Search Results

Search found 9178 results on 368 pages for 'nth element'.

Page 304/368 | < Previous Page | 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311  | Next Page >

  • Quering container with Linq + group by ?

    - by Prix
    public class ItemList { public int GuID { get; set; } public int ItemID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public entityType Status { get; set; } public class Waypoint { public int Zone { get; set; } public int SubID { get; set; } public int Heading { get; set; } public float PosX { get; set; } public float PosY { get; set; } public float PosZ { get; set; } } public List<Waypoint> Routes = new List<Waypoint>(); } I have a list of items using the above class and now I need to group it by ItemID and join the first entry of Routes of each iqual ItemID. So for example, let's say on my list I have: GUID ItemID ListOfRoutes 1 23 first entry only 2 23 first entry only 3 23 first entry only 4 23 first entry only 5 23 first entry only 6 23 first entry only 7 23 first entry only Means I have to group entries 1 to 7 as 1 Item with all the Routes entries. So I would have one ItemID 23 with 7 Routes on it where those routes are the first element of that given GUID Routes List. My question is if it is possible using LINQ to make a statment to do something like that this: var query = from ItemList entry in myList where status.Contains(entry.Status) group entry by entry.ItemID into result select new { items = new { ID = entry.ItemID, Name = entry.Name }, routes = from ItemList m in entry group m.Routes.FirstOrDefault() by n.NpcID into m2 }; So basicly I would have list of unique IDS information with a inner list of all the first entry of each GUID route that had the same ItemID.

    Read the article

  • jQuery: Inserting li items one by one?

    - by Legend
    I wrote the following (part of a jQuery plugin) to insert a set of items from a JSON object into a <ul> element. ... query: function() { ... $.ajax({ url: fetchURL, type: 'GET', dataType: 'jsonp', timeout: 5000, error: function() { self.html("Network Error"); }, success: function(json) { //Process JSON $.each(json.results, function(i, item) { $("<li></li>") .html(mHTML) .attr('id', "div_li"+i) .attr('class', "divliclass") .prependTo("#" + "div_ul"); $(slotname + "div_li" + i).hide(); $(slotname + "div_li" + i).show("slow") } } }); } }); }, ... Doing this maybe adding the <li> items one by one theoretically but when I load the page, everything shows up instantaneously. Instead, is there an efficient way to make them appear one by one more slowly? I'll explain with a small example: If I have 3 items, this code is making all the 3 items appear instantaneously (at least to my eyes). I want something like 1 fades in, then 2 fades in, then 3 (something like a newsticker perhaps). Anyone has a suggestion?

    Read the article

  • XSLT: use parameters in xls:sort attributes

    - by fireeyedboy
    How do I apply a parameter to a select and order attribute in a xsl:sort element? I'ld like to do this dynamic with PHP with something like this: $xsl = new XSLTProcessor(); $xslDoc = new DOMDocument(); $xslDoc->load( $this->_xslFilePath ); $xsl->importStyleSheet( $xslDoc ); $xsl->setParameter( '', 'sortBy', 'viewCount' ); $xsl->setParameter( '', 'order', 'descending' ); But I'ld first have to now how to get this to work. I tried the following, but it gives me a 'compilation error' : 'invalid value $order for order'. $sortBy doesn't seem to do anything either: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output method="xml" indent="yes"/> <xsl:param name="sortBy" select="viewCount"/> <xsl:param name="order" select="descending"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <media> <xsl:for-each select="media/medium"> <xsl:sort select="$sortBy" order="$order"/> // <someoutput> </xsl:for-each> </media> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet>

    Read the article

  • problem parsing with XMLReader (using ReadSubTree)

    - by no9
    Hello. Im trying to build a simple XML to Controls parser in my CF application. In the code below the string im trying to parse looks like this: "<Panel><Label>Text1</Label><Label>Text2</Label></Panel>" The result i want with this code would be a Panel with two labels. But the problem is when the first Label is parsed the subreader.Read() returns false in the ParsePanelElementh method, and so it falls out of while statement. Since im new into XMLReader i must be missing something very simple. Any help would be apreciated ! peace. static class XMLParser { public static Control Parse(string aXmlString) { XmlReader reader = XmlReader.Create(new StringReader(aXmlString)); return ParseXML(reader); } public static Control ParseXML(XmlReader reader) { using (reader) { while (reader.Read()) { if (reader.NodeType == XmlNodeType.Element) { if (reader.LocalName == "Panel") { return ParsePanelElement(reader); } if (reader.LocalName == "Label") { return ParseLabelElement(reader); } } } } return null; } private static Control ParsePanelElement(XmlReader reader) { var myPanel = new Panel(); XmlReader subReader = reader.ReadSubtree(); while (subReader.Read()) { Control subControl = ParseXML(subReader); if (subControl != null) { myPanel.Controls.Add(subControl); }; } return myPanel; } private static Control ParseLabelElement(XmlReader reader) { reader.Read(); var myString = reader.Value as string; var myLabel = new Label(); myLabel.Text = myString; return myLabel; } }

    Read the article

  • DOJO : How do you reinitiate form elements after ajax call ?

    - by Dural
    I'm trying to do a couple of things using Zend Framework & Dojo Toolkit, and any help would be appreciated. Here's the problem: I have a form that is rendered with the Zend Framework form class, which has an ajax radio button selection. Clicking one of these radio buttons will send an ajax request to another controller, which has no layout, just a rendered form. The ajax request will then populate a div with the new form options. Problem is, when I replace the innerHTML of the div with the ajax response, all the form inputs and elements are not inheriting the same Dojo styling and form validation. I was wondering if there is a way to reinitate form elements after an ajax call? I have tried to use the code attached which I found and modified slightly for this example, however it did not work. If I use the line dojo.parser.parse( div ); nothing changes (rg_adress in the example is the ID of a form element that is placed on the DOM). Here is the console.log of rg_address: <input type="text" dojotype="dijit.form.ValidationTextBox" required="1" invalidmessage="The first name of the recipient" value="" name="rg_address" id="rg_address" class="textbox"/> onClick=' dojo.xhrGet( { url: "/transfer/newrecipient/", handleAs: "text", timeout: 10000, // Time in milliseconds // The LOAD function will be called on a successful response. load: function(response, ioArgs) { $("#newRecipient").html(response); $("#newPayMethod").html(""); $("#newPayDetail").html(""); var div = dojo.byId("rg_address"); console.log( div ); dojo.parser.parse( div ); return response; }, // The ERROR function will be called in an error case. error: function(response, ioArgs) { $("#newRecipient").html("Error loading registration form"); $("#newPayMethod").html(""); $("#newPayDetail").html(""); return response; } });' Thanks, Dural

    Read the article

  • Asp.net MVC error with custom HttpModule

    - by Robert Koritnik
    I have a custom authentication HttpModule that is pretty strait forward. But I want it to run only for managed requests (and not for static ones). Asp.net MVC automatically adds configuration section for IIS7 web server: <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false" /> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true"> <remove name="ScriptModule" /> <remove name="UrlRoutingModule" /> <add name="ScriptModule" preCondition="managedHandler" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptModule,..." /> <add name="UrlRoutingModule" type="System.Web.Routing.UrlRoutingModule,..." /> </modules> <handlers> ... </handlers> </system.webServer> When I add my own module I also set its preCondition="managedHandler", but since there's runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true" on parent <module> element my preCondition is ignored by design (as I read on MSDN). When I try to set though: <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="false"> I get this error: [image no longer valid] What else (which other module) do I have to set in web.config to make it work with this setting: <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="false">

    Read the article

  • How can I change the CSS visibility style for elements that are not on the screen?

    - by RenderIn
    I have a lot of data being placed into a <DIV> with the overflow: auto style. Firefox handles this gracefully but IE becomes very sluggish both when scrolling the div and when executing any Javascript on the page. At first I thought IE just couldn't handle that much data in its DOM, but then I did a simple test where I applied the visibility: hidden style to every element past the first 100. They still take up space and cause the scrollbars to appear. IE no longer had a problem with the data when I did this. So, I'd like to have a "smart" div that hides all the nested div elements which are not currently visible on the screen. Is there a simple solution to this or will I need to have an infinite loop which calculates the location of the scrollbar? If not, is there a particular event that I can hook into where I could do this? Is there a jQuery selector or plugin that will allow me to select all elements not currently visible on the screen?

    Read the article

  • HOWTO - Compare a date string to datetime in SQL Server?

    - by Guy
    In SQL Server I have a DATETIME column which includes a time element. Example: '14 AUG 2008 14:23:019' What is the best method to only select the records for a particular day, ignoring the time part? Example: (Not safe, as it does not match the time part and returns no rows) DECLARE @p_date DATETIME SET @p_date = CONVERT( DATETIME, '14 AUG 2008', 106 ) SELECT * FROM table1 WHERE column_datetime = @p_date Note: Given this site is also about jotting down notes and techniques you pick up and then forget, I'm going to post my own answer to this question as DATETIME stuff in MSSQL is probably the topic I lookup most in SQLBOL. Update Clarified example to be more specific. Edit Sorry, But I've had to down-mod WRONG answers (answers that return wrong results). @Jorrit: WHERE (date>'20080813' AND date<'20080815') will return the 13th and the 14th. @wearejimbo: Close, but no cigar! badge awarded to you. You missed out records written at 14/08/2008 23:59:001 to 23:59:999 (i.e. Less than 1 second before midnight.)

    Read the article

  • C# LINQ to XML nissing space character.

    - by Fossaw
    I write an XML file "by hand", (i.e. not with LINQ to XML), which sometimes includes an open/close tag containing a single space character. Upon viewing the resulting file, all appears correct, example below... <Item> <ItemNumber>3</ItemNumber> <English> </English> <Translation>Ignore this one. Do not remove.</Translation> </Item> ... the reasons for doing this are various and irrelevent, it is done. Later, I use a C# program with LINQ to XML to read the file back and extract the record... XElement X_EnglishE = null; // This is CRAZY foreach (XElement i in Records) { X_EnglishE = i.Element("English"); // There is only one damned record! } string X_English = X_EnglishE.ToString(); ... and test to make sure it is unchanged from the database record. I detect a change, when processing Items where the field had the single space character... +E+ Text[3] English source has been altered: Was: >>> <<< Now: >>><<< ... the and <<< parts I added to see what was happening, (hard to see space characters). I have fiddled around with this but can't see why this is so. It is not absolutely critical, as the field is not used, (yet), but I cannot trust C# or LINQ or whatever is doing this, if I do not understand why it is so. So what is doing that and why?

    Read the article

  • Android: Is it possible to have multiple styles inside a TextView?

    - by Legend
    I was wondering if its possible to set multiple styles for different pieces of text inside a TextView. For instance, I am setting the text as follows: descbox.setText(line1 + "\n" + line2 + "\n" + word1 + "\t" + word2 + "\t" + word3); Now, is it possible to have a different style for each text element? I mean bold for line1, normal for word1 and so on... I found this http://developer.android.com/guide/appendix/faq/commontasks.html#selectingtext: // Get our EditText object. EditText vw = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.text); // Set the EditText's text. vw.setText("Italic, highlighted, bold."); // If this were just a TextView, we could do: // vw.setText("Italic, highlighted, bold.", TextView.BufferType.SPANNABLE); // to force it to use Spannable storage so styles can be attached. // Or we could specify that in the XML. // Get the EditText's internal text storage Spannable str = vw.getText(); // Create our span sections, and assign a format to each. str.setSpan(new StyleSpan(android.graphics.Typeface.ITALIC), 0, 7, Spannable.SPAN_EXCLUSIVE_EXCLUSIVE); str.setSpan(new BackgroundColorSpan(0xFFFFFF00), 8, 19, Spannable.SPAN_EXCLUSIVE_EXCLUSIVE); str.setSpan(new StyleSpan(android.graphics.Typeface.BOLD), 21, str.length() - 1, Spannable.SPAN_EXCLUSIVE_EXCLUSIVE); But it uses position numbers inside the text. Is there a cleaner way to do this?

    Read the article

  • how to place last div into right top corner of parent div? (css)

    - by Radek
    can I somehow using css place the block2 in right top corner of block1? Note that block2 must be the (very) last inside html code of block1 or it could be placed after block1. I cannot make it the first element in block1 <html> <head> <style type="text/css"> .block1 {color:red;width:100px;border:1px solid green;} .block2 {color:blue;width:70px;border:2px solid black;position:relative;} </style> </head> <body> <div class='block1'> <p>text</p> <p>text2</p> <div class='block2'>block2</DIV> </div> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • javascript function not working in IE 7

    - by JPro
    Hi, Can anyone please tell me how do I make this script run in IE 7? When I run this , nothing happens. <html> <body> <script language="JavaScript"> function moveSelectedOption() { // Fetch references to the <select> elements. var origin = document.getElementById('origin_select'); var target = document.getElementById('target_select'); // Fetch the selected option and clone it. var option = origin.options[origin.selectedIndex]; var copy = option.cloneNode(true); // Add the clone to the target element. target.add(copy, null); } </script> <select id="origin_select" multiple> <option value="A">A</option> <option value="B">B</option> <option value="C">C</option> </select> <select id="target_select" multiple> <option value="C1">C1</option> </select> <button onclick="moveSelectedOption()">Add</button> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • jQuery Colorbox Iframe and Selector

    - by Joker
    I have this: $("a.money").colorbox({href:$("a.money").attr("href")+" div#content"}); Which opens an overlay but only of the content within the #content selector. If I add iframe:true, this will no longer work. Is there a way to get it to work with an iframe? Edit: The closest I could get it to work was by doing this: $("a.money").colorbox({iframe:true, width:700, height:425, onComplete: function() { alert('test'); $test = $("#cboxLoadedContent iframe").contents().find("#content").html(); $("#cboxLoadedContent iframe").contents().find("#container").html($test); } }); Although without the alert it doesn't appear to work, I looked into that and I think I need to use .live(), which led me to trying this: $('a.money').live('click', function() { url = this.href; // this is the url of the element event is triggered from $.fn.colorbox({href: url, iframe:true,width:700, height:425, onComplete: function() { $test = $("#cboxLoadedContent iframe").contents().find("#content").html(); $("#cboxLoadedContent iframe").contents().find("#container").html($test); } }); return false; }); Didn't work, I still needed to add an alert to make it work. In case you might be wondering what I'm trying to do. The webpage is loaded in the iframe, with all the elements in the #container, so that includes #header, #sidebars, but I only want to show the #content inside the iframe. However, this led me to another problem I realized. Assuming I got this to work without the alert, it will only work for that initial page. For example, if I loaded up a form in the iframe, after submitting the form, I would once again see the whole layout instead of just the #content portion. Is it possible to continue only showing the #content portion of the page upon further navigation?

    Read the article

  • error handler isn't called when file is uploaded via ajax using jQuery form plugin

    - by scompt.com
    Here's my test case. If the form is posted, a 500 error response is sent. If not, the form is sent. If the file input tag is commented out, the error handler is called. If the file input tag is present, the error handler isn't called. I think this might have something to do with the fact that jQuery needs to use an iframe to handle the upload and iframes don't seem to respond to the error handler. Edit: If I add iframe: true to the options passed to ajaxSubmit to force the use of an iframe, the non-file-upload case stops working also, so it definitely has to do with the iframe. Edit2: I'm using the jQuery Form Plugin. <?php if($_SERVER['REQUEST_METHOD'] == 'POST') { header('HTTP/1.1 500 Internal Server Error'); die; } else {?> <html><head> <script type='text/javascript' src='http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js?ver=2.9.2'></script> <script type='text/javascript' src='http://github.com/malsup/form/raw/master/jquery.form.js?v2.43'></script> <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery(document).ready(function() { jQuery('a').click(function() {jQuery('form').ajaxSubmit({error: function(){alert('error handler called');}})}); }); </script> </head><body> <form method="POST"> <input type="text" name="mytext" /> <input type="file" name="myfile" /><!-- comment this element out --> <input type="hidden" name="blah" value="blah" /> <a>submit</a> </form> </body></html> <?php } Is there any way to get the error handler to be called in both situations?

    Read the article

  • OutOfMemoryException

    - by Andrew
    I have an application that is pretty memory hungry. It holds a large amount of data in some big arrays. I have recently been noticing the occasional OutOfMemoryException. These OutOfMemoryExceptions are occurring long before my application (ASP.Net) has used up the 800mb available to it. I have track the issue down to the area of code where the array is resized. The array contains a structure that is 74bytes in size. (I know that you shouldn't create struct's that are bigger than 16bytes), but this application is a port from a Vb6 application). I have tried changing the struct to a class and this appears to have fixed the problem for now. I think the reason that changing to a class solves the problem has to do with the fact that when using a struct and the array is resized, a segment of memory that is large enough to store the new array needs to be reserved (e.g. (currentArraySize + increaseBySize)*74) cannot be found. This leads to the OutOfMemoryException. This isn't the case with a class as each element of the array only needs 8bytes to store a pointer to the new object. Is my thinking correct here?

    Read the article

  • jQuery validate plugin against custom jQueryUI datePickers

    - by Enrique
    I have some datePickers I've customized these so they show only month and year This is the code to create them jQuery("input[name*='fechauso']").each(function() { jQuery(this).datepicker({ changeMonth: true, changeYear: true, showButtonPanel: true, dateFormat: 'MM yy', constrainInput: true, showOn: 'button', buttonText: 'Seleccionar...', onClose: function(dateText, inst) { var month = jQuery("#ui-datepicker-div .ui-datepicker-month :selected").val(); var year = jQuery("#ui-datepicker-div .ui-datepicker-year :selected").val(); jQuery(this).datepicker('setDate', new Date(year, month, 1)); } }); }); Now I've added a custom validator method (using plugin) to check this: If user didn't select a date using the button, field is empty, so the custom validator method should fire. This doesn't happen. Here is the custom validate method jQuery.validator.addMethod("isEmpty", function(value, element) { return (value == ''); }, "Must select a date with the button besides control"); jQuery("#ct_2_fechauso").rules("add", { required: "#campotilde_psico:checked", isEmpty: true }); The problem is that even if I select a date, it always ask me to select a date again. datePicker fields should be readonly

    Read the article

  • Converting an int64 value to a Number object in JavaScript

    - by Matt
    I have a COM object which has a method that returns an unsigned int64 (VT_UI8) value. We have an HTML page which contains some JavaScript which can load the COM object and make the call to that method, to retrieve the value as such: var foo = MyCOMObject.GetInt64Value(); This value can easily be displayed to the user in a message dialog using: alert(foo); or displayed on the page by: document.getElementById('displayToUser').innerHTML = foo; However, we cannot use this value as a Number (e.g. if we try to multiply it by 2) without the page throwing "Number expected" errors. If we check "typeof(foo)" it returns "unknown". I've found a workaround for this by doing the following: document.getElementById('displayToUser').innerHTML = foo; var bar = parseInt(document.getElementById('displayToUser').innerHTML); alert(bar*2); What I need to know is how to make that process more efficient. Specifically, is there a way to cast foo to a String explicitly, rather than having to set some document element's innerHTML to foo and then retrieve it from that. I wouldn't mind calling something like: alert(parseInt((string)foo) * 2); Even better would be if there is a way to directly convert the int64 to a Number, without going through the String conversion, but I hold out less hope for that.

    Read the article

  • Trying to use an Xslt for an xml in asp.net

    - by Josemalive
    Hello, i have the following xslt sheet: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" version="1.0"> <xsl:variable name="nhits" select="Answer[@nhits]"></xsl:variable> <xsl:output method="html" indent="yes"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <div> <xsl:call-template name="resultsnumbertemplate"/> </div> </xsl:template> <xsl:template name="resultsnumbertemplate"> <xsl:value-of select="$nhits"/> matches found </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> And this is the xml that im trying to mix with the previous xslt: <Answer xmlns="exa:com.exalead.search.v10" context="n%3Dsl-ocu%26q%3Dlavadoras" last="9" estimated="false" nmatches="219" nslices="0" nhits="219" start="0"> <time> <Time interrupted="false" overall="32348" parse="0" spell="0" exec="1241" synthesis="15302" cats="14061" kwds="14061"> <sliceTimes>15272 </sliceTimes> </Time> </time> </Answer> Im using a xslcompiledtransform and that's working fine: XslCompiledTransform transformer = new XslCompiledTransform(); transformer.Load(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("xslt\\" + requestvariables["xslsheet"].ToString())); transformer.Transform(xmlreader, null, writer); My problems comes when im trying to put into a variable the "nhits" attribute value placed on the Answer element, but i'm not rendering anything using my xslt sheet. Do you know what could be the cause? Could be the xmlns attribute in my xml file? Thanks in advance. Best Regards. Jose

    Read the article

  • What's the deal with Java's public fields?

    - by Annan
    I've been reading two articles (1)(2) on javaworld.com about how all class fields should be private and getter/setter methods are just as bad. An object should act on the data it has rather than allowing access to it. I'm currently working on a University assignment for Connect Four. In designing the program the Agents playing the Game need access to the Board's state (so they can decide what to move). They also need to pass this move to the Game so it can validate it as a legal move. And during deciding what to move pieces are grouped into Threats with a start and end Points. Board, Threat and Point objects don't really do anything. They are just there to store related data that can be accessed in a human readable way. At the start of design I was representing Points on the board as two element int arrays, however that got annoying when creating points or referencing components of them. So, the class: public class Point { public int x; public int y; public Point(int x, int y){ this.x = x; this.y = y; } } Perfect in every way I can think of. Except it breaks every rule I've learned. Have I sinned?

    Read the article

  • Annoying IE7 problem.

    - by Yo-L
    I am styling a Wordpress theme but has run into problem with IE7. The first word("it") inside the paragraph/strong tag ends up to the left of the img tag when I want it BELOW the image. My problem is that the only element I can change CSS properties here is the div, since the code inside is posted with a WYSIWYG by an blog author. Is there anyway i can fix this problem? I have tried lots of different settings and every other browser FF safari IE8 renders the text below the image. <div style="width: 430px;"> <h1>It is hard getting it right in IE7!</h1> <p> <img class="aligncenter size-full wp-image-4333" src="http://xxx.xxx.xx/files/2010/03/xxx.jpg" alt="xxx" style="width: 430px; height: 600px" /> <strong>It is hard</strong> getting it right in IE7! </p> </div>

    Read the article

  • add width li's to parent ul

    - by Epco
    i would like to calculate the width of the li's for each submenu en then put in the ul element. example <ul> <li>level 1</li> <li> <ul style="widht:??;"> // total width li's added here 70px <li>level 2</li> // width of this li 20px <li>level 2</li>/ width of this li 50px </ul> </li> <li>level 1</li> <li>level 1 <ul style="widht:??;"> // total width li's added here 70px <li>level 2</li> // width of this li 20px <li>level 2</li>/ width of this li 50px </ul> </li> </ul> i have this so fare if ('#menu li:has(ul) ul'){ $('li').each(function(){ widthParentUl += $(this).outerWidth(true) }); $(this)parent.('ul').attr('style','width:' + widthParentUl +'px; display:block; background:red;'); }

    Read the article

  • Control Oracle Forms with outside program

    - by user256893
    I work at a company that uses the Forms based Oracle 11i. A lot of employees complain of the redundancy of data entry and I want to write a program that will ease some of that pain since all attempts to ask IT to do it have failed. The problem is, since Oracle Forms are Java based there are no "controls" as there would be on say a windows application or an HTML based form. Does anyone know of a way to tell the PC to (example only) click edit field 3 on the RMA creation form and then enter the data? The only way I can programmatically navigate Oracle is with hotkeys and it's very unreliable. I'm not concerned about the language or learning a new application to resolve this issue. I currently know (elementary to Intermediate levels) Java, VB.NET and will be taking C++ in school. Is there a tool, bridge, element spy of some sort that will allow me to send commands to elements on the forms? edit APC sez: Oracle Forms over the web run as a Java applet. I mention this because it may be relevant to your responses.

    Read the article

  • Is there any way to programitically change a Data/ItemTemplate in Silverlight?

    - by Kris Erickson
    So I have a Listbox, which is using an ItemTemplate to display an image. I want to be able to change the size of the displayed image in the ItemTemplate. Through databinding I can change the Width, but the only way I can see how to do this is to add a Property (Say, ImageSize) to the class I am binding to and then change every item in the colleciton to have a new ImageSize. Is there no way to access the property of an item in that Datatemplate? E.g. <navigation:Page.Resources> <DataTemplate x:Key="ListBoxItemTemplate"> <Viewbox Height="100" Width="100"> <Image Source="{Binding Image}"/> </Viewbox> </DataTemplate> </navigation:Page.Resources> <Grid> <ListBox ItemTemplate="{StaticResource ListBoxItemTemplate}" ItemSource="{Binding Collection}"/> </Grid> Is there anyway to set the Width and Height of the viewbox without binding a property to every element in the collection?

    Read the article

  • WPF Border DesiredHeight

    - by Joseph Sturtevant
    The following Microsoft example code contains the following: <Grid> ... <Border Name="Content" ... > ... </Border> </Grid> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsExpanded" Value="True"> <Setter TargetName="ContentRow" Property="Height" Value="{Binding ElementName=Content,Path=DesiredHeight}" /> </Trigger> ... </ControlTemplate.Triggers> When run, however, this code generates the following databinding error: System.Windows.Data Error: 39 : BindingExpression path error: 'DesiredHeight' property not found on 'object' ''Border' (Name='Content')'. BindingExpression:Path=DesiredHeight; DataItem='Border' (Name='Content'); target element is 'RowDefinition' (HashCode=2034711); target property is 'Height' (type 'GridLength') Despite this error, the code works correctly. I have looked through the documentation and DesiredHeight does not appear to be a member of Border. Can anyone explain where DesiredHeight is coming from? Also, is there any way to resolve/suppress this error so my program output is clean?

    Read the article

  • How to deploy RSWebParts.cab manually?

    - by denni
    I'm using the SSRS 2005 Web parts to display my reports in a MOSS 2007 SP1 Portal. I have successfully installed the Web parts in my development, testing, and UAT servers using the following command: stsadm -o addwppack -filename path/to/RSWebParts.cab. But when I tried running the same command in the production server, it will give me the following error: This solution contains no resources scoped for a Web application and cannot be deployed to a particular Web application. I know I usually will get this kind of error message when I tried to deploy my custom solutions having no Web application resources (such as web.config entries) to a specific Web application. But this is not my custom solution, it is an out-of-the-box SSRS Web part and it does have resources scoped to a Web application. I tried to even use different combination of the command by providing the -url, -globalinstall, and -force switches but it still give the same error. The configuration of the 4 servers are exactly the same, both from software and hardware perspectives. All other features are working properly on the production server. I even tried to extract the cab file manually to the bin folder of my Web application, then modify the Web.config manually to include the SafeControl element (copied from the manifest.xml inside the cab file). But it gave me an error saying it couldn't find the resources file. Even though, I extracted the whole file, including the resource files in the bin folder. Is there anyone who can help me resolve the problem? Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311  | Next Page >