Search Results

Search found 70970 results on 2839 pages for 'asp net c session variable'.

Page 307/2839 | < Previous Page | 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311 312 313 314  | Next Page >

  • Using DisplayFor inside a display template

    - by Oenotria
    I've created a htmlhelper extension to reduce the amount of repetitive markup when creating forms: public static MvcHtmlString RenderField<TModel, TValue>(this HtmlHelper<TModel> htmlHelper, Expression<Func<TModel, TValue>> expression) { return htmlHelper.DisplayFor(expression, "formfield"); } The idea being that inside my views I can just write @Html.RenderField(x=>x.MyFieldName) and it will print the label and the field's content with the appropriate div tags in place already. Inside the displaytemplates folder I have created formfield.cshtml containing the following: <div class="display-group"> <div class="display-label"> @Html.LabelFor(x => x) </div> <div class="display-field"> @Html.DisplayFor(x => x) </div> </div> Unfortunately it doesn't appear that it is possible to nest DisplayFor inside a display template (it doesn't render anything). I don't want to just using @Model because then I won't get checkboxes for boolean values, calendar controls for dates etc. Is there a good way around this?

    Read the article

  • LINQ to SQL for tables across databases. Or View?

    - by BritishDeveloper
    I have a Message table and a User table. Both are in separate databases. There is a userID in the Message table that is used to join to the User table to find things like userName. How can I create this in LINQ to SQL? I can't seem to do a cross database join. Should I create a View in the database and use that instead? Will that work? What will happen to CRUD against it? E.g. if I delete a message - surely it won't delete the user? I'd imagine it would throw an error. What to do? I can't move the tables into the same database!

    Read the article

  • Access parent class from custom attribute

    - by madcapnmckay
    Hi, Is it possible to access a parent class from within an attribute. For example I would like to create a DropDownListAttribute which can be applied to a property of a viewmodel class in MVC and then create a drop down list from an editor template. I am following a similar line as Kazi Manzur Rashid here. He adds the collection of categories into viewdata and retrieves them using the key supplied to the attribute. I would like to do something like the below, public ExampleDropDownViewModel { public IEnumerable<SelectListItem> Categories {get;set;} [DropDownList("Categories")] public int CategoryID { get;set; } } The attribute takes the name of the property containing the collection to bind to. I can't figure out how to access a property on the parent class of the attribute. Does anyone know how to do this? Thanks

    Read the article

  • PortableArea and MasterPages

    - by Sunny
    How can I design my portable areas such that the consumer can specify the MasterPage & various content placeholders & my portable area renders into those regions at run time? Any code samples and/or ideas? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Extension method not working if I set controller property in Action, works in OnExecuting

    - by Blankman
    I have a class MyController that inherits from Controller, so all my controllers inherit from MyController. I have a property in MyController: public class MyController : Controller { public string SomeProperty {get;set;} } if I set this property in MyController's OnExecuting method, my HtmlHelper extension method works fine: public static string SomeExtension(this HtmlHelper htmlHelper) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); string result = ""; var controller = htmlHelper.ViewContext.Controller as MyController; if (controller != null) { result = controller.SomeProperty; } return result; } it doesn't work if I set 'SomeProperty' in my controllers action method. I guess because I am doing 'as MyController' in the extension method? is there a way for it to work in both situations? I am using the value of SomeProperty to be outputted on my view pages.

    Read the article

  • How to get the id of Updatepanel which initiated a postback

    - by Voice
    Hi I need to intercept server callback after udate panel async post back and determine which panel initiated the request. The code is pretty simple: Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().add_pageLoaded(InterceptUpdateCallback); function InterceptUpdateCallback(sender, args) { var updatedPanels = args.get_panelsUpdated(); for (idx = 0; idx < updatedPanels.length; idx++) { if (updatedPanels[idx].id == "myUpdatePanel") { StartSmth(); break; } } } And it works when UpdatePanel is not inside another UpdatePanel. But when it is inside another UpdatePanel updatedPanels[idx].id has parent Updatepanel id. So how can I get the id of UpdatePanel which initiated the request (the inner UpdatePanel)? Thanx

    Read the article

  • I need to convert the result of a stored procedure in a dbml file to IQueryable to view a list in an

    - by RJ
    I have a MVC project that has a Linq to SQL dbml class. It is a table called Clients that houses client information. I can easily get the information to display in a View using the code I followed in Nerd Dinner but I have added a stored procedure to the dbml and it's result set is of IQueryable, not IQueryable. I need to convert IQueryable to IQueryable so I can display it in the same View. The reason for the sproc is so I can pass a search string tothe sproc and return the same information as a full list but filtered on the search. I know I can use Linq to filter the whole list but I don't want the whole list so I am using the sproc. Here is the code in my ClientRepository with a comment where I need to convert. What code goes in the commented spot. public IQueryable<Client> SelectClientsBySearch(String search) { IQueryable<SelectClientsBySearchResult> spClientList = (from p in db.SelectClientsBySearch(search) select p).AsQueryable(); //what is the code to convert IQueryable<SelectClientsBySearchResult> to IQueryable<Client> return clientList; }

    Read the article

  • How to create multiple Repository object inside a Repository class using Unit Of Work?

    - by Santosh
    I am newbie to MVC3 application development, currently, we need following Application technologies as requirement MVC3 framework IOC framework – Autofac to manage object creation dynamically Moq – Unit testing Entity Framework Repository and Unit Of Work Pattern of Model class I have gone through many article to explore an basic idea about the above points but still I am little bit confused on the “Repository and Unit Of Work Pattern “. Basically what I understand Unit Of Work is a pattern which will be followed along with Repository Pattern in order to share the single DB Context among all Repository object, So here is my design : IUnitOfWork.cs public interface IUnitOfWork : IDisposable { IPermitRepository Permit_Repository{ get; } IRebateRepository Rebate_Repository { get; } IBuildingTypeRepository BuildingType_Repository { get; } IEEProjectRepository EEProject_Repository { get; } IRebateLookupRepository RebateLookup_Repository { get; } IEEProjectTypeRepository EEProjectType_Repository { get; } void Save(); } UnitOfWork.cs public class UnitOfWork : IUnitOfWork { #region Private Members private readonly CEEPMSEntities context = new CEEPMSEntities(); private IPermitRepository permit_Repository; private IRebateRepository rebate_Repository; private IBuildingTypeRepository buildingType_Repository; private IEEProjectRepository eeProject_Repository; private IRebateLookupRepository rebateLookup_Repository; private IEEProjectTypeRepository eeProjectType_Repository; #endregion #region IUnitOfWork Implemenation public IPermitRepository Permit_Repository { get { if (this.permit_Repository == null) { this.permit_Repository = new PermitRepository(context); } return permit_Repository; } } public IRebateRepository Rebate_Repository { get { if (this.rebate_Repository == null) { this.rebate_Repository = new RebateRepository(context); } return rebate_Repository; } } } PermitRepository .cs public class PermitRepository : IPermitRepository { #region Private Members private CEEPMSEntities objectContext = null; private IObjectSet<Permit> objectSet = null; #endregion #region Constructors public PermitRepository() { } public PermitRepository(CEEPMSEntities _objectContext) { this.objectContext = _objectContext; this.objectSet = objectContext.CreateObjectSet<Permit>(); } #endregion public IEnumerable<RebateViewModel> GetRebatesByPermitId(int _permitId) { // need to implment } } PermitController .cs public class PermitController : Controller { #region Private Members IUnitOfWork CEEPMSContext = null; #endregion #region Constructors public PermitController(IUnitOfWork _CEEPMSContext) { if (_CEEPMSContext == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("Object can not be null"); } CEEPMSContext = _CEEPMSContext; } #endregion } So here I am wondering how to generate a new Repository for example “TestRepository.cs” using same pattern where I can create more then one Repository object like RebateRepository rebateRepo = new RebateRepository () AddressRepository addressRepo = new AddressRepository() because , what ever Repository object I want to create I need an object of UnitOfWork first as implmented in the PermitController class. So if I would follow the same in each individual Repository class that would again break the priciple of Unit Of Work and create multiple instance of object context. So any idea or suggestion will be highly appreciated. Thank you

    Read the article

  • Which is more flexible in regards to database changes, EF 4 or Linq to SQL

    - by JBeckton
    Reading about both Linq to SQL and Entity Framework I have developed the impression that EF is more suitable for apps that get data from multiple data sources. But as I am reading about MVC2 models I see an example where EF is more loosely coupled with your data model. If I have to add or remove some columns from a table then what is involved in updating my model or DAL with each of these implementations?

    Read the article

  • How to use StructureMap to inject repository classes to the controller?

    - by Lorenzo
    In the current application I am working on I have a custom ControllerFactory class that create a controller and automatically sets the Elmah ErrorHandler. public class BaseControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { public override IController CreateController( RequestContext requestContext, string controllerName ) { var controller = base.CreateController( requestContext, controllerName ); var c = controller as Controller; if ( c != null ) { c.ActionInvoker = new ErrorHandlingActionInvoker( new HandleErrorWithElmahAttribute() ); } return controller; } protected override IController GetControllerInstance( RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType ) { try { if ( ( requestContext == null ) || ( controllerType == null ) ) return base.GetControllerInstance( requestContext, controllerType ); return (Controller)ObjectFactory.GetInstance( controllerType ); } catch ( StructureMapException ) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine( ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() ); throw new Exception( ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() ); } } } I would like to use StructureMap to inject some code in my controllers. For example I would like to automatically inject repository classes in them. I have already created my repository classes and also I have added a constructor to the controller that receive the repository class public FirmController( IContactRepository contactRepository ) { _contactRepository = contactRepository; } I have then registered the type within StructureMap ObjectFactory.Initialize( x => { x.For<IContactRepository>().Use<MyContactRepository>(); }); How should I change the code in the CreateController method to have the IContactRepository concrete class injected in the FirmController? EDIT: I have changed the BaseControllerFactory to use Structuremap. But I get an exception on the line return (Controller)ObjectFactory.GetInstance( controllerType ); Any hint?

    Read the article

  • routing paramenter returns null when only supplying first paramenter in MVC

    - by Ray ForRespect
    My issue is that I customer Map Route in MVC which takes three parameters. When I supply all three or just two, the parameters are passed from the URL to my controller. However, when I only supply the first parameter, it is not passed and returns null. Not sure what causes this behavior. Route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Details", // Route name url: "{controller}/{action}/{param1}/{param2}/{param3}", // URL with parameters defaults: new { controller = "Details", action = "Index", param1 = UrlParameter.Optional, param2 = UrlParameter.Optional, param3 = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); Controller: public ActionResult Map(string param1, string param2, string param3) { StoreMap makeMap = new StoreMap(); var storemap = makeMap.makeStoreMap(param1, param2, param3); var model = storemap; return View(model); } string param1 returns null when I navigate to: /StoreMap/Map/PARAM1NAME but it doesn't return null when I navigate to: /StoreMap/Map/PARAM1NAME/PARAM2NAME

    Read the article

  • varchar data type to datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range??

    - by leen3o
    Very weird problem occurred, I have moved a site from one server to another - All is working, but any query involving a date is playing up. I get the following: DELETE FROM MYTABLE WHERE categoryId = -2 AND datecreated < '3/23/2010'; The conversion of a varchar data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range value Now what's strange is I have changed the LCID to 1033 on the new server as the date is showing as US format and its still throwing an error! I then tried 2057 and again the same error? Made no difference. I'm a little confused, as this is a working site from a server with IIS6 - The locale is 1033 on that server and it works perfectly!! :S I have just tried thrown a Cdate() around the date too and yet again the same error??? Any ideas??

    Read the article

  • How do you handle ajax requests when user is not authenticated?

    - by LukLed
    How do you handle ajax requests when user is not authenticated? Someone enters the page, leaves room for an hour, returns, adds comment on the page that goes throuh ajax using jQuery ($.post). Since he is not authenticated, method return RedirectToRoute result (redirects to login page). What do you do with it? How do you handle it on client side and how do you handle it in controller?

    Read the article

  • How to set the ReturnUrl for the Login link in MVC 3 app?

    - by user762196
    using System; using Microsoft.Practices.Unity; namespace <MyNameSpace> { public class UrlFactory { public static UrlFactory Current { get { return HttpApplicationUnityContext.Current.Resolve<UrlFactory>(); } } public string GetLoginUrl() { return String.Format("{0}/login?ReturnUrl={1}", MyConfig.BaseHttpUrl, <GET_PAGE_URL>); } } The user can be on any page on the site and click the Login link. But the ReturnUrl must always point to the exact page where he clicked it. I must take the user back to the page he clicked the login link. In my code above, how do I get the page url in <GET_PAGE_URL>? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Function chaining depending on boolean result

    - by Markive
    This is just an efficiency question really.. I'm interested to know if there is a more efficient or logical way that people use to handle this sort of scenario. In my asp.net application I am running a script to generate a new project my code at the top level looks like this: Dim ok As Boolean = True ok = createFolderStructure() If ok Then ok = createMDB() If ok Then ok = createProjectConfig() If ok Then ok = updateCompanyConfig() I create a boolean and each function returns a boolean result, the next function in this chain will only run if the previous one was successful. I do this because an asp.net application will continue to run through the page life cycle unless there is an unhandled exception and I don't want my whole application to be screwed up if something in the chain goes wrong (there is a lot of copying and deleting of files etc.. in this example). I was just wondering how other people handle this scenario? the vb.net single line if statement is quite succinct but I'm wondering if there is a better way?

    Read the article

  • How to initiate JavaScript Callback with MVC2 using RenderAction

    - by Zacho
    I am building a dashboard where I am iterating through a list of controls to render, and I need to initiate a general callback both after each control and after they are all completed. I was curious what the best way to handle this is. I can get the control specific callback fired off by placing myUserControlCallback(); in the user control itself. I'm just not sure how to run something like allControlsRendered();. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • delete data using entity framework

    - by user3474542
    The objective of the method below is to delete the data from the database using entity framework. I am populating the subscriptions entity by passing two parameters and then calling the atttach and remove method of the context class. Bureau entities is the context class. using (BUREAUEntities bureauEntities = new BUREAUEntities()) { var subscription = new SubcriptionRepository().GetSusbcriptionBySubscriptionTypeId(subscriptionTypeId, companyId); bureauEntities.Subscriptions.Attach((DataAccessLayer.DatabaseModel.Subscription)subscription); bureauEntities.Subscriptions.Remove(subscription); bureauEntities.SaveChanges(); } I am getting the following error message at An entity object cannot be referenced by multiple instances of IEntityChangeTracker at line bureauEntities.Subscriptions.Attach((DataAccessLayer.DatabaseModel.Subscription)subscription); Could somebody tell me where am I going wrong ?

    Read the article

  • Action method expected parameter named Id and nothing otherwise

    - by codingbiz
    The Error The parameters dictionary contains a null entry for parameter 'UserId' of non-nullable type 'System.Int64' for method 'System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Predict(Int64)' in 'sportingbiz.Controllers.PredictionController'. An optional parameter must be a reference type, a nullable type, or be declared as an optional parameter. Parameter name: parameters This does not work. Throws the error mentioned above http://mysite/User/Profile/15 This works http://mysite/User/Profile/?UserID=15 The Controller Action public ActionResult Profile(long UserID) { } When I changed the parameter name to Id it works. I think it's because Id was specified in the route collection (Global.asax). Is it possible to tell MVC that UserId should map to Id without changing it in the Global.asax

    Read the article

  • How do you get the ID of a control in ASP.NET

    - by James
    I am attempting to loop through an array of numbers, match them to the checkbox they they are associated with, and checkmark that box. My checkbox is set up like: <input type="checkbox" runat="server" id="someID" name="somename" value="1234" /> My code when the page loads currently looks like: foreach (string interest in interests_Var){ foreach (var c in Page.Controls) { } } interests_Var is my array containing different numbers. We'll assume one of them is 1234. While looping through the page controls, I want to compare the value of the control to my number. If it equals my number, I want to then apply the attribute checked="checked". I'm assuming I have to find the ID of the control I am using, then use that ID to add a new attribute. Or is there a way I can add the attribute using the c variable? I'm not dead set on this setup, so if you know a better way, I'm all ears. Thanks for any help and suggestions.

    Read the article

  • How to handle null {id} on route?

    - by MattSlay
    What if a user hits my site with http://www.mysite.com/Quote/Edit rather than http://www.mysite.com/Quote/Edit/1000 In other words, they do not specify a value for {id}. If they do not, I want to display a nice "Not Found" page, since they did not give an ID. I currentl handle this by accepting a nullable int as the parameter in the Controller Action and it works fine. However, I'm curious if there a more standard MVC framework way of handling this, rather than the code I presently use (see below). Is a smoother way to handle this, or is this pretty mush the right way to do it? [HttpGet] public ActionResult Edit(int? id) { if (id == null) return View("QuoteNotFound"); int quoteId = (int)id; var viewModel = new QuoteViewModel(this.UserId); viewModel.LoadQuote(quoteId); if (viewModel.QuoteNo > 0) { return View("Create", viewModel.Quote.Entity); } else return View("QuoteNotFound"); }

    Read the article

  • MVC Pass textbox to controller if not in a form tag

    - by user1679820
    I am working on and Microsoft MVC3 project and cannot pass a parameter which has been edited to the controller. It will only pass back the original set parameter For example: @Ajax.ActionLink("share file", InviteController.Actions.Result, InviteController.Name, new { message = Model.Message }, new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "GET", UpdateTargetId = "popup", OnSuccess = "$('#popup').dialog('open')" }, new { id = "popup-button" }) <label>Personal Message <span class="optional-message">(optional)</span></label> @Html.TextAreaFor(x => x.Message) </div> This will pass the to the following controller but the 'message' parameter has the original message and not the updated message: public ActionResult Result(FormCollection coll, string message) { I'd love if someone could give me some advice. Many Thanks

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311 312 313 314  | Next Page >