Search Results

Search found 15984 results on 640 pages for 'bubble event'.

Page 304/640 | < Previous Page | 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311  | Next Page >

  • UITableView: NSMutableArray not appearing in table

    - by Michael Orcutt
    I'm new to objective c and iPhone programming. I can't seem to figure out why no cells will fill when I run this code. The xml content displays in the console log and xcode displays no errors. Can any help? - (void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser didStartElement:(NSString *)elementName namespaceURI:(NSString *)namespaceURI qualifiedName:(NSString *)qName attributes:(NSDictionary *)attributeDict { if(![elementName compare:@"Goal"] ) { tempElement = [[xmlGoal alloc] init]; } else if(![elementName compare:@"Title"]) { currentAttribute = [NSMutableString string]; } else if(![elementName compare:@"Progress"]) { currentAttribute = [NSMutableString string]; } } - (void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser didEndElement:(NSString *)elementName namespaceURI:(NSString *)namespaceURI qualifiedName:(NSString *)qName { if(![elementName compare:@"Goal"]) { [xmlElementObjects addObject:tempElement]; } else if(![elementName compare:@"Title"]) { NSLog(@"The Title of this event is %@", currentAttribute); [tempElement setTitled:currentAttribute]; } else if(![elementName compare:@"Progress"]) { NSLog(@"The Progress of this event is %@", currentAttribute); [tempElement setProgressed:currentAttribute]; } } - (void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser foundCharacters:(NSString *)string { if(self.currentAttribute) { [self.currentAttribute appendString:string]; } } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return [xmlElementObjects count]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [mtableview dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Set up the cell... cell.textLabel.text = [xmlElementObjects objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; return cell; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { }

    Read the article

  • Best practice to create WPF wrapper application displaying screens on demand.

    - by Robbie
    Context: I'm developing a WPF application which will contain a lot of different "screens". Each screen contains a which on its turn contains all the visual elements. Some elements trigger events (e.g., checkboxes), a screen has individual resources, etc. The main application is "wrapper" around these screens: it contains a menubar, toolbar, statusbar and alike (in a DockPanel) and space to display one screen. Through the menubar, the user can choose which screen he wants to display. Goal: I want to dynamically load & display & (event)handle one screen in the space in the main application. I don't want to copy & paste all the "wrapper" stuff in all the different screens. And As I have many complex screens (around 300 - luckily auto-generated), I don't want to load all of them at the start of the application, but only upon request. Question: What do you recommend as the best way to realize this? What kind of things should I use and investigate: Pages or windows or User Control for the screens? Does this affect the event handling?

    Read the article

  • jquery function

    - by kevin
    Hello id like to get the current element firing this event inside the event, Ideally I need the id, selected value and class, Thanks in advance $(document).ready(function () { $("#positions select").live("change", function () { var id = $("#category_id").val(); //var id = this.val(); alert(id); $.getJSON("/Category/GetSubCategories/" + id, function (data) { if (data.length > 0) { alert(data.length); var position = document.getElementById('positions'); var tr = position.insertRow(7); var td1 = tr.insertCell(-1); var td = tr.insertCell(-1); var sel = document.createElement("select"); sel.name = 'sel'; sel.id = 'sel'; sel.setAttribute('class', 'category'); // $("positions select").live("change", function () { //}); td.appendChild(sel); $.each(data, function (GetSubCatergories, category) { $('#sel').append($("<option></option>"). attr("value", category.category_id). text(category.name)); }); } }); }); });

    Read the article

  • How to properly set button phase after dragging over button?

    - by irobeth
    I have a class (mxml) that extends Button while implementing drag/drop support. When I drag one of them onto another, the drag receiver stays stuck in its 'over' phase until I click on it (As if something about DragManager.acceptDragDrop is preventing the MouseEvent from getting to button) Is there a way to make a button re-evaluate its phase after the drop? I've tried fabricating a MouseEvent and sending it to rollOverHandler with no luck. This resembles the scenario in Button.as (lines 2606-2647) described like Drag over and up mouse down while out of Button roll over Button - stay in "up" phase mouse up while over Button - "over" phase continue with step 2 of first three sequences above This is my drag/drop handler private function dragDropHandler(event:DragEvent):void { trace("dropped"); var ib : IconButton = (event.dragInitiator as IconButton); if(this.data is Section) { if(ib.data is Item) { trace("ITEM"); //move an item into a section. var ae : AldonaEvent = new AldonaEvent(AldonaEvent.MOVE); ae.data = ib.data; dispatchEvent(ae); } else if(ib.data is Section) { trace("SECTION"); //change a section's parent. var ae : AldonaEvent = new AldonaEvent(AldonaEvent.MOVE); ae.data = ib.data; dispatchEvent(ae); } } //you can only drag stuff into sections. }

    Read the article

  • Lost in dates and timezones

    - by Sebastien
    I'm working on an application that stores conferences with their start and end date. Up until now, I was developing in Belgium and my server is in France, so everything is in the same timezone, no problem. But today, I'm in San Francisco, my server is in France and I noticed I have a bug. I'm setting dates from a Flex client (ActionScript automatically adapts date display according to client local timezone, which is GMT-8 for me today. My server runs on Hibernate and MySQL in France (GMT+1). So when I look at my database using phpMyAdmin, I see a date set to "2010-06-07 00:00:01" but in my Flex client it displays "2010-06-06 15:00:01". Ultimately, what I want is that the dates are displayed in the local timezone of the event, which is the date I set it to. So when I'm in Belgium and I set the start date of an event to be "2010-06-07 00:00:01" I want to retrieve it that way. But I'm lost as to what layer adapts what. Is timezone stored in DATETIME MySQL columns (I can't see it in MySQL)? Does Hibernate to anything to it when it transfers it to java.lang.Date that has Timezone information? And ultimately, what is the best way to solve this mess?

    Read the article

  • doubt in javascript name validation

    - by raja
    Hi: I am using the below validation for textbox which accepts only alphabets and maximum of 50 characters. I am passing the object directly in the parameter. The below case by giving the field name i.e "my_text" directly is working is working fine. But if i pass it in variable, that time it is not working(commented the if statement). Please help me. My requirement is each time when we enter the charater, the hardcode field name should not be used in the validation. <html><head> <script language=JavaScript> function check_length(my_form,fieldName) { alert(fieldName); // if (my_form.fieldName.value.length >= maxLen) { if (my_form.my_text.value.length >= maxLen) { var msg = "You have reached your maximum limit of characters allowed"; alert(msg); my_form.my_text.value = my_form.my_text.value.substring(0, maxLen); } else{ var keyCode = window.event.keyCode; if ((keyCode < 65 || keyCode > 90) && (keyCode < 97 || keyCode > 123) && keyCode != 32) { window.event.returnValue = false; alert("Enter only Alphabets"); } my_form.text_num.value = maxLen - my_form.my_text.value.length;} } </script> </head> <body> <form name=my_form method=post> <input type="text" onKeyPress=check_length(this.form,this.name); name=my_text rows=4 cols=30> <br> <input size=1 value=50 name=text_num> Characters Left </form> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Why am I getting "Message sent to deallocated instance" in Objective-C?

    - by Dave C
    I have several buttons on my app that are being created dynamically. They are all pointed at the button click event when pressed. When the button pressed method is called, the sender's tag (int value) is parsed into the controller's house ID. It works with one of the buttons — the first one created, to be specific — but the others throw the following error: -[CFNumber intValue]: message sent to deallocated instance 0xc4bb0ff0 I am not releasing these buttons anywhere in my code. I haven't set them to autorelease or anything like that. I'm just wondering why they are doing this on the click. The button click event: - (IBAction) ButtonClick: (id) sender { HouseholdViewController *controller = [[HouseholdViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"HouseholdViewController" bundle:nil]; controller.delegate = self; controller.HouseID = [(NSInteger)[(UIButton *)sender tag] intValue]; //this line throws an error controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; } Where I am creating the buttons: UIButton *button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; button.frame = CGRectMake(MyLongInScreenCoords, MyLatInScreenCoords, 50, 50); UIImage *buttonImageNormal = [UIImage imageNamed:@"blue_pin.png"]; UIImage *strechableButtonImageNormal = [buttonImageNormal stretchableImageWithLeftCapWidth:50 topCapHeight:50]; [button setBackgroundImage:strechableButtonImageNormal forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [self.view addSubview:button]; button.tag = [NSNumber numberWithInt:[[words objectAtIndex: i] intValue]]; ButtonPoints[CurrentHouseCount][0] = button; ButtonPoints[CurrentHouseCount][1] = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(MyActualLat, MyActualLong)]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(ButtonClick:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; CurrentHouseCount++;

    Read the article

  • calling java script function then C# function after clicking ASP.NET button

    - by Eyla
    I have this serious: I have ASP.NET page, This page contents Update panel with ASP.NET control. I have Java script function to do validation so when I click the button I will use onclientclick to call the java function to do the validation and after this one done should call then event click button function from code behind. I tried vew methods but they did not work for me. here is sample of my code that after I click the button onclientclick will call the java script function for validation and if the validation is OK should call onclick event. .................... java script function ........................ <script type="text/javascript" > function add(){ if (tag == trye) { document.getElementById('<%=btnInfor.ClientID%>').click(); alert("DataAdded") } else { alert("Requiered Field Missing.") return false; } } </script> ..................... ASP.NET button ................... <asp:Button ID="btnInfor" runat="server" Text="Add Information" Style="position: absolute; top: 1659px; left: 433px;" onclientclick="JavaScript: return myAdd()" /> .................... code behind in C# ...................... protected void btnInfor_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { \\mycode }

    Read the article

  • stop android emulator call

    - by Shahzad Younis
    I am working on an Android application, having functionality like voicemail. I am using BroadcastReceiver to get dialing events. I have to get the event "WHEN CALL IS UNANSWERED (not picked after few rings) FROM RECEIVER". I will do some actions on caller end against this event. I am using AVD emulator, and I do call from one instance to another instance and it calls perfectly, but the problem is: It continuously calls until I reject or accept the call. This way I cannot detect that "CALL IS UNANSWERED AFTER A NUMBER OF RINGS". So I want the Caller emulator to drop the call after a number of rings (if unanswered) like a normal phone. I can do it (drop the call after some time) by writing some code, but I need the natural functionality of phone in the emulator. Can anyone please guide me? Is there any settings in the emulator? Or something else? The code is shown below in case it helps: public class MyPhoneReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { Bundle extras = intent.getExtras(); if (extras != null) { String state = "my call state = " + extras.getString(TelephonyManager.EXTRA_STATE); Log.w("DEBUG", state); } }

    Read the article

  • ASP.net MVC Routing on Postback

    - by Mark Kadlec
    In my ASP.net MVC View I have a dropdown that I want to get details on selection and asynchronously update a div. My aspx is as follows: <% using (Html.BeginForm("Index", "Portal", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "TheForm" })) {%> <h2>Index</h2> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Details", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "mpkResults" })) { %> <%=Html.DropDownList("Docs", (IEnumerable<SelectListItem>)ViewData["Docs"], new { onchange = "document.getElementById('TheForm').submit();" })%> <p><input type="submit" value="Details" /></p> <% } %> <div id="mpkResults" style="margin:10px 0px 0px 0px;"></div> ... The onchange event fires correctly on selection of the dropdown, but instead of the Details method in my code behind firing, it hits my Index method. Why is the details method not getting hit on the onchange event? My Details() method in the controller is: public ActionResult Details() { ... < It never gets here, just goes to the index() method } It's a little frustrating right now since I'm sure it is a simple mistake but not sure what it could be. I looked at the Source of my page and sure enough, the form looks like it should be routing to the Details Action: <form action="/Portal/Details" method="post" ... Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • .NET MissingMethodException occuring on one of thousands of end-user machines -- any insight?

    - by Yoooder
    This issue has me baffled, it's affecting a single user (to my knowledge) and hasn't been reproduced by us... The user is receiving a MissingMethodException, our trace file indicates it's occuring after we create a new instance of a component, when we're calling an Initialize/Setup method in preparation to have it do work (InitializeWorkerByArgument in the example) The Method specified by the error is an interface method, which a base class implements and classes derived from the base class can override as-needed The user has the latest release of our application All the provided code is shipped within a single assembly Here's a very distilled version of the component: class Widget : UserControl { public void DoSomething(string argument) { InitializeWorkerByArgument(argument); this.Worker.DoWork(); } private void InitializeWorkerByArgument(string argument) { switch (argument) { case "SomeArgument": this.Worker = new SomeWidgetWorker(); break; } // The issue I'm tracking down would have occured during "new SomeWidgetWorker()" // and would have resulted in a missing method exception stating that // method "DoWork" could not be found. this.Worker.DoWorkComplete += new EventHandler(Worker_DoWorkComplete); } private IWidgetWorker Worker { get; set; } void Worker_DoWorkComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("All done"); } } interface IWidgetWorker { void DoWork(); event EventHandler DoWorkComplete; } abstract class BaseWorker : IWidgetWorker { virtual public void DoWork() { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000); RaiseDoWorkComplete(this, null); } internal void RaiseDoWorkComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (DoWorkComplete != null) { DoWorkComplete(this, null); } } public event EventHandler DoWorkComplete; } class SomeWidgetWorker : BaseWorker { public override void DoWork() { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(2000); RaiseDoWorkComplete(this, null); } }

    Read the article

  • How can I find out if the MainActivity is being paused from my Java class?

    - by quinestor
    I am using motion sensor detection in my application. My design is this: a class gets the sensor services references from the main activity and then it implements SensorEventListener. That is, the MainActivity does not listen for sensor event changes: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // ... code mSensorManager = (SensorManager) getSystemService(Context.SENSOR_SERVICE); mAccelerometer = mSensorManager.getDefaultSensor(Sensor.TYPE_ACCELEROMETER); // The following is my java class, it does not extends any android fragment/activty mShakeUtil = new ShakeUtil(mSensorManager,mAccelerometer,this); // ..more code.. } I can't redesign ShakeUtil so it is a fragment nor activity, unfortunately. Now to illustrate the problem consider: MainActivity is on its way to be destroyed/paused. I.e screen rotation ShakeUtil's onSensorChanged(SensorEvent event) gets called in the process.. One of the things that happen inside onSensorChanged is a dialog interaction, which gives the error: java.lang.IllegalStateException: Can not perform this action after onSaveInstanceState When the previous happens between MainActivity's onSaveInstanceState and onPause. I know this can be prevented if I successfully detect that MainActivity is being pause in ShakeUtil. How can I detect that MainActivity is being paused or onSaveInstanceState was called from ShakeUtil? Alternatively, how can I avoid this issue without making Shakeutil extend activity? So far I have tried with flag variables but that isn't good enough, I guess these are not atomic operations. I tried using Activity's isChangingConfigurations(), but I get an undocummented "NoSuchMethodFound" error.. I am unregistering the sensors by calling ShakeUtil when onPause in main ACtivity

    Read the article

  • Add class to textbox when invalid, using .Net Validators

    - by CoreyT
    I'm working on a multipage form in .Net using AJAX (UpdatePanels). I am stuck right now trying to get a class added to the textbox that is invalid to basically highlight it red. I found a sample online using this code: $("span.invalid").bind("DOMAttrModified propertychange", function (e) { // Exit early if IE because it throws this event lots more if (e.originalEvent.propertyName && e.originalEvent.propertyName != "isvalid") return; var controlToValidate = $("#" + this.controltovalidate); var validators = controlToValidate.attr("Validators"); if (validators == null) return; var isValid = true; $(validators).each(function () { if (this.isvalid !== true) { isValid = false; } }); if (isValid) { controlToValidate.removeClass("invalid"); } else { controlToValidate.addClass("invalid"); } }); That works perfectly, in IE only. For some reason this code does not ever fire in Firefox. I've looked up the DOMAttrModified event and it sounds like this should work in Firefox, hence it being in the code. I must be missing something though because it does not work. I'm open to other solutions for what I am trying to accomplish here if anyone has something good. Basically the form is 3 pages right now. Page 1 has a variable number of fields that require validation. It could be 5, or 13 fields, based on a checkbox. Page 2 has another set of fields that need to be validated separately. Obviously when I am on page 1 it should not try to validate page 2, and vice versa. Pleas help with either some help to fix the code I have, or an alternative.

    Read the article

  • [AS3] Calling Php Script with UTF-8 POST variables

    - by kornelijepetak
    AS3 documentation says that Strings in AS3 are in UTF-16 format. There is a textbox on a Flash Clip where user can type some data. When a button is clicked, I want this data to be sent to a php script. I have everything set up, but it seems that the PHP script gets the data in UTF-16 format. The data in the database (which is utf-8) shows some unrecognizable characters (where special characters are used), meaning that the data has not been sent in a correct encoding. var variables:URLVariables=new URLVariables; var varSend:URLRequest=new URLRequest("http://website.com/systematic/accept.php"); varSend.method=URLRequestMethod.POST; varSend.data=variables; var varLoader:URLLoader=new URLLoader; varLoader.dataFormat=URLLoaderDataFormat.VARIABLES; varLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, completeHandler); When submit button is clicked, the following handler gets executed. function sendData(event:MouseEvent) : void { // i guess here is the problem (tbName.text is UTF-16) variables.name = tbName.text; varLoader.load(varSend); } Is there any way to send the data so that PHP script gets the data in UTF-8 format? (PHP script is retrieving the value using the $_POST['name']).

    Read the article

  • SQLBrowser will not start

    - by Oliver
    SQL Server 2005 x64 on Windows Server 2003 x64, with multiple instances (default + 2 named). Engineers moved server to a different domain. Since then, cannot get SQLBrowser to start. Still able to query the default instance, and can access named instances by port (TCP:hostname,port#). When on server, can use SSMS to connect to the instances, all is well from that perspective. No errors in the SQL Server logs. As SQLBrowser is starting, an entry in EventViewer.Application says that one of the named instances has an invalid configuration, but I haven't been able to figure out what is invalid. Startup continues, and next message says "The SQLBrowser service was unable to establish SQL instance and connectivity discovery." Next, it enables instance and connectivity discovery support; next, another message about that same named instance having an invalid configuration; then an event says that SQLBrowser has started; last, an event shows the SQLBrowser service has shutdown. I got SQLBrowser to get past the issue with the first named instance by temporarily renaming a registry entry, and now the second named instance can be accessed by name rather than port. Still, cannot access the first named instance by name. Advice?

    Read the article

  • How can I cluster short messages [Tweets] based on topic ? [Topic Based Clustering]

    - by Jagira
    Hello, I am planning an application which will make clusters of short messages/tweets based on topics. The number of topics will be limited like Sports [ NBA, NFL, Cricket, Soccer ], Entertainment [ movies, music ] and so on... I can think of two approaches to this Ask for users to tag questions like Stackoverflow does. Users can select tags from a predefined list of tags. Then on server side I will cluster them on based of tags. Pros:- Simple design. Less complexity in code. Cons:- Choices for users will be restricted. Clusters will not be dynamic. If a new event occurs, the predefined tags will miss it. Take the message, delete the stopwords [ predefined in a dictionary ] and apply some clustering algorithm to make a cluster and depending on its popularity, display the cluster. The cluster will be maintained according to its sustained popularity. New messages will be skimmed and assigned to corresponding clusters. Pros:- Dynamic clustering based on the popularity of the event/accident. Cons:- Increased complexity. More server resources required. I would like to know whether there are any other approaches to this problem. Or are there any ways of improving the above mentioned methods? Also suggest some good clustering algorithms.I think "K-Nearest Clustering" algorithm is apt for this situation.

    Read the article

  • Using complex where clause in NHibernate mapping layer

    - by JLevett
    I've used where clauses previously in the mapping layer to prevent certain records from ever getting into my application at the lowest level possible. (Mainly to prevent having to re-write lots of lines of code to filter out the unwanted records) These have been simple, one column queries, like so this.Where("Invisible = 0"); However a scenario has appeared which requires the use of an exists sql query. exists (select ep_.Id from [Warehouse].[dbo].EventPart ep_ where Id = ep_.EventId and ep_.DataType = 4 In the above case I would usually reference the parent table Event with a short name, i.e. event_.Id however as Nhibernate generates these short names dynamically it's impossible to know what it's going to be. So instead I tried using just Id, from above ep_ where Id = ep_.EventId When the code is run, because of the dynamic short names the EventPart table short name ep_ is has another short name prefixed to it, event0_.ep_ where event0_ refers to the parent table. This causes an SQL error because of the . in between event0_ and ep_ So in my EventMap I have the following this.Where("(exists (select ep_.Id from [isnapshot.Warehouse].[dbo].EventPart ep_ where Id = ep_.EventId and ep_.DataType = 4)"); but when it's generated it creates this select cast(count(*) as INT) as col_0_0_ from [isnapshot.Warehouse].[dbo].Event event0_ where (exists (select ep_.Id from [isnapshot.Warehouse].[dbo].EventPart event0_.ep_ where event0_.Id = ep_.EventId and ep_.DataType = 4) It has correctly added the event0_ to the Id Was the mapping layer where clause built to handle this and if so where am I going wrong?

    Read the article

  • iPhone crashing when presenting modal view controller

    - by Michael Waterfall
    I'm trying to display a modal view straight after another view has been presented modally (the second is a loading view that appears). - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; // Show load LoadViewController *loader = [[LoadViewController alloc] init]; [self presentModalViewController: loader animated:NO]; [loader release]; } But when I do this I get a "Program received signal: "EXC_BAD_ACCESS"." error. The stack trace is: 0 0x30b43234 in -[UIWindowController transitionViewDidComplete:fromView:toView:] 1 0x3095828e in -[UITransitionView notifyDidCompleteTransition:] 2 0x3091af0d in -[UIViewAnimationState sendDelegateAnimationDidStop:finished:] 3 0x3091ad7c in -[UIViewAnimationState animationDidStop:finished:] 4 0x0051e331 in run_animation_callbacks 5 0x0051e109 in CA::timer_callback 6 0x302454a0 in CFRunLoopRunSpecific 7 0x30244628 in CFRunLoopRunInMode 8 0x32044c31 in GSEventRunModal 9 0x32044cf6 in GSEventRun 10 0x309021ee in UIApplicationMain 11 0x00002154 in main at main.m:14 Any ideas? I'm totally stumped! The loading view is empty so there's definitely nothing going on in there that's causing the error. Is it something to do with launching 2 views modally in the same event loop or something? Thanks, Mike Edit: Very strange... I have modified it slightly so that the loading view is shown after a tiny delay, and this works fine! So it appears to be something within the same event loop! - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; // Show load [self performSelector:@selector(doit) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.1]; } - (void)doit { [self presentModalViewController:loader animated:YES]; }

    Read the article

  • jQuery: Targeting elements added via *non-jQuery* AJAX before any Javascript events fire? Beyond th

    - by peteorpeter
    Working on a Wicket application that adds markup to the DOM after onLoad via Wicket's built-in AJAX for an auto-complete widget. We have an IE6 glitch that means I need to reposition the markup coming in, and I am trying to avoid tampering with the Wicket javascript... blah blah blah... here's what I'm trying to do: New markup arrives in the DOM (I don't have access to a callback) Somehow I know this, so I fire my code. I tried this, hoping the new tags would trigger onLoad events: $("selectorForNewMarkup").live("onLoad", function(){ //using jQuery 1.4.1 //my code }); ...but have become educated that onLoad only fires on the initial page load. Is there another event fired when elements are added to the DOM? Or another way to sense changes to the DOM? Everything I've bumped into on similar issues with new markup additions, they have access to the callback function on .load() or similar, or they have a real javascript event to work with and live() works perfectly. Is this a pipe dream?

    Read the article

  • Animate and form rows, arrays, AS3

    - by VideoDnd
    Question How can I animate and form rows together? Explanation One 'for loop' is for animation, the other 'for loop' is for making rows. I want to understand how to use arrays and create a row of sprite animations. 'for loop' for animation //FRAMES ARRAY //THIS SETS UP MY ANIMATION FOR TIMER EVENT var frames:Array = [ new Frame1(), new Frame2(), new Frame3(), new Frame4(), new Frame5(), new Frame6(), new Frame7(), new Frame8(), new Frame9(), new Frame0(), ]; for each (var frame:Sprite in frames) { addChild(frame); } 'for loop' for rows //THIS MAKES A ROW OF DISPLAY OBJECTS var numberOfClips:Number = 11; var xStart:Number = 0; var yStart:Number = 0; var xVal:Number = xStart; var xOffset:Number = 2; for (var $:Number=0; $<numberOfClips; $++) { //DUDE ARRAY var dude:Array = frames; dude.y = yStart +11; dude.x = xVal +55; xVal = dude.x + dude.width + this.xOffset; } timer var timer:Timer = new Timer(100); timer.addEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER, countdown); function countdown(event:TimerEvent) { var currentFrame:int = timer.currentCount % frames.length; for (var i:int = 0; i < frames.length; ++i) { frames[i].visible = (i == currentFrame); } } timer.start(); counter experiment My new class I'm working on loops through 10 different display objects that are numbers. For those following, I'm trying to make something like NumbersView.

    Read the article

  • What Getters and Setters should and shouldn't do.

    - by cyclotis04
    I've run into a lot of differing opinions on Getters and Setters lately, so I figured I should make it into it's own question. A previous question of mine received an immediate comment (later deleted) that stated setters shouldn't have any side effects, and a SetProperty method would be a better choice. Indeed, this seems to be Microsoft's opinion as well. However, their properties often raise events, such as Resized when a form's Width or Height property is set. OwenP also states "you shouldn't let a property throw exceptions, properties shouldn't have side effects, order shouldn't matter, and properties should return relatively quickly." Yet Michael Stum states that exceptions should be thrown while validating data within a setter. If your setter doesn't throw an exception, how could you effectively validate data, as so many of the answers to this question suggest? What about when you need to raise an event, like nearly all of Microsoft's Control's do? Aren't you then at the mercy of whomever subscribed to your event? If their handler performs a massive amount of information, or throws an error itself, what happens to your setter? Finally, what about lazy loading within the getter? This too could violate the previous guidelines. What is acceptable to place in a getter or setter, and what should be kept in only accessor methods?

    Read the article

  • How to place a DIV over jw player when certain condition is met?

    - by Derek
    JW player can either playback video in flash or html5. I use a countdown timer in my app between certain videos. Right now the countdown timer is being displayed in a div beneath the jw player. I need to get that timer displayed in a div that covers the entire jw player interface. I'm stuck and could use some help. Here is some of the javascript code: jwplayer("container").setup({ 'file': 'devplaylist.xml', 'flashplayer': 'js/player.swf', 'plugins': { './countdown.js': {} }, 'repeat': 'list', 'autostart': true, 'height': 390, 'width': 720, events: { onPlaylist: function(event){ ... ... } onPlaylistItem: function(event){ ... ... var minutes = (Math.floor(time/60 )); var seconds = time % 60; if (seconds < 10) seconds = "0" + seconds; var text = minutes + ":" + seconds; document.getElementById('resttimer').innerHTML = text; //I need to have a DIV display the value of text (the countdown time) //directly over the jw player time--; }, 1000); ... ...} Any help is appreciated, DK

    Read the article

  • Flex 3 - Image cache

    - by BS_C3
    Hello Community. I'm doing an Image Cache following this method: http://www.brandondement.com/blog/2009/08/18/creating-an-image-cache-with-actionscript-3/ I copied the two as classes, renaming them CachedImage and CachedImageMap. The thing is that I don't want to store the image after being loaded a first time, but while the application is being loaded. For that, I've created a function that is called by the application pre-initialize event. This is how it looks: private function loadImages():void { var im:CachedImage = new CachedImage; var sources:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection; for each(var cs in divisionData.division.collections.collection.collectionSelection) { sources.addItem(cs.toString()); } for each(var se in divisionData.division.collections.collection.searchEngine) { sources.addItem(se.toString()); } for each( var source:String in sources) { im.source = source; im.load(source); } } The sources are properly retrieved. However, even if I use the load method, I do not get the "complete" event... As if the image is not being loaded... How is that? Any help would be appreciated. Thanks in advance. Regards, BS_C3

    Read the article

  • how to assign the html value to the php variable without post or get method

    - by Meena
    hi , in my program i had a php value $test = 2 using this value i done some operation for example: in my page i had a 2 block A and B and one select box. If the test value is A it enable the div A, if the value is B it hide div A and also i am able to show and hide the div using the select box onchange event. please check my sample code given below $test = $_GET["id"]; <select name="hideme" id="hideme" onchange="enableme();"> <option value="A">Show</option> <option value="B">Hide</option> </select> if($test == 'A') { <div id="div1" name="div1"> xxxxxxxxxxxxx </div> } Js Function : function enableme() { if(document.getElementByID('hideme').value == "A") { document.getElementById.style.display ="block"; } else { document.getElementById.style.display ="none"; } } my issue is at fist time using the $test($_get) value it show the correct div but the on change event is not working because of , if condition. If i remove the if condition then it show div A even if the value of the $test is B. how could i handle both. Please Help me

    Read the article

  • Non standard interaction among two tables to avoid very large merge

    - by riko
    Suppose I have two tables A and B. Table A has a multi-level index (a, b) and one column (ts). b determines univocally ts. A = pd.DataFrame( [('a', 'x', 4), ('a', 'y', 6), ('a', 'z', 5), ('b', 'x', 4), ('b', 'z', 5), ('c', 'y', 6)], columns=['a', 'b', 'ts']).set_index(['a', 'b']) AA = A.reset_index() Table B is another one-column (ts) table with non-unique index (a). The ts's are sorted "inside" each group, i.e., B.ix[x] is sorted for each x. Moreover, there is always a value in B.ix[x] that is greater than or equal to the values in A. B = pd.DataFrame( dict(a=list('aaaaabbcccccc'), ts=[1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 7, 8, 1, 2, 4, 5, 8, 9])).set_index('a') The semantics in this is that B contains observations of occurrences of an event of type indicated by the index. I would like to find from B the timestamp of the first occurrence of each event type after the timestamp specified in A for each value of b. In other words, I would like to get a table with the same shape of A, that instead of ts contains the "minimum value occurring after ts" as specified by table B. So, my goal would be: C: ('a', 'x') 4 ('a', 'y') 7 ('a', 'z') 5 ('b', 'x') 7 ('b', 'z') 7 ('c', 'y') 8 I have some working code, but is terribly slow. C = AA.apply(lambda row: ( row[0], row[1], B.ix[row[0]].irow(np.searchsorted(B.ts[row[0]], row[2]))), axis=1).set_index(['a', 'b']) Profiling shows the culprit is obviously B.ix[row[0]].irow(np.searchsorted(B.ts[row[0]], row[2]))). However, standard solutions using merge/join would take too much RAM in the long run. Consider that now I have 1000 a's, assume constant the average number of b's per a (probably 100-200), and consider that the number of observations per a is probably in the order of 300. In production I will have 1000 more a's. 1,000,000 x 200 x 300 = 60,000,000,000 rows may be a bit too much to keep in RAM, especially considering that the data I need is perfectly described by a C like the one I discussed above. How would I improve the performance?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311  | Next Page >