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  • Cannot run/debug Java applications in Eclipse (JavaTimeZone issue)

    - by Andre
    I'm trying to get started with Eclipse/Java/Scala on a MacBook. The installed JDK was 1.5. The SDT plugin for Scala requires 1.6 which was included in an OS update, but I also manually installed a package from Apple to update 1.6. The problem is that I cannot run anything from Eclipse. I always get the following error: An internal error occurred during: "Launching TestFooBasicTest". Could not initialize class com.ibm.icu.impl.JavaTimeZone I also tried to use the old 1.5 version, but to no avail. What is going wrong here?

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  • BindingList projection wrapper

    - by Groo
    Is there a simple way to create a BindingList wrapper (with projection), which would update as the original list updates? For example, let's say I have a mutable list of numbers, and I want to represent them as hex strings in a ComboBox. Using this wrapper I could do something like this: BindingList<int> numbers = data.GetNumbers(); comboBox.DataSource = Project(numbers, i => string.Format("{0:x}", i)); I could wrap the list into a new BindingList, handle all source events, update the list and fire these events again, but I feel that there is a simpler way already.

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  • Custom Display Form with Custom Workflow button

    - by Ifi
    I have created a new custom list form that will show 4 fields on the page from a Custom List called "Shipment". I have added Form Action button that I would like to run a custom action that is set inside of a Workflow. Currently, the form displays the fields for "Manifest Number", "Pickup Location", "Delivery Location", & "Scheduled Pickup Time". When the user clicks the Form Action button, what I want the Workflow to do is go to the ID field of the displayed content in the Form and change the value of the "Picked Up" column from No to Yes. The problem I am having is passing the ID of the displayed information from the Form to the Workflow as a variable. I can get the "Picked Up" column to update if I specify the value in the "Update List Item" window under the "Find the List Item" section, but I cannot figure out how to do this dynamically from the Form

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  • What is wrong with mysql query?

    - by bala3569
    I use the following mysql query, DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS `allied`.`aboutus_delete`$$ CREATE DEFINER=`allied`@`%` PROCEDURE `aboutus_delete`( IN p_Id int(11) ) BEGIN if exists(select aboutUsId from aboutus where aboutUsId=p_id and isDeleted=0) update aboutus set isDeleted=1 where aboutUsId=p_id else select 'No record to delete' END$$ DELIMITER ; But i get this error when i execute it... Error Code : 1064 You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'update aboutus set isDeleted=1 where aboutUsId=p_id else select 'No record to' at line 6

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  • Boiler plate code replacement - is there anything bad about this code?

    - by Benjol
    I've recently created these two (unrelated) methods to replace lots of boiler-plate code in my winforms application. As far as I can tell, they work ok, but I need some reassurance/advice on whether there are some problems I might be missing. (from memory) static class SafeInvoker { //Utility to avoid boiler-plate InvokeRequired code //Usage: SafeInvoker.Invoke(myCtrl, () => myCtrl.Enabled = false); public static void Invoke(Control ctrl, Action cmd) { if (ctrl.InvokeRequired) ctrl.BeginInvoke(new MethodInvoker(cmd)); else cmd(); } //Replaces OnMyEventRaised boiler-plate code //Usage: SafeInvoker.RaiseEvent(this, MyEventRaised) public static void RaiseEvent(object sender, EventHandler evnt) { var handler = evnt; if (handler != null) handler(sender, EventArgs.Empty); } } EDIT: See related question here UPDATE Following on from deadlock problems (related in this question), I have switched from Invoke to BeginInvoke (see an explanation here). Another Update Regarding the second snippet, I am increasingly inclined to use the 'empty delegate' pattern, which fixes this problem 'at source' by declaring the event directly with an empty handler, like so: event EventHandler MyEventRaised = delegate {};

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  • Need to add totals of select list, and subtract if taken away

    - by jeremy
    This is the code I am using to calculate the sum of two values (example below) http://www.healthybrighton.co.uk/wse/node/1841 This works to a degree. It will add the two together but only if #edit-submitted-test is selected first, and even then it will show NaN until I select #edit-submitted-test-1. I want it to calculate the sum of the fields and show the amount live, i.e. the value of edit-submitted-test-1 will show 500, then if i select another field it will update to 1000. If i take one selection away it will then subtract it and will be back to 500. Any ideas would be helpful thanks! Drupal.behaviors.bookingForm = function (context) { // some debugging here, remove when you're finished console.log('[bookingForm] started.'); // get number of travelers and multiply it by 100 function recalculateTotal() { var count = $('#edit-submitted-test').val(); count = parseFloat( count ); var cost = $('#edit-submitted-test-1').val(); cost = parseFloat( cost ); $('#edit-submitted-total').val( count + cost ); } // run recalculateTotal every time user enters a new value var fieldCount = $('#edit-submitted-test'); var fieldCount = $('#edit-submitted-test-1'); fieldCount.change( recalculateTotal ); // etc ... }; EDIT This is all working beautiful, however I now want to add all the values together, and automatically update a total cost field that is the sum of a the added field with code above and field with value passed from previous page. I did this where accomcost is the field that is added together, but the total cost field does update, but not automatically, it is always one selection behind. i.e. If i select options and accomodation cost updates to £900, total cost remains empty. If i then change the selection and the accomodation updates to £300, the total cost updates to the previous selection of £900. Any help on this one Felix? ;) thanks. var accomcost = $('#edit-submitted-accomodation-cost').val(); accomcost = accomcost ? parseFloat(accomcost) : 0; var coursescost = $('#edit-submitted-courses-cost-2').val(); coursescost = coursescost ? parseFloat(coursescost) : 0; $('#edit-submitted-accomodation-cost').val( w1 + w2 + w3 + w4 + w5 + w6 + w7 + w8 + w9 + w10 + w11 + w12 + w13 + w14 + w15 + w16 + w17 + w18 + w19 + w20 + w21 + w22 + w23 + w24 + w25 + w26 + w27 + w28 + w29 + w30 ); $('#edit-submitted-total-cost').val( accomcost + coursescost ); var fieldCount = $('#edit-submitted-accomodation-cost, #edit-submitted-courses-cost-2') .change( recalculateTotal );

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  • solution for COMET and PHP

    - by codemaker
    Is there a real solution for COMET AND PHP combination? Basically, I've come to a point that I need to update a user home page periodically whenever there is new data in the database. As far as I understand, I need to open a persistent connection between my server and my clients browsers to update the contents of their home page as soon as new info. available without dedicating a lot of resources but I had no luck finding anything clear about this issue. I read many articles suggests that PHP is not a good language to implement COMET. My web application is completely programmed in PHP and I don't want to learn another language but if I'm forced to, Would you suggest a good language to start with? Do you think that I can program an interface just to handle this issue? Thanks in advance.

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  • Using Google Apps gmail with Symfony nahomail plugin

    - by bobo
    My boss asks me to update a domain to adopt Google Apps, now everything has been done except the website is still not updated to use the Google Apps gmail server. The website is running on Symfony 1.4.x but it is not the latest 1.4.x version, and it does not have Swiftmailer included. It now sends email (e.g. user registration confirm email) using the nahomail plugin. Now I would like to make it send email using the Google Apps gmail server. The website is going to be abandoned after a few months, for simplicity, I am going to do an update directly on the production server and so I am trying to avoid as many trial-and-errors as possible. I wonder if anyone is actually using this plugin and can share the nahomail settings for gmail server that has been working nicely. Many thanks to you all.

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  • Validating only selected fields using ASP.NET MVC 2 and Data Annotations

    - by thinknow
    I'm using Data Annotations with ASP.NET MVC 2 as demonstrated in this post: http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2010/01/15/asp-net-mvc-2-model-validation.aspx Everything works fine when creating / updating an entity where all required property values are specified in the form and valid. However, what if I only want to update some of the fields? For example, let's say I have an Account entity with 20 fields, but I only want to update Username and Password? ModelState.IsValid validates against all the properties, regardless of whether they are referenced in the submitted form. How can I get it to validate only the fields that are referenced in the form?

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  • Rails - how can I query the db w/o touching the sessions table

    - by sa125
    Hi - I'm trying to provide a HTTP api to my app that queries a db that's read-only (for replication purposes). I find that my app crashes repeatedly when making a request b/c the call is trying to update the sessions table whenever I query the db. This doesn't happen when I return some text without hitting the database for info. class APIController < AplicationController def view data = Product.find(params[:id]).to_json # will fail data = { :one => 1, :two => 2 }.to_json # will succeed respond_to do |format| format.html { render :json => data } end end end How do I restrict it from touching the sessions table on this request (it's currently issuing an UPDATE on the updated_at field for that session). thanks.

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  • Task scheduler ran a task twice

    - by Ross Buggins
    Update: This has now happened two days in a row. Update: XML of scheduled tasks and images now included. Two servers located in London, both Windows 2012, have a scheduled task set to run at 3pm Monday to Friday. This has been set up for the last 5 months without a problem. However, on Monday the 28th of August they both ran the scheduled task at 3pm and then again at 4pm. When it was first reported, I thought it was too much of a coincidence to be the day after the clocks had gone back an hour. However, I’m failing in being able to explain why it has happened and if it is related to the clock change at all. The relevant logs from one server (the logs for the other follow this pattern as well): Event 129 15:00:20 Task Scheduler launch task "\3pm", instance "C:\Program Files (x86)\PHP\v5.4\php.exe" with process ID 2388. Event 100 15:00:20 Task Scheduler started "{75a3590f-dec1-4dee-bd27-73d63a50a9d7}" instance of the "\3pm" task for user "x\y". Event 200 15:00:20 Task Scheduler launched action "C:\Program Files (x86)\PHP\v5.4\php.exe" in instance "{75a3590f-dec1-4dee-bd27-73d63a50a9d7}" of task "\3pm". Event 201 15:00:23 Task Scheduler successfully completed task "\3pm" , instance "{75a3590f-dec1-4dee-bd27-73d63a50a9d7}" , action "C:\Program Files (x86)\PHP\v5.4\php.exe" with return code 0. Event 129 16:00:20 Task Scheduler launch task "\3pm", instance "C:\Program Files (x86)\PHP\v5.4\php.exe" with process ID 1224. Event 100 16:00:20 Task Scheduler started "{3dd46ca9-c525-4796-86b5-5e513fd45f26}" instance of the "\3pm" task for user "x\y". Event 200 16:00:20 Task Scheduler launched action "C:\Program Files (x86)\PHP\v5.4\php.exe" in instance "{3dd46ca9-c525-4796-86b5-5e513fd45f26}" of task "\3pm". Event 201 16:00:23 Task Scheduler successfully completed task "\3pm" , instance "{3dd46ca9-c525-4796-86b5-5e513fd45f26}" , action "C:\Program Files (x86)\PHP\v5.4\php.exe" with return code 0. I've seen this question Scheduled task running twice from time to time which points to a bug at http://support.microsoft.com/kb/2461249 being the cause. However, this doesn't include Server 2012 in it's list of problem operating systems. I’m struggling to explain this, can anyone else? The XML export for the scheduled task is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-16"?> <Task version="1.2" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/windows/2004/02/mit/task"> <RegistrationInfo> <Date>2013-04-16T14:04:17.4897806</Date> <Author>x\y</Author> </RegistrationInfo> <Triggers> <CalendarTrigger> <StartBoundary>2013-04-17T15:00:20</StartBoundary> <Enabled>true</Enabled> <ScheduleByWeek> <DaysOfWeek> <Monday /> <Tuesday /> <Wednesday /> <Thursday /> <Friday /> </DaysOfWeek> <WeeksInterval>1</WeeksInterval> </ScheduleByWeek> </CalendarTrigger> </Triggers> <Principals> <Principal id="Author"> <UserId>x\y</UserId> <LogonType>Password</LogonType> <RunLevel>LeastPrivilege</RunLevel> </Principal> </Principals> <Settings> <MultipleInstancesPolicy>IgnoreNew</MultipleInstancesPolicy> <DisallowStartIfOnBatteries>true</DisallowStartIfOnBatteries> <StopIfGoingOnBatteries>true</StopIfGoingOnBatteries> <AllowHardTerminate>true</AllowHardTerminate> <StartWhenAvailable>false</StartWhenAvailable> <RunOnlyIfNetworkAvailable>false</RunOnlyIfNetworkAvailable> <IdleSettings> <StopOnIdleEnd>true</StopOnIdleEnd> <RestartOnIdle>false</RestartOnIdle> </IdleSettings> <AllowStartOnDemand>true</AllowStartOnDemand> <Enabled>true</Enabled> <Hidden>false</Hidden> <RunOnlyIfIdle>false</RunOnlyIfIdle> <WakeToRun>false</WakeToRun> <ExecutionTimeLimit>P3D</ExecutionTimeLimit> <Priority>7</Priority> </Settings> <Actions Context="Author"> <Exec> <Command>"C:\Program Files (x86)\PHP\v5.4\php.exe"</Command> <Arguments>-f "c:\a.php"</Arguments> </Exec> </Actions> </Task> 29 October 17:00 - Update - Both servers have again run the scheduled task at 15:00 and 16:00. I've now updated the php file that is run by the scheduler to not actually do anything whilst I'm going through trying to solve this. I'm planning on restarting one server to see if this changes anything tomorrow. 30 October 08:25 - Update - When exporting the task XML I remembered that I hadn't included the fact that the scheduled task on second server was created by importing the XML of the task created on the first. The only difference between the two tasks is the path of the php file they are executing and the user account that they are running as.

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  • Problem with jQuery.ajax with 'delete' method in ie

    - by Max Williams
    I have a page where the user can edit various content using buttons and selects that trigger ajax calls. In particular, one action causes a url to be called remotely, with some data and a 'put' request, which (as i'm using a restful rails backend) triggers my update action. I also have a delete button which calls the same url but with a 'delete' request. The 'update' ajax call works in all browsers but the 'delete' one doesn't work in IE. I've got a vague memory of encountering something like this before...can anyone shed any light? here's my ajax calls: //update action - works in all browsers jQuery.ajax({ async:true, data:data, dataType:'script', type:'put', url:"/quizzes/"+quizId+"/quiz_questions/"+quizQuestionId, success: function(msg){ initializeQuizQuestions(); setPublishButtonStatus(); } }); //delete action - fails in ie function deleteQuizQuestion(quizQuestionId, quizId){ //send ajax call to back end to change the difficulty of the quiz question //back end will then refresh the relevant parts of the page (progress bars, flashes, quiz status) jQuery.ajax({ async:true, dataType:'script', type:'delete', url:"/quizzes/"+quizId+"/quiz_questions/"+quizQuestionId, success: function(msg){ alert("success"); initializeQuizQuestions(); setSelectStatus(quizQuestionId, true); jQuery("tr[id*='quiz_question_"+quizQuestionId+"']").removeClass('selected'); }, error: function(msg){ alert("error:" + msg); } }); } I put the alerts in success and error in the delete ajax just to see what happens, and the 'error' part of the ajax call is triggered, but WITH NO CALL BEING MADE TO THE BACK END (i know this by watching my back end server logs). So, it fails before it even makes the call. I can't work out why - the 'msg' i get back from the error block is blank. Any ideas anyone? Is this a known problem? I've tested it in ie6 and ie8 and it doesn't work in either. thanks - max EDIT - the solution - thanks to Nick Craver for pointing me in the right direction. Rails (and maybe other frameworks?) has a subterfuge for the unsupported put and delete requests: a post request with the parameter "_method" (note the underscore) set to 'put' or 'delete' will be treated as if the actual request type was that string. So, in my case, i made this change - note the 'data' option': jQuery.ajax({ async:true, data: {"_method":"delete"}, dataType:'script', type:'post', url:"/quizzes/"+quizId+"/quiz_questions/"+quizQuestionId, success: function(msg){ alert("success"); initializeQuizQuestions(); setSelectStatus(quizQuestionId, true); jQuery("tr[id*='quiz_question_"+quizQuestionId+"']").removeClass('selected'); }, error: function(msg){ alert("error:" + msg); } }); } Rails will now treat this as if it were a delete request, preserving the REST system. The reason my PUT example worked was just because in this particular case IE was happy to send a PUT request, but it officially does not support them so it's best to do this for PUT requests as well as DELETE requests.

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  • What to do when you need more verbs in REST

    - by Richard Levasseur
    There is another similar question to mine, but the discussion veered away from the problem I'm encounting. Say I have a system that deals with expense reports (ER). You can create and edit them, add attachments, and approve/reject them. An expense report might look like this: GET /er/1 => {"title": "Trip to NY", "totalcost": "400 USD", "comments": [ "john: Please add the total cost", "mike: done, can you approve it now?" ], "approvals": [ {"john": "Pending"}, {"finance-group": "Pending"}] } That looks fine, right? Thats what an expense report document looks like. If you want to update it, you can do this: POST /er/1 {"title": "Trip to NY 2010"} If you want to approve it, you can do this: POST /er/1/approval {"approved": true} But, what if you want to update the report and approve it at the same time? How do we do that? If you only wanted to approve, then doing a POST to something like /er/1/approval makes sense. We could put a flag in the URL, POST /er/1?approve=1, and send the data changes as the body, but that flag doesn't seem RESTful. We could put special field to be submitted, too, but that seems a bit hacky, too. If we did that, then why not send up data with attributes like set_title or add_to_cost? We could create a new resource for updating and approving, but (1) I can't think of how to name it without verbs, and (2) it doesn't seem right to name a resource based on what actions can be done to it (what happens if we add more actions?) We could have an X-Approve: True|False header, but headers seem like the wrong tool for the job. It'd also be difficult to get set headers without using javascript in a browser. We could use a custom media-type, application/approve+yes, but that seems no better than creating a new resource. We could create a temporary "batch operations" url, /er/1/batch/A. The client then sends multiple requests, perhaps POST /er/1/batch/A to update, then POST /er/1/batch/A/approval to approve, then POST /er/1/batch/A/status to end the batch. On the backend, the server queues up all the batch requests somewhere, then processes them in the same backend-transaction when it receives the "end batch processing" request. The downside with this is, obviously, that it introduces a lot of complexity. So, what is a good, general way to solve the problem of performing multiple actions in a single request? General because its easy to imagine additional actions that might be done in the same request: Suppress or send notifications (to email, chat, another system, whatever) Override some validation (maximum cost, names of dinner attendees) Trigger backend workflow that doesn't have a representation in the document.

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  • Entity framework error: The conversion of a datetime2 data type to a datetime data

    - by EdenMachine
    I know there are a ton of posts about this issue but none of them seem to solve my problem. Here's the scenario: I have a CreateDate DateTime column in my MS SQL Server database User table that is non-nullable and is automatically set using GetDate() method in "Default Value or Binding" setting. I am able to create a User just fine with the standard EF Insert but when I try to update the user, I get this error: The conversion of a datetime2 data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range value. What is the trick to not having the EF worry about the CreateDate column for updates? I have the StoreGenerationPattern = Identity but that isn't helping. Here are the EF properties for my Entity Property: http://screencast.com/t/8ndQRn9N And here is my Update method: http://screencast.com/t/UXIzhkhR

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  • How does rolling back an application level transaction interact with SqlDataAdapter events in ADO.NE

    - by ilasno
    When utilizing the RowUpdated event in the SqlAdapter class, i'm assuming that it is raised directly following the return of the database interaction that executes the update. If that update is part of an application level transaction (utilizing the SqlTransaction class) which is then rolled back, does this affect or interact at all with the RowUpdated event? Or is the RowUpdated event not raised until after the transaction is committed (this seems unlikely, but i couldn't find documentation)? If RowUpdated has already been raised, and then the transaction is rolled back, any good ideas on how to adjust something that may have been done in RowUpdated that should then, also be rolled back?

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  • How to Add a File from my source tree to Maven Site

    - by Charles O.
    I have a Maven 2 RESTful application using Jersey/JAXB. I generate the JAXB beans from a schema file, where the schema file is in my resources directory, e.g., src/main/resources/foo.xsd. I want to include foo.xsd file in the generated Maven site for my project, so that clients can see the XML schema when writing RESTful calls. How can I include foo.xsd in the site? I could have a copy of the file in src/main/site/..., and then update my site.xml to point to it (or have a .apt whose contents point to it), but I don't like that because I'm still tweaking foo.xsd, and don't want to have to remember to copy it each time I update it. And that's just bad practice. I also tried having a .apt file that has a link to the foo.xsd which gets copied to the target/classes directory. That works until I do a site:deploy, because that only copies the target/site directory. Thanks, Charles

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  • How do I get ELMAH to work with SQL Server (permission problems)

    - by Gary McGill
    I've got ELMAH working on my (Cassini) development server, and was quite happy with it, but now that I'm trying to move everything to my production server (IIS7), the honeymoon looks like being over. I've got past the "gotcha" with IIS7, which frankly could have been better highlighted in the documentation, and if I just use the in-memory log then it works. However, I'm trying to get it to use the SQL Server log (as I do on my development system), and I'm getting an error along the lines of: The EXECUTE permission was denied on the object ELMAH_GetErrorsXml Well, fine. I know how to grant database permissions, but I'm really struggling to understand which user and which stored procs/tables I need to grant access to. The thing that's really confusing me is that I didn't have to do anything like this to get it to work on my development server. The only difference I can see is that on my development server it seems to connect as NT AUTHORITY\IUSR, whereas on my production server it seems to connect as NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE. (It's just using a trusted connection so I've not explicitly configured it to do that - I presume it's to do with the web server). UPDATE: I've since established that because I'm using Cassini, it was actually logging in as me (an admin) and not IUSR, which explains why I didn't get any permission problems. On my development server, the IUSR account is a member of the public database role, and has access to the required database (again as "public"). There's no explicit granting of object-level permissions. [See update above - this is irrelevant]. On my production server, I've added NETWORK SERVICE in exactly the same way (public database role, explicit access to the database as "public"). Yet, I get this permission error. Why?!! [See update above - the only reason I don't get a permission error is because I'm running as an admin]. And, of course, if the fact that it works locally is just "luck", I will need to know which SPs/tables to grant access to. My guess would be all 3 SPs and not the table, but it would be good (again) to see some documentation that makes this explicit.

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  • How to create Server-side Progress indicator in Javascript

    - by Eli
    Hey Guys, I want to create a section in my site, where a user has a few simple update buttons. Each of these update buttons will be going to the server, and will do a long crunching behind the scene. While the server crunches data, I want the user to have a some kind of progress indicator, like progress bar or textual percentage. I'm using jQuery as my javascript library, and CodeIgniter (PHP) as the server-side framework, if it's important... What I was thinking about is using PHP's flush() function to report progress status to jQuery, but I'm not sure that jQuery's ajax functions are reading the output before it's complete... So any advice/explanation would be useful and helpful! Thanks :)

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  • Changing resource file in new version of an app

    - by Michael Frost
    Hi, I'm working on an update for an already existing iphone app. The existing version contains a .sql database file which is used in the app. I would like to use a new version of this file in the update of the app. On the first startup of the existing app the .sql file is placed in the caches directory of the users iphone. From what I can understand from Apple's documentation the files in the caches directory might get copied from the old app to the new versions caches directory when the user updates the app. Does this mean that for being sure my new file is used in the updated version I should use a different name of the file? And what happens with the old file? Do I have to manually delete it from inside the app? Which means I have to check if it's there at every startup of the app? Thanks Michael

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  • How can I resolve this one application coming up with an "You don't have permission to use the application" error?

    - by morgant
    I've got a Mac OS X 10.6 Snow Leopard Server Open Directory Master with a user who's getting Mobility & Application managed preferences from a group (the only group they're a member of). The workstation is also running Mac OS X 10.6 Snow Leopard, when the user logs in and tries to run our primary application which they're explicitly allowed to run (via the group's preferences), it says "You don't have permission to use the application 'Blah'". Now, the application is added to the group's list of always allowed applications, unsigned (so a minor difference in application version or file contents shouldn't disallow it). It even lives in a subdirectory of /Applications which is in the list of folders to allow applications. I've run into this when logging this user into new workstations and the following usually works: Log them out Remove the following files from their mobile home folder on the workstation: /Library/Managed\ Preferences/, ~/.FileSync, ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.finder.plist, and ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.MCX.plist. Remove the following files from their network home folder on the server: ~/.FileSync, ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.finder.plist, and ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.MCX.plist. Log them back in on the workstation. However, this no longer resolves the issue. Their Home Sync preferences are set (on the group) to sync ~, but not the following files (manually, at login, and at logout... no background sync here): ~/.SymAVQSFile ~/NAVMac800QSFile ~/Library ~/.FileSync ~/.account Their Preferences Sync preferences are set (also on the group) to sync ~/Library & ~/Documents/Microsoft User Data, but not the following files (also manually, at login, and at logout... no background sync): ~/.SymAVQSFile ~/.Trash ~/.Trashes ~/Documents/Microsoft User Data/Entourage Temp ~/Library/Application Support/SyncServices ~/Library/Application Support/MobileSync ~/Library/Caches ~/Library/Calendars/Calendar Cache ~/Library/Logs ~/Library/Mail/AvailableFeeds ~/Library/Mail/Envelope Index ~/Library/Preferences/Macromedia/ ~/Library/Printers ~/Library/PubSub/Database ~/Library/PubSub/Downloads ~/Library/PubSub/Feeds ~/Library/Safari/Icons.db ~/Library/Safari/HistoryIndex.sk ~/Library/iTunes/iPhone Software Updates IMAP-* Exchange-* EWS-* Mac-* ~/Library/Preferences/ByHost ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.dock.plist ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.sitebarlists.plist ~/Library/Application Support/4D ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.MCX.plist ~/.FileSync ~/.account Even with ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.MCX.plist prevented from syncing during a Preferences Sync, it still seems to show up in the network home on the server frequently. Are there any other files other than ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.MCX.plist that contain application Managed Preferences that might be causing this one app to be showing up as not allowed? Any ideas on how ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.MCX.plist keeps getting sync'd back up the network home folder on the server? Update: I thought I had found a workaround this morning, but it also seemed to be extremely temporary. Basically, loking at /Library/Managed\ Preferences/[shortname]/com.apple.applicationaccess.new.plist I discovered that it didn't have an entry for the application in question, but /Library/Managed\ Preferences/[shortname]/complete.plist did. Naturally, I deleted com.apple.applicationaccess.new.plist, logged in again, and it worked... on one workstation. It failed on others, and after logging out & back in a couple more times it started failing on all of them again, even after further deletions of com.apple.applicationaccess.new.plist. Oddly, com.apple.applicationaccess.new.plist & complete.plist do both contain an entry for the application in question now, but it still says it's not allowed. Further Update: Okay, so I now have a reproducible workaround which seems to be required after every reboot of the workstation: Log in as the user (you'll discover you cannot launch the application in question). Fast User Switch to the local admin account on the workstation (we always have one on every machine). From that local admin account, run sudo mcxrefresh -n 'shortname' (logging out and back in as the user in question will not work). Fast User Switch back to the user (you'll still not be allowed to run the application). Log the user out and back in (you'll now be able to run the application in question.) Fast User Switch back to the local admin account, log it out, and log back in as the user in question. If you do all that exactly as described it'll keep working through log out & log back in, but NOT through a reboot. If, after a reboot, you try something like logging in as the local admin account, running sudo mcxrefresh -n 'shortname', logging out, then logging in as the user in question, it will NOT work. Yet Another Update We don't have any computer groups in our Open Directory, so it shouldn't be getting any conflicting settings from there. I ran sudo mcxquery -format xml -user shortname -group groupname before & after performing the aforementioned process to allow the application in question to be run and the results were identical (saved the result to files & diff'd... I'm not just guessing here). One Step Forward, Half a Step Back: When the Mac OS X 10.6.5 Server update was released, we upgraded our Open Directory Master to it as the changes included the following managed preferences fixes which I hoped might address this issue: Addresses an issue that could prevent managed preferences from being applied when a user logs in on a workstation that has been idle. Fixes an issue that could prevent administrators from bypassing client management settings on a workstation. This seemed to improve the situation slightly. The application in question now usually launches without error. If, and when it does launch with the "You don't have permission to use the application" error, logging the user out and back in seems to correct it. That said, we've since had to add a couple of applications to the user's ~/Applications/ directory and those are still prevented from launching. The workstations are running Mac OS X 10.6.4, the OD Master (which the workstations are bound to) is running Mac OS 10.6.5 Server (although there are two OD Replicas still running 10.6.4 Server), and we're using Workgroup Manager 10.6.3 (which is included with the Server Admin Tools 10.6.5 upgrade) to add the applications (unsigned, as always). This time, I've caught the following in /var/log/system.log when attempting to launch one of the allowed applications from ~/Applications: Dec 22 17:36:24 hostname parentalcontrolsd[43221]: -[ActivityTracker checkApp:csFlags:] [954:username] -- *** Incoming app appears to be masquerading as white listed app and failed signature validation: /Users/username/Applications/FileMaker Pro 5.5/FileMaker Pro.app/Contents/MacOS/FileMaker Pro. Note: This may be a valid app of a different version than what was whitelisted (on a different volume?) Dec 22 17:36:24 hostname [0x0-0xa42a42].com.filemaker.filemakerpro[43304]: launch of /Users/username/Applications/FileMaker Pro 5.5/FileMaker Pro.app/Contents/MacOS/FileMaker Pro was blocked Dec 22 17:36:24 hostname com.apple.launchd.peruser.1340[6375] ([0x0-0xa42a42].com.filemaker.filemakerpro[43304]): Exited with exit code: 255 Dec 22 17:36:24 hostname parentalcontrolsd[43221]: -[ActivityTracker(Private) _removeAppFromWhiteList:] [1362:username] -- *** Couldn't find local user record Running sudo mcxquery -format xml -user username -group groupname includes the following entry for FileMaker Pro 5.5 (and appears to include a full integration of the user's application whitelist & group's application whitelist): <dict> <key>bundleID</key> <string>com.filemaker.filemakerpro</string> <key>displayName</key> <string>FileMaker Pro</string> </dict> Note the lack of <key>appID</key><data> ... </data> which seems to specify a signed application. While whitelisted directories also appear to be correctly listed in the results, they too do not actually allow the applications to be run either. What is going on here?! Where else should I be looking?

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  • Eclipse 3.5 and Ubuntu 9.10, subversion client does not work

    - by Cédric Girard
    Hi, I had installed Eclipse 3.5 Yoxos on my Ubuntu 8.04 for month, and run fine. I had upgraded to 9.10 last week, and the subversion plugin does not work since upgrade. When I try to update or commit, Subversion work for hours without any progress in console or progress bars. I can delete files or add them to SVN, but commands wich involve network just hang. SVN run fine using command line. I have already patched the GDK problem. Since this I can cancel update/commit without crashing Eclipse. Regards Cédric

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  • An important question on iPhone file writing

    - by Kyle
    I use the NSHomeDirectory() function to get the app's home folder, and write to the Documents directory within that. I'm curious, though, what happens when the user downloads an update for the app in the appstore? Will it all be deleted? When I delete the app on the device, then reinstall it, its wiped out. So, I'm curious to know what will happen with an update. I can't find this in the documentation at all. Thanks alot for reading. I really tried to find this asked somewhere else first, but couldn't. Hopefully this page will be informative to guys like me who are confused on the subject.

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  • How to handle data output in an Observer?

    - by Mannaz
    I have an Observable and an Observer. The observable does download some stuff in a background thread and calls notifyObservers to let the observers read the status. At some point in public void update the observer tries to updates the GUI ((TextView)findViewById('R.id.foo')).setText("bar"); but it seems like the observable thread calls this method, because the Observable (!!!) throws this: android.view.ViewRoot$CalledFromWrongThreadException: Only the original thread that created a view hierarchy can touch its views. at android.view.ViewRoot.checkThread(ViewRoot.java:2462) at android.view.ViewRoot.requestLayout(ViewRoot.java:512) ... at com.mynamespace.acitivty.TrackActivity.startPlay(TrackActivity.java:72) at com.mynamespace.acitivty.TrackActivity.update(TrackActivity.java:107) at java.util.Observable.notifyObservers(Observable.java:147) at java.util.Observable.notifyObservers(Observable.java:128) at com.mynamespace.module.communication.Download.stateChanged(Download.java:213) at com.mynamespace.module.communication.Download.run(Download.java:186) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:1058) Is there some way I can prevent this from happening? I'm sure I'm missing something obvious here.

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  • Highlighting effect to text and/or image similar to be synchronized with audio

    - by Irfan Mulic
    I am looking how to approach following problem: We have application that displays text with audio recorded material. We use Browser Control (Internet Explorer) in Delphi App to do this. We respond to events in Delphi code setting innerHTML for elements if we have to update the style ... Now, request is to add option to dynamically move the cursor or dynamically highlight the words spoken from the paragraph. It doesn't need to match absolutely the exact word spoken so we will have to dynamically update the content of position of highlighted word based on some timer or something (because it is not text to speach). What should be the most practical and easy approach to this kind of problem, all answers are greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Best way to hide a window from the Alt-Tab program switcher?

    - by chaiguy1337
    I've been a .NET developer for several years now and this is still one of those things I don't know how to do properly. It's easy to hide a window from the taskbar via a property in both Windows Forms and WPF, but as far as I can tell, this doesn't guarantee (or necessarily even affect) it being hidden from the Alt-Tab dialog. I've seen invisible windows show up in Alt-Tab, and I'm just wondering what is the best way to guarantee a window will never appear (visible or not) in the Alt-Tab dialog. Update: Please see my posted solution below. I'm not allowed to mark my own answers as the solution, but so far it's the only one that works. Update 2: There's now a proper solution by Franci Penov that looks pretty good, but haven't tried it out myself. Involves some Win32, but avoids the lame creation of off-screen windows.

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