { width: 100%; } So now I would like to have an indeterminate number of elements (<li>) all with 100% width (so they can adjust accordingly to the browser's window size) but all side by side, displaying the horizontal scroll bar in the container. I have tried putting "display:inline" on ul's css, and "float:left" on li's css, but with no success. Any suggestions? Also, try to consider I'm trying to make this as "cross-browser compatible" as possible. Thanks in advanced;

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  • CSS challenge: Two background images, centered column with fixed with, min-height 100%

    - by laurent
    In a nutshell I need a CSS solution for the following requirements: Layout: One centered column with fixed width and a minimum height of 100% Two vertically repeated background images behind the centered column, one aligned to the left, one aligned to the right Cross browser compatibility A little more details Today a new requirement for my current web site project came up: A background image with gradients on the left and right side. The challenge is now to specify two different background images while keeping the rest of the layout spec. Unfortunately the (simple) layout somehow doesn't go with the two backgrounds. My layout is basically one centered column with fixed width: #main_container { margin: 0 auto; min-height: 100%; width: 800px; } Furthermore it's necessary to stretch the column to a minimum height of 100%, since there are quite some pages with only little content. The following CSS styles take care of that: html { height: 100%; } body { margin: 0; height: 100%; padding: 0; } So far so good - until the two background image issue arrived... I tried the following solutions Two absolute positioned divs behind the main container One image defined with the body, one with the html CSS class One image defined with the body, the other one with a large div begind the main container With either one of them, the dynamic height solution was ruined. Either the main container didn't stretch to 100% when it was too small, or the background remained at 100% when the content was actually longer

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  • Deserializing JSON data to C# using JSON.NET

    - by Derek Utah
    I'm relatively new to working with C# and JSON data and am seeking guidance. I'm using C# 3.0, with .NET3.5SP1, and JSON.NET 3.5r6. I have a defined C# class that I need to populate from a JSON structure. However, not every JSON structure for an entry that is retrieved from the web service contains all possible attributes that are defined within the C# class. I've been being doing what seems to be the wrong, hard way and just picking out each value one by one from the JObject and transforming the string into the desired class property. JsonSerializer serializer = new JsonSerializer(); var o = (JObject)serializer.Deserialize(myjsondata); MyAccount.EmployeeID = (string)o["employeeid"][0]; What is the best way to deserialize a JSON structure into the C# class and handling possible missing data from the JSON source? My class is defined as: public class MyAccount { [JsonProperty(PropertyName = "username")] public string UserID { get; set; } [JsonProperty(PropertyName = "givenname")] public string GivenName { get; set; } [JsonProperty(PropertyName = "sn")] public string Surname { get; set; } [JsonProperty(PropertyName = "passwordexpired")] public DateTime PasswordExpire { get; set; } [JsonProperty(PropertyName = "primaryaffiliation")] public string PrimaryAffiliation { get; set; } [JsonProperty(PropertyName = "affiliation")] public string[] Affiliation { get; set; } [JsonProperty(PropertyName = "affiliationstatus")] public string AffiliationStatus { get; set; } [JsonProperty(PropertyName = "affiliationmodifytimestamp")] public DateTime AffiliationLastModified { get; set; } [JsonProperty(PropertyName = "employeeid")] public string EmployeeID { get; set; } [JsonProperty(PropertyName = "accountstatus")] public string AccountStatus { get; set; } [JsonProperty(PropertyName = "accountstatusexpiration")] public DateTime AccountStatusExpiration { get; set; } [JsonProperty(PropertyName = "accountstatusexpmaxdate")] public DateTime AccountStatusExpirationMaxDate { get; set; } [JsonProperty(PropertyName = "accountstatusmodifytimestamp")] public DateTime AccountStatusModified { get; set; } [JsonProperty(PropertyName = "accountstatusexpnotice")] public string AccountStatusExpNotice { get; set; } [JsonProperty(PropertyName = "accountstatusmodifiedby")] public Dictionary<DateTime, string> AccountStatusModifiedBy { get; set; } [JsonProperty(PropertyName = "entrycreatedate")] public DateTime EntryCreatedate { get; set; } [JsonProperty(PropertyName = "entrydeactivationdate")] public DateTime EntryDeactivationDate { get; set; } } And a sample of the JSON to parse is: { "givenname": [ "Robert" ], "passwordexpired": "20091031041550Z", "accountstatus": [ "active" ], "accountstatusexpiration": [ "20100612000000Z" ], "accountstatusexpmaxdate": [ "20110410000000Z" ], "accountstatusmodifiedby": { "20100214173242Z": "tdecker", "20100304003242Z": "jsmith", "20100324103242Z": "jsmith", "20100325000005Z": "rjones", "20100326210634Z": "jsmith", "20100326211130Z": "jsmith" }, "accountstatusmodifytimestamp": [ "20100312001213Z" ], "affiliation": [ "Employee", "Contractor", "Staff" ], "affiliationmodifytimestamp": [ "20100312001213Z" ], "affiliationstatus": [ "detached" ], "entrycreatedate": [ "20000922072747Z" ], "username": [ "rjohnson" ], "primaryaffiliation": [ "Staff" ], "employeeid": [ "999777666" ], "sn": [ "Johnson" ] }

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  • Dynamic Colorbox galleries using Ajax

    - by Gobitron
    Hi, I am new to jQuery / AJAX. I have a page that uses colorbox to display photo galleries. The page displays only one image from each gallery. When clicked, a colorbox opens up with all of the photos from that gallery. These inner photo references (for all photos from all galleries) are hidden on the page in an invisible div. The page is a PHP generated page. The galleries/photos are being populated via Picasa. All of the above works fine, but instead of loading all of the images from all galleries on page load (via PHP), I'd like to load only the requested gallery into the colorbox via AJAX. So far, I have a test page which can insert the proper links into a div on the page, but the Colorbox won't pick up on these links. This is where I need help. How can I get Colorbox to recognize the links generated by my AJAX call? The colorbox scripts sit in the header: <script type="text/javascript" src="libs/js/jquery.colorbox.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> //Writing out the ColorBox command for each album $(document).ready(function(){ <?php $setnum = 0; foreach ($albumIds as $albumId){ echo "\t\t\t$(\"a[rel='set" . $setnum . "']\").colorbox({maxWidth:\"640px\", maxHeight:\"480px\"});\n"; $setnum++; } ?> }); </script> Here is my get JSON code located in the body section of the page: $.getJSON("myserv.php",formContent, function(json){ var photos = json.data.items; var numpics = json.data.items.length; var pointer = 1; while (pointer < numpics){ var stuffineed = photos[pointer].media.image.url; $("#ajaxBox").append("<a href='" + stuffineed + "' rel='set" + pointer +"'>" + photos[pointer].media.image.url + "</a><br />"); pointer++; } }); //End json Again, I can get the AJAX to populate the div correctly, but the colorbox script isn't picking up these images. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Android mapView ItemizedOverlay setFocus does not work properly

    - by Gaks
    Calling setFocus(null) on the ItemizedOverlay does not 'unfocus' current marker. According to the documentation: ... If the Item is not found, this is a no-op. You can also pass null to remove focus. Here's my code: MapItemizedOverlay public class MapItemizedOverlay extends ItemizedOverlay<OverlayItem> { private ArrayList<OverlayItem> items = new ArrayList<OverlayItem>(); public MapItemizedOverlay(Drawable defaultMarker) { super(defaultMarker); } public void addOverlay(OverlayItem overlay) { items.add(overlay); populate(); } @Override protected OverlayItem createItem(int i) { return items.get(i); } @Override public int size() { return items.size(); } } Creating map overlay and one marker: StateListDrawable youIcon = (StateListDrawable)getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.marker_icon); int width = youIcon.getIntrinsicWidth(); int height = youIcon.getIntrinsicHeight(); youIcon.setBounds(-13, 0-height, -13+width, 0); GeoPoint location = new GeoPoint(40800816,-74122009); MapItemizedOverlay overlay = new MapItemizedOverlay(youIcon); OverlayItem item = new OverlayItem(location, "title", "snippet"); overlay.addOverlay(item); mapView.getOverlays().add(overlay); The R.drawable.marker_icon is defined as follows: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <selector xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <item android:state_focused="true" android:drawable="@drawable/marker_selected" /> <item android:state_selected="true" android:drawable="@drawable/marker_selected" /> <item android:drawable="@drawable/marker_normal" /> </selector> Now, to test the setFocus() behavior I put the button on the activity window, with the following onClick listener: Button focusBtn = (Button)findViewById(R.id.focusbtn); focusBtn.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { for(Overlay ov : mapView.getOverlays()) { if(ov.getClass().getSimpleName().equals("MapItemizedOverlay") == true) { MapItemizedOverlay miv = (MapItemizedOverlay)ov; if(miv.getFocus() == null) miv.setFocus(miv.getItem(0)); else miv.setFocus(null); break; } } mapView.invalidate(); } }); The expected behavior is: clicking on the button toggles marker selection. It works only once - clicking it for the first time selects the marker, clicking it again does not de-select the marker. The most weird thing about it is that after calling setFocus(null), getFocus() also returns null - like the overlay has no focused item (I debugged it). But even after calling mapView.invalidate() the marker is still drawn in 'selected'(focused) state.

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  • Compare NSArray with NSMutableArray adding delta objects to NSMutableArray

    - by Hooligancat
    I have an NSMutableArray that is populated with objects of strings. For simplicity sake we'll say that the objects are a person and each person object contains information about that person. Thus I would have an NSMutableArray that is populated with person objects: person.firstName person.lastName person.age person.height And so on. The initial source of data comes from a web server and is populated when my application loads and completes it's initialization with the server. Periodically my application polls the server for the latest list of names. Currently I am creating an NSArray of the result set, emptying the NSMutableArray and then re-populating the NSMutableArray with NSArray results before destroying the NSArray object. This seems inefficient to me on a few levels and also presents me with a problem losing table row references which I can work around, but might be creating more work for myself in doing so. The inefficiency seems to be that I should be able to compare the two arrays and end up with a filtered NSArray. I could then add the filtered set to the NSMutableArray. This would mean that I can simply append new data to the NSMutableArray instead of throwing everything out and re-populating. Conversely I would need to do the same filter in reverse to see if there are records that need removing from the NSMutableArray. Is there any method to do this in a more efficient manner? Have I overlooked something in the docs some place that refers to a simpler technique? I have a problem when I empty the NSMutableArray and re-populate in that any referencing tables lose their selected row state. I can track it and re-select it, but my theory is that using some form of compare and adding objects and removing objects instead of dealing with the whole array in one block might mean I keep my row reference (assuming the item isn't deleted of course). Any suggestions or help much appreciated. Update Would it be just as fast to do a fast enumeration over each comparing each line item as I go? It seems like an expensive operation, but with the last fast enumeration code it might be pretty efficient...

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  • Using MVC2 to update an Entity Framework v4 object with foreign keys fails

    - by jbjon
    With the following simple relational database structure: An Order has one or more OrderItems, and each OrderItem has one OrderItemStatus. Entity Framework v4 is used to communicate with the database and entities have been generated from this schema. The Entities connection happens to be called EnumTestEntities in the example. The trimmed down version of the Order Repository class looks like this: public class OrderRepository { private EnumTestEntities entities = new EnumTestEntities(); // Query Methods public Order Get(int id) { return entities.Orders.SingleOrDefault(d => d.OrderID == id); } // Persistence public void Save() { entities.SaveChanges(); } } An MVC2 app uses Entity Framework models to drive the views. I'm using the EditorFor feature of MVC2 to drive the Edit view. When it comes to POSTing back any changes to the model, the following code is called: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { // Get the current Order out of the database by ID Order order = orderRepository.Get(id); var orderItems = order.OrderItems; try { // Update the Order from the values posted from the View UpdateModel(order, ""); // Without the ValueProvider suffix it does not attempt to update the order items UpdateModel(order.OrderItems, "OrderItems.OrderItems"); // All the Save() does is call SaveChanges() on the database context orderRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = order.OrderID }); } catch (Exception e) { return View(order); // Inserted while debugging } } The second call to UpdateModel has a ValueProvider suffix which matches the auto-generated HTML input name prefixes that MVC2 has generated for the foreign key collection of OrderItems within the View. The call to SaveChanges() on the database context after updating the OrderItems collection of an Order using UpdateModel generates the following exception: "The operation failed: The relationship could not be changed because one or more of the foreign-key properties is non-nullable. When a change is made to a relationship, the related foreign-key property is set to a null value. If the foreign-key does not support null values, a new relationship must be defined, the foreign-key property must be assigned another non-null value, or the unrelated object must be deleted." When debugging through this code, I can still see that the EntityKeys are not null and seem to be the same value as they should be. This still happens when you are not changing any of the extracted Order details from the database. Also the entity connection to the database doesn't change between the act of Getting and the SaveChanges so it doesn't appear to be a Context issue either. Any ideas what might be causing this problem? I know EF4 has done work on foreign key properties but can anyone shed any light on how to use EF4 and MVC2 to make things easy to update; rather than having to populate each property manually. I had hoped the simplicity of EditorFor and DisplayFor would also extend to Controllers updating data. Thanks

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  • PopulateOnDemand does not work on data bound ASP.Net TreeView

    - by Shay Friedman
    Hi, I have a TreeView that is bound to a XmlDataSource control. I've added some TreeNodeBinding elements to define how I want the XML data to be shown. I have also added PopulateOnDemand=true to these TreeNodeBindings. However, doing so didn't change a thing and the entire XML tree is displayed. Moreover, the TreeNodePopulate event is not fired on node expand as well. Important information: I'm using ASP.NET 4. This is an example that reproduces the problem (very straight forward): <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" %> <script type="text/C#" runat="server"> protected void TreeView1_TreeNodePopulate(Object sender, TreeNodeEventArgs e) { // This method is never called... } </script> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:TreeView ID="TreeView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="XmlDataSource1" OnTreeNodePopulate="TreeView1_TreeNodePopulate" ExpandDepth="0"> <DataBindings> <asp:TreeNodeBinding DataMember="#" TextField="#" ValueField="#" PopulateOnDemand="true" /> </DataBindings> </asp:TreeView> <asp:XmlDataSource ID="XmlDataSource1" runat="server" DataFile="Sample.xml" /> </div> </form> </body> </html> The Sample.xml can be any xml file you want, it doesn't really matter. I tried to put a breakpoint within the TreeView1_TreeNodePopulate method and it was never hit. I also tried to: Set a TreeNodeBinding for each possible data member with PopulateOnDemand="true". Via code, go through all tree nodes and set their PopulateOnDemand property to true. Nothing worked. The only way the populate-on-demand thing worked was when I added nodes manually to the nodes instead of binding it to a data source. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

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  • ASP.NET web forms as ASP.NET MVC

    - by lopkiju
    I am sorry for possible misleading about the title, but I have no idea for a proper title. Feel free to edit. Anyway, I am using ASP.NET Web Forms, and maybe this isn't how web forms is intended to be used, but I like to construct and populate HTML elements manually. It gives me more control. I don't use DataBinding and that kind of stuff. I use SqlConnection, SqlCommand and SqlDataReader, set SQL string etc. and read the data from the DataReader. Old school if you like. :) I do create WebControls so that I don't have to copy-paste every time I need some control, but mostly, I need WebControls to render as HTML so I can append that HTML into some other function that renders the final output with the control inside. I know I can render a control with control.RenderControl(writer), but this can only be done in (pre)Render or RenderContents overrides. For example. I have a dal.cs file where is stored all static functions and voids that communicate with the database. Functions mostly return string so that it can be appended into some other function to render the final result. The reason I am doing like this is that I want to separate the coding from the HTML as much as I can so that I don't do <% while (dataReader.Read()) % in HTML and display the data. I moved this into a CodeBehind. I also use this functions to render in the HttpHandler for AJAX response. That works perfectly, but when I want to add a control (ASP.NET Server control (.cs extension, not .ascx)) I don't know how to do that, so I see my self writing the same control as function that returns string or another function inside that control that returns string and replaces a job that would RenderContents do, so that I can call that function when I need control to be appended into a another string. I know this may not be a very good practice. As I see all the tutorials/videos about the ASP.NET MVC, I think it suite my needs as with the MVC you have to construct everything (or most of it) by your self, which I am already doing right now with web forms. After this long intro, I want to ask how can I build my controls so I can use them as I mentioned (return string) or I have to forget about server controls and build the controls as functions and used them that way? Is that even possible with ASP.NET Server Controls (.cs extension) or am I right when I said that I am not using it right. To be clear, I am talking about how to properly use a web forms, but to avoid data binders because I want to construct everything by my self (render HTML in Code Behind). Someone might think that I am appending strings like "some " + "string", which I am not. I am using StringBuilder for that so there's no slowness. Every opinion is welcome.

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  • Why is Html.DropDownList() producing <select name="original_name.name"> instead of just <select name

    - by DanM
    I have an editor template whose job is to take a SelectList as its model and build a select element in html using the Html.DropDownList() helper extension. I'm trying to assign the name attribute for the select based on a ModelMetadata property. (Reason: on post-back, I need to bind to an object that has a different property name for this item than the ViewModel used to populate the form.) The problem I'm running into is that DropDownList() is appending the name I'm providing instead of replacing it, so I end up with names like categories.category instead of category. Here is some code for you to look at... SelectList.ascx <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<System.Web.Mvc.SelectList>" %> <%= Html.DropDownList( (string)ViewData.ModelMetadata.AdditionalValues["PropertyName"], Model) %> Resulting HTML <select id="SkillLevels_SkillLevel" name="SkillLevels.SkillLevel"> <option value="1">High</option> <option value="2">Med</option> <option selected="selected" value="3">Low</option> </select> Expected HTML <select id="SkillLevels_SkillLevel" name="SkillLevel"> <option value="1">High</option> <option value="2">Med</option> <option selected="selected" value="3">Low</option> </select> Also tried <%= Html.Encode((string)ViewData.ModelMetadata.AdditionalValues["PropertyName"])%> ...which resulted in "SkillLevel" (not "SkillLevels.SkillLevel"), proving that the data stored in metadata is correct. and <%= Html.DropDownList( (string)ViewData.ModelMetadata.AdditionalValues["PropertyName"], Model, new { name = (string)ViewData.ModelMetadata.AdditionalValues["PropertyName"] }) %> ...which still resulted in <select name=SkillLevels.Skilllevel>. Questions What's going on here? Why does it append the name instead of just using it? Can you suggest a good workaround? Update: I ended up writing a helper extension that literally does a find/replace on the html text: public static MvcHtmlString BindableDropDownListForModel(this HtmlHelper helper) { var propertyName = (string)helper.ViewData.ModelMetadata.AdditionalValues["PropertyName"]; var compositeName = helper.ViewData.ModelMetadata.PropertyName + "." + propertyName; var rawHtml = helper.DropDownList(propertyName, (SelectList)helper.ViewData.Model); var bindableHtml = rawHtml.ToString().Replace(compositeName, propertyName); return MvcHtmlString.Create(bindableHtml); }

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  • Reflection - SetValue of array within class?

    - by Jaymz87
    OK, I've been working on something for a while now, using reflection to accomplish a lot of what I need to do, but I've hit a bit of a stumbling block... I'm trying to use reflection to populate the properties of an array of a child property... not sure that's clear, so it's probably best explained in code: Parent Class: Public Class parent Private _child As childObject() Public Property child As childObject() Get Return _child End Get Set(ByVal value As child()) _child = value End Set End Property End Class Child Class: Public Class childObject Private _name As String Public Property name As String Get Return _name End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _name = value End Set End Property Private _descr As String Public Property descr As String Get Return _descr End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _descr = value End Set End Property End Class So, using reflection, I'm trying to set the values of the array of child objects through the parent object... I've tried several methods... the following is pretty much what I've got at the moment (I've added sample data just to keep things simple): Dim Results(1) As String Results(0) = "1,2" Results(1) = "2,3" Dim parent As New parent Dim child As childObject() = New childObject() {} Dim PropInfo As PropertyInfo() = child.GetType().GetProperties() Dim i As Integer = 0 For Each res As String In Results Dim ResultSet As String() = res.Split(",") ReDim child(i) Dim j As Integer = 0 For Each PropItem As PropertyInfo In PropInfo PropItem.SetValue(child, ResultSet(j), Nothing) j += 1 Next i += 1 Next parent.child = child This fails miserably on PropItem.SetValue with ArgumentException: Property set method not found. Anyone have any ideas? @Jon :- Thanks, I think I've gotten a little further, by creating individual child objects, and then assigning them to an array... The issue is now trying to get that array assigned to the parent object (using reflection). It shouldn't be difficult, but I think the problem comes because I don't necessarily know the parent/child types. I'm using reflection to determine which parent/child is being passed in. The parent always has only one property, which is an array of the child object. When I try assigning the child array to the parent object, I get a invalid cast exception saying it can't convert Object[] to . EDIT: Basically, what I have now is: Dim PropChildInfo As PropertyInfo() = ResponseObject.GetType().GetProperties() For Each PropItem As PropertyInfo In PropChildInfo PropItem.SetValue(ResponseObject, ResponseChildren, Nothing) Next ResponseObject is an instance of the parent Class, and ResponseChildren is an array of the childObject Class. This fails with: Object of type 'System.Object[]' cannot be converted to type 'childObject[]'.

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  • Still getting duplicate token error after calling DuplicateTokenEx for impersonated token

    - by atconway
    I'm trying to return a Sytem.IntPtr from a service call so that the client can use impersonation to call some code. My imersonation code works properly if not passing the token back from a WCF service. I'm not sure why this is not working. I get the following error: "Invalid token for impersonation - it cannot be duplicated." Here is my code that does work except when I try to pass the token back from a service to a WinForm C# client to then impersonate. [DllImport("advapi32.dll", EntryPoint = "DuplicateTokenEx")] public extern static bool DuplicateTokenEx(IntPtr ExistingTokenHandle, uint dwDesiredAccess, ref SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES lpThreadAttributes, int TokenType, int ImpersonationLevel, ref IntPtr DuplicateTokenHandle); private IntPtr tokenHandle = new IntPtr(0); private IntPtr dupeTokenHandle = new IntPtr(0); [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES { public int Length; public IntPtr lpSecurityDescriptor; public bool bInheritHandle; } public enum SecurityImpersonationLevel { SecurityAnonymous = 0, SecurityIdentification = 1, SecurityImpersonation = 2, SecurityDelegation = 3 } public enum TokenType { TokenPrimary = 1, TokenImpersonation = 2 } private const int MAXIMUM_ALLOWED = 0x2000000; [PermissionSetAttribute(SecurityAction.Demand, Name = "FullTrust")] public System.IntPtr GetWindowsUserToken(string UserName, string Password, string DomainName) { IntPtr tokenHandle = new IntPtr(0); IntPtr dupTokenHandle = new IntPtr(0); const int LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT = 0; //This parameter causes LogonUser to create a primary token. const int LOGON32_LOGON_INTERACTIVE = 2; //Initialize the token handle tokenHandle = IntPtr.Zero; //Call LogonUser to obtain a handle to an access token for credentials supplied. bool returnValue = LogonUser(UserName, DomainName, Password, LOGON32_LOGON_INTERACTIVE, LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT, ref tokenHandle); //Make sure a token was returned; if no populate the ResultCode and throw an exception: int ResultCode = 0; if (false == returnValue) { ResultCode = Marshal.GetLastWin32Error(); throw new System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception(ResultCode, "API call to LogonUser failed with error code : " + ResultCode); } SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES sa = new SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES(); sa.bInheritHandle = true; sa.Length = Marshal.SizeOf(sa); sa.lpSecurityDescriptor = (IntPtr)0; bool dupReturnValue = DuplicateTokenEx(tokenHandle, MAXIMUM_ALLOWED, ref sa, (int)SecurityImpersonationLevel.SecurityDelegation, (int)TokenType.TokenImpersonation, ref dupTokenHandle); int ResultCodeDup = 0; if (false == dupReturnValue) { ResultCodeDup = Marshal.GetLastWin32Error(); throw new System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception(ResultCode, "API call to DuplicateToken failed with error code : " + ResultCode); } //Return the user token return dupTokenHandle; } Any idea if I'm not using the call to DuplicateTokenEx correctly? According to the MSDN documentation I read here I should be able to create a token valid for delegation and use across the context on remote systems. When 'SecurityDelegation' is used, the server process can impersonate the client's security context on remote systems. Thanks!

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  • Lambda Expression to be used in Select() query

    - by jameschinnock
    Hi, I am trying to build a lambda expression, containing two assignments (as shown further down), that I can then pass to a Queryable.Select() method. I am trying to pass a string variable into a method and then use that variable to build up the lambda expression so that I can use it in a LINQ Select query. My reasoning behind it is that I have a SQL Server datasource with many column names, I am creating a charting application that will allow the user to select, say by typing in the column name, the actual column of data they want to view in the y-axis of my chart, with the x-axis always being the DateTime. Therefore, they can essentially choose what data they chart against the DateTime value (it’s a data warehouse type app). I have, for example, a class to store the retrieved data in, and hence use as the chart source of: public class AnalysisChartSource { public DateTime Invoicedate { get; set; } public Decimal yValue { get; set; } } I have (purely experimentaly) built an expression tree for the Where clause using the String value and that works fine: public void GetData(String yAxis) { using (DataClasses1DataContext db = new DataClasses1DataContext()) { var data = this.FunctionOne().AsQueryable<AnalysisChartSource>(); //just to get some temp data in.... ParameterExpression pe = Expression.Parameter(typeof(AnalysisChartSource), "p"); Expression left = Expression.MakeMemberAccess(pe, typeof(AnalysisChartSource).GetProperty(yAxis)); Expression right = Expression.Constant((Decimal)16); Expression e2 = Expression.LessThan(left, right); Expression expNew = Expression.New(typeof(AnalysisChartSource)); LambdaExpression le = Expression.Lambda(left, pe); MethodCallExpression whereCall = Expression.Call( typeof(Queryable), "Where", new Type[] { data.ElementType }, data.Expression, Expression.Lambda<Func<AnalysisChartSource, bool>>(e2, new ParameterExpression[] { pe })); } } However……I have tried a similar approach for the Select statement, but just can’t get it to work as I need the Select() to populate both X and Y values of the AnalysisChartSource class, like this: .Select(c => new AnalysisChartSource { Invoicedate = c.Invoicedate, yValue = c.yValue}).AsEnumerable(); How on earth can I build such an expression tree….or….possibly more to the point…..is there an easier way that I have missed entirely?

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  • Client-side templating frameworks to streamline using jQuery with REST/JSON

    - by Tauren
    I'm starting to migrate some html generation tasks from a server-side framework to the client. I'm using jQuery on the client. My goal is to get JSON data via a REST api and use this data to populate HTML into the page. Right now, when a user on my site clicks a link to My Projects, the server generates HTML like this: <dl> <dt>Clean Toilet</dt> <dd>Get off your butt and clean this filth!</dd> <dt>Clean Car</dt> <dd>I think there's something growing in there...</dd> <dt>Replace Puked on Baby Sheets</dt> </dl> I'm changing this so that clicking My Projects will now do a GET request that returns something like this: [ { "name":"Clean Car", "description":"I think there's something growing in there..." }, { "name":"Clean Toilets", "description":"Get off your butt and clean this filth!" }, { "name":"Replace Puked on Baby Sheets" } ] I can certainly write custom jQuery code to take that JSON and generate the HTML from it. This is not my question, and I don't need advice on how to do that. What I'd like to do is completely separate the presentation and layout from the logic (jquery code). I don't want to be creating DL, DT, and DD elements via jQuery code. I'd rather use some sort of HTML templates that I can fill the data in to. These templates could simply be HTML snippets that are hidden in the page that the application was loaded from. Or they could be dynamically loaded from the server (to support user specific layouts, i18n, etc.). They could be displayed a single time, as well as allow looping and repeating. Perhaps it should support sub-templates, if/then/else, and so forth. I have LOTS of lists and content on my site that are presented in many different ways. I'm looking to create a simple and consistent way to generate and display content without creating custom jQuery code for every different feature on my site. To me, this means I need to find or build a small framework on top of jQuery (probably as a plugin) that meets these requirements. The only sort of framework that I've found that is anything like this is jTemplates. I don't know how good it is, as I haven't used it yet. At first glance, I'm not thrilled by it's template syntax. Anyone know of other frameworks or plugins that I should look into? Any blog posts or other resources out there that discuss doing this sort of thing? I just want to make sure that I've surveyed everything out there before building it myself. Thanks!

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  • Where would I implement this array to pass?

    - by Keeano Martin
    I currently build an NSMutableArray in Class A.m within the ViewDidLoad Method. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; //Question Array Setup and Alloc stratToolsDict = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] initWithObjectsAndKeys:countButton,@"count",camerButton,@"camera",videoButton,@"video",textButton,@"text",probeButton,@"probe", nil]; stratTools = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"Tools",stratToolsDict, nil]; stratObjectsDict = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc]initWithObjectsAndKeys:stratTools,@"Strat1",stratTools,@"Strat2",stratTools,@"Strat3",stratTools,@"Strat4", nil]; stratObjects = [[NSMutableArray alloc]initWithObjects:@"Strategies:",stratObjectsDict,nil]; QuestionDict = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc]initWithObjectsAndKeys:stratObjects,@"Question 1?",stratObjects,@"Question 2?",stratObjects,@"Question 3?",stratObjects,@"Question 4?",stratObjects,@"Question 5?", nil]; //add strategys to questions QuestionsList = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; for (int i = 0; i < 1; i++) { [QuestionsList addObject:QuestionDict]; } NSLog(@"Object: %@",QuestionsList); At the end of this method you will see QuestionsList being initialized and now I need to send this Array to Class B. So I place its setters and getters using the @property and @Synthesize method. Class A.h @property (retain, nonatomic) NSMutableDictionary *stratToolsDict; @property (retain, nonatomic) NSMutableArray *stratTools; @property (retain, nonatomic) NSMutableArray *stratObjects; @property (retain, nonatomic) NSMutableDictionary *QuestionDict; @property (retain, nonatomic) NSMutableArray *QuestionsList; Class A.m @synthesize QuestionDict; @synthesize stratToolsDict; @synthesize stratObjects; @synthesize stratTools; @synthesize QuestionsList; I use the property method because I am going to call this variable from Class B and want to be able to assign it to another NSMutableArray. I then add the @property and @class for Class A to Class B.h as well as declare the NSMutableArray in the @interface. #import "Class A.h" @class Class A; @interface Class B : UITableViewController<UITableViewDataSource, UITableViewDelegate>{ NSMutableArray *QuestionList; Class A *arrayQuestions; } @property Class A *arrayQuestions; Then I call NSMutableArray from Class A in the Class B.m -(id)initWithStyle:(UITableViewStyle)style { if ([super initWithStyle:style] != nil) { //Make array arrayQuestions = [[Class A alloc]init]; QuestionList = arrayQuestions.QuestionsList; Right after this I Log the NSMutableArray to view values and check that they are there and it returns NIL. //Log test NSLog(@"QuestionList init method: %@",QuestionList); Info about Class B- Class B is a UIPopOverController for Class A, Class B has one View which holds a UITableView which I have to populate the results of Class A's NSMutableArray. Why is the NsMutableArray coming back as NIL? Ultimately would like some help figuring it out as well, it seems to really have me confused. Help is greatly appreciated!!

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