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• Is it possible to recreate User Gestures in iPhone?

  - by MadhavanRP

  I am developing an app and I have encountered a problem that comes down to this scenario: Consider a superview with two buttons(button1,button2) and a text view, all as its subviews. When I click on one button, I display the text view. When I tap on anywhere outside the textview, but in the super view, I need to dismiss the text view. I have added a UITapGestureRecognizer to the super view and it calls a method tap:. In tap:, I get the point of the tap and if it is outside the text view, I dismiss the text view and remove the GestureRecognizer. Now the problem occurs when I tap on button 2. I need to dismiss the text view as well as execute the action for button 2. But it enters tap: and I do not wish to call the button 2's method from there. What I want to know is if it would be possible to emulate the same tap at the same co ordinates after the gesture recognizer is removed? If not what is the way I proceed to solve this issue?

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• android: consume key press, bypassing framework processing

  - by user360024

  What I want android to do: when user presses a single key, have the view respond, but do so without opening a text area and displaying the character associated with the key that was pressed, and without requiring that the Enter key be pressed, and without requiring that the user press Esc to make the text area go away. For example, when user presses "u" (and doesn't press Enter), that means "undo the last action", so the controller and model immediately undo the last action, then the view does an invalidate() and user sees that their last action has been undone. In other words the "u" key press should be silently processed, such that the only visual result is that user's last action has been undone. I've implemented OnKeyListener and provided an onKey() method: the class: public class MyGameView extends View implements OnKeyListener{ in the constructor: //2010jun06, phj: With onKey(), helps let this View consume key presses // before the framework gets a chance to consume the key press. setOnKeyListener((View.OnKeyListener)this); the onKey() method: public boolean onKey(View v, int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_R) { Log.d("BWA", "In onKey received keycode associated with R."); } return true; // meaning the event (key press) has been consumed, so // the framework should not handle this event. } but when user presses "u" key on the emulator keypad, a textarea is opened at the bottom of the screen, the "u" charater is displayed there, and the onKey() method doesn't execute until user presses the Enter key. Is there a way to make android do what I want? Thanks,

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• jQuery selector for option tag value attribute returns null

  - by Ben

  Hello, I am trying to change the selected option in a select dropdown box with jQuery. I have it set so that it finds the hash tag at the end of the URL and based on that hash tag it changes the selected option in the select box. Most of my code is functional, it successfully finds the hash tag and executes the if statement that corresponds with it. However, when it goes to execute the "then" section of the statement when it goes to the selector for the option (which uses an attribute selector based on the value attribute of the option tag) it returns null. If figured this out with firebug, in the console it says that the selector is null. Here is my code: $(document).ready(function() { var $hash = window.location.hash if($hash == "#htmlcss") { $('option[value="HTML/CSS Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#php") { $('option[value="PHP Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#jscript") { $('option[value="Javascript and jQuery Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#improv") { $('option[value="General Website Improvements"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#towp") { $('option[value="Website Conversion to Wordpress"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#wptheme") { $('option[value="Wordpress Theme Design"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#complete") { $('option[value="Complete Website Creation"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#server") { $('option[value="Web Server Configuration"]').attr("selected","selected") } }); So to clarify, when I enter in a url that ends in the #php hash tag, for example, the desired action does not occur which would change the "PHP Coding" option to the selected one by using the "selected" html attribute however the selector for the particular option tag returns null. Is there a problem with my syntax or is my code not functioning in the way that I think it should? Thanks very much.

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• How to insert array into mysql using PDO and bindParam?

  - by moomoochoo

  I'm using the following code. The code works, but I want to change it so that it uses bindparam try { $dbh = new PDO("mysql:host=$hostname;dbname=$dbname", $username, $password); $stqid=array(); for ($i=0; $i<$array_count; $i++){ $stqid[$i][0]=$lastInsertValue; $stqid[$i][1]=$qid[$i][0]; $stqid[$i][2]=$qid[$i][1]; } $values = array(); foreach ($stqid as $rowValues) { foreach ($rowValues as $key => $rowValue) { $rowValues[$key] = $rowValues[$key]; } $values[] = "(" . implode(', ', $rowValues) . ")"; } $count = $dbh->exec("INSERT INTO qresults(instance, qid, result) VALUES ".implode (', ', $values)); $dbh = null; } catch(PDOException $e){ echo $e->getMessage(); } I replaced the following $count = $dbh->exec("INSERT INTO qresults(instance, qid, result) VALUES ".implode (', ', $values)); with $sql = "INSERT INTO qresults (instance, qid, result) VALUES (:an_array)"; $stmt = $dbh->prepare($sql); $stmt->bindParam(':an_array', implode(',', $values),PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->execute(); but the insert doesn't work anymore (I didn't get any error messages though). QUESTION: What am I doing wrong? How can I rewrite the code to use bindParam?

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• Best way to use PL/SQL Pacakge Cursors from Pro*C

  - by Greg Reynolds

  I have a cursor defined in PL/SQL, and I am wondering what the best way to use it from Pro*C is. Normally for a cursor defined in Pro*C you would do: EXEC SQL DECLARE curs CURSOR FOR SELECT 1 FROM DUAL; EXEC SQL OPEN curs; EXEC SQL FETCH curs INTO :foo; EXEC SQL CLOSE cusr; I was hoping that the same (or similar) syntax would work for a packaged cursor. For example, I have a package MyPack, with a declaration type MyType is record (X integer); cursor MyCurs(x in integer) return MyType; Now I have in my Pro*C code a rather unsatisfying piece of embedded PL/SQL that opens the cursor, does the fetching etc., as I couldn't get the first style of syntax to work. Using the example EXEC SQL EXECUTE DECLARE XTable is table of MyPack.MyType; BEGIN OPEN MyPack.MyCurs(:param); FETCH MyPack.MyCurs INTO XTable; CLOSE MyPack.MyCurs; END; END-EXEC; Does anyone know if there is a more "Pure" Pro*C approach?

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• Passing javascript object to webservice via Jquery ajax

  - by kralco626

  I have a webservice that returns an object [WebMethod] public List<User> ContractorApprovals() I also have a webservice that accepcts an object [WebMethod] public bool SaveContractor(Object u) When I make my webservice calls via Jquery: function ServiceCall(method, parameters, onSucess, onFailure) { var parms = "{" + (($.isArray(parameters)) ? parameters.join(',') : parameters) + "}"; // to json $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "services/"+method, data: parms, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { if (typeof onSucess == 'function' || typeof onSucess == 'object') onSucess(msg.d); }, error: function(msg, err) { $("#dialog-error").dialog('open');} }); I can call the first one just fine. My onSucess function gets passed a javascript object exactly structured like my User object on the service. However, I am now having trouble getting the object back to the server. I'm accepting Object as a parameter on the server side so I can't inagine there is an issue there. So I'm thinking something is wrong with the parms on the client side but i'm not sure what... I am doing something to the effect ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/ContractorApprovals", "", function(data,args){$("#div").data('user',data[0])}, null) then ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/SaveContractor", $("#div").data('user'), //These also do not work: "{'u': ' + $("#div").data("user") + '}", NOR JSON.stringify({u: userObject}) function(data,args){(alert(data)}, null) I know the first service call works, I can get the data. The second one is causing the "onFailure" method to execute rather then "OnSuccess". Any ideas?

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• XSLT 1.0: restrict entries in a nodeset

  - by Mike

  Hi, Being relatively new to XSLT I have what I hope is a simple question. I have some flat XML files, which can be pretty big (eg. 7MB) that I need to make 'more hierarchical'. For example, the flat XML might look like this: <D0011> .... .... and it should end up looking like this: <D0011> .... .... I have a working XSLT for this, and it essentially gets a nodeset of all the b elements and then uses the 'following-sibling' axis to get a nodeset of the nodes following the current b node (ie. following-sibling::*[position() =$nodePos]). Then recursion is used to add the siblings into the result tree until another b element is found (I have parameterised it of course, to make it more generic). I also have a solution that just sends the position in the XML of the next b node and selects the nodes after that one after the other (using recursion) via a *[position() = $nodePos] selection. The problem is that the time to execute the transformation increases unacceptably with the size of the XML file. Looking into it with XML Spy it seems that it is the 'following-sibling' and 'position()=' that take the time in the two respective methods. What I really need is a way of restricting the number of nodes in the above selections, so fewer comparisons are performed: every time the position is tested, every node in the nodeset is tested to see if its position is the right one. Is there a way to do that ? Any other suggestions ? Thanks, Mike

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• Javamail doesn't send a mail

  - by Jose Hdez

  I am developing a Java application and I am using Javamail to send a mail. My code is the following: Properties props = new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", "diana.cartif.es"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.port", "465"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.class","javax.net.ssl.SSLSocketFactory"); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", "465"); Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, new javax.mail.Authenticator() { protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication("alerts","pass"); } }); Message message = new MimeMessage(session); message.setFrom(new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); message.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO,InternetAddress.parse("[email protected]")); message.setSubject("Testing Subject"); message.setText("Dear Mail Crawler," +"\n\n No spam to my email, please!"); Transport.send(message); However when I execute this code it throws an Exception: javax.mail.MessagingException: Could not connect to SMTP host: diana.cartif.es, port: 465, response: -1 at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.openServer(SMTPTransport.java:1960) at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.protocolConnect(SMTPTransport.java:642) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:317) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:176) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:125) at javax.mail.Transport.send0(Transport.java:194) at javax.mail.Transport.send(Transport.java:124) at com.cartif.data.MainConnection.getFTPConnection(MainConnection.java:106) at com.cartif.main.Main.connectToServer(Main.java:72) at com.cartif.main.Main.main(Main.java:60) Data to connect is right because I checked it in my Mail Server. Could someone help me please? Thanks!

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• Python Multiprocessing Question

  - by Avan

  My program has 2 parts divided into the core and downloader. The core handles all the app logic while the downloader just downloads urls. Right now, I am trying to use the python multiprocessing module to accomplish the task of the core as a process and the downloader as a process. The first problem I noticed was that if I spawn the downloader process from the core process so that the downloader is the child process and the core is the parent, the core process(parent) is blocked until the child is finished. I do not want this behaivor though. I would like to have a core process and a downloader process that are both able to execute their code and communicate between each other. example ... def main(): jobQueue = Queue() jobQueue.put("http://google.com) d = Downloader(jobQueue) p = Process(target=d.start()) p.start() if __name__ == '__main__': freeze_support() main() where Downloader's start() just takes the url out of the queue and downloads it. In order to have the 2 processes unblocked, would I need to create 2 processes from the parent process and then share something between them?

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• Memory efficient collection class

  - by Joe

  I'm building an array of dictionaries (called keys) in my iphone application to hold the section names and row counts for a tableview. the code looks like this: [self.results removeAllObjects]; [self.keys removeAllObjects]; NSUInteger i,j = 0; NSString *key = [NSString string]; NSString *prevKey = [NSString string]; if ([self.allResults count] > 0) { prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:[[[self.allResults objectAtIndex:0] valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; for (NSDictionary *theDict in self.allResults) { key = [NSString stringWithString:[[theDict valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; if (![key isEqualToString:prevKey]) { NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:key]; i = 1; } else { i++; } j++; } NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; } [self.tableview reloadData]; The code works fine first time through but I sometimes have to rebuild the entire table so I redo this code which orks fine on the simulator, but on my device the program bombs when I execute the reloadData line : malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. If I remove the reloadData line the code works on the device. I'm wondering if this is something to do with the way I've built the keys array (ie using autoreleased strings and dictionaries).

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• Somewhat lost with jquery + php + json

  - by Luis Armando

  I am starting to use the jquery $.ajax() but I can't get back what I want to...I send this: $(function(){ $.ajax({ url: "graph_data.php", type: "POST", data: "casi=56&nada=48&nuevo=98&perfecto=100&vales=50&apenas=70&yeah=60", dataType: "json", error: function (xhr, desc, exceptionobj) { document.writeln("El error de XMLHTTPRequest dice: " + xhr.responseText); }, success: function (json) { if (json.error) { alert(json.error); return; } var output = ""; for (p in json) { output += p + " : " + json[p] + "\n"; } document.writeln("Results: \n\n" + output); } }); }); and my php is: <?php $data = $_POST['data']; function array2json($data){ $json = $data; return json_encode($json); } ?> and when I execute this I come out with: Results: just like that I used to have in the php a echo array2json statement but it just gave back gibberish...I really don't know what am I doing wrong and I've googled for about 3 hours just getting basically the same stuff. Also I don't know how to pass parameters to the "data:" in the $.ajax function in another way like getting info from the web page, can anyone please help me? Edit I did what you suggested and it prints the data now thank you very much =) however, I was wondering, how can I send the data to the "data:" part in jQuery so it takes it from let's say user input, also I was checking the php documentation and it says I'm allowed to write something like: json_encode($a,JSON_HEX_TAG|JSON_HEX_APOS|JSON_HEX_QUOT|JSON_HEX_AMP) however, if I do that I get an error saying that json_encode accepts 1 parameter and I'm giving 2...any idea why? I'm using php 5.2

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• Cookie blocked/not saved in IFRAME in Internet Explorer

  - by Piskvor

  I have two websites, let's say they're example.com and anotherexample.net. On anotherexample.net/page.html, I have an IFRAME SRC="http://example.com/someform.asp". That IFRAME displays a form for the user to fill out and submit to http://example.com/process.asp. When I open the form ("someform.asp") in its own browser window, all works well. However, when I load someform.asp as an IFRAME in IE 6 or IE 7, the cookies for example.com are not saved. In Firefox this problem doesn't appear. For testing purposes, I've created a similar setup on http://newmoon.wz.cz/test/page.php . example.com uses cookie-based sessions (and there's nothing I can do about that), so without cookies, process.asp won't execute. How do I force IE to save those cookies? Results of sniffing the HTTP traffic: on GET /someform.asp response, there's a valid per-session Set-Cookie header (e.g. Set-Cookie: ASPKSJIUIUGF=JKHJUHVGFYTTYFY), but on POST /process.asp request, there is no Cookie header at all. Edit3: some AJAX+serverside scripting is apparently capable to sidestep the problem, but that looks very much like a bug, plus it opens a whole new set of security holes. I don't want my applications to use a combination of bug+security hole just because it's easy. Edit: the P3P policy was the root cause, full explanation below.

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• Doctrine 2 entity cannot be saved with its many-to-many related entities

  - by user1333185

  I'm writing a project in ZF and have many-to-many related accounts and videos entities and I provide the account with the videos collection. When I try to save the account I receive the following error: A new entity was found through the relationship 'Entities\Account#playlistVideos' that was not configured to cascade persist operations for entity: Entities\Video@000000004d5f02ef00000000196757dc. Explicitly persist the new entity or configure cascading persist operations on the relationship. If you cannot find out which entity causes the problem implement 'Entities\Video#__toString()' to get a clue. I found a suggested solution with cascade={"persist"} which should allow videos to be saved together with the account by only specifying $this-em-persist($account) but then I get the error: Fatal error: method_exists(): The script tried to execute a method or access a property of an incomplete object. Please ensure that the class definition "Proxies\EntitiesAccountProxy" of the object you are trying to operate on was loaded before unserialize() gets called or provide a __autoload() function to load the class definition in... The same happens when I try to manually persist videos and account. Thank you for the help in advance.

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• Threading calls to web service in a web service - (.net 2.0)

  - by Ryan Ternier

  Got a question regarding best practices for doing parallel web service calls, in a web service. Our portal will get a message, split that message into 2 messages, and then do 2 calls to our broker. These need to be on separate threads to lower the timeout. One solution is to do something similar to (pseudo code): XmlNode DNode = GetaGetDemoNodeSomehow(); XmlNode ENode = GetAGetElNodeSomehow(); XmlNode elResponse; XmlNode demResponse; Thread dThread = new Thread(delegate { //Web Service Call GetDemographics d = new GetDemographics(); demResponse = d.HIALRequest(DNode); }); Thread eThread = new Thread(delegate { //Web Service Call GetEligibility ge = new GetEligibility(); elResponse = ge.HIALRequest(ENode); }); dThread.Start(); eThread.Start(); dThread.Join(); eThread.Join(); //combine the resulting XML and return it. //Maybe throw a bit of logging in to make architecture happy Another option we thought of is to create a worker class, and pass it the service information and have it execute. This would allow us to have a bit more control over what is going on, but could add additional overhead. Another option brought up would be 2 asynchronous calls and manage the returns through a loop. When the calls are completed (success or error) the loop picks it up and ends. The portal service will be called about 50,000 times a day. I don't want to gold plate this sucker. I'm looking for something light weight. The services that are being called on the broker do have time out limits set, and are already heavily logged and audited, so I'm not worried on that part. This is .NET 2.0 , and as much as I would love to upgrade I can't right now. So please leave all the goodies of 2.0 out please.

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• Why can't I start the Windows Update control panel with WinExec?

  - by Bill

  In Executing Control Panel Items, MSDN says this: Windows Vista Canonical Names In Windows Vista and later, the preferred method of launching a Control Panel item from a command line is to use the Control Panel item's canonical name. According to the Microsoft website this should work: The following example shows how an application can start the Control Panel item Windows Update with WinExec. WinExec("%systemroot%\system32\control.exe /name Microsoft.WindowsUpdate", SW_NORMAL); For Delphi 2010 I tried: var CaptionString: string; Applet: string; Result: integer; ParamString: string; CaptionString := ListviewApplets1.Items.Item[ ListviewApplets1.ItemIndex ].Caption; if CaptionString = 'Folder Options' then { 6DFD7C5C-2451-11d3-A299-00C04F8EF6AF } Applet := 'Microsoft.FolderOptions' else if CaptionString = 'Fonts' then {93412589-74D4-4E4E-AD0E-E0CB621440FD} Applet := 'Microsoft.Fonts' else if CaptionString = 'Windows Update' then { 93412589-74D4-4E4E-AD0E-E0CB621440FD } Applet := 'Microsoft.WindowsUpdate' else if CaptionString = 'Game Controllers' then { 259EF4B1-E6C9-4176-B574-481532C9BCE8 } Applet := 'Microsoft.GameControllers' else if CaptionString = 'Get Programs' then { 15eae92e-f17a-4431-9f28-805e482dafd4 } Applet := 'Microsoft.GetPrograms' //... ParamString := ( SystemFolder + '\control.exe /name ' ) + Applet; WinExec( ParamString, SW_NORMAL); <= This does not execute and when I trapped the error it returned ERROR_FILE_NOT_FOUND. I tried a ExecAndWait( ParamString ) method and it works perfectly with the same ParamString used with WinExec: ParamString := ( SystemFolder + '\control.exe /name ' ) + Applet; ExecAndWait( ParamString ); <= This executes and Runs perfectly The ExecAndWait method I used calls Windows.CreateProcess: if Windows.CreateProcess( nil, PChar( CommandLine ), nil, nil, False, 0, nil, nil, StartupInfo, ProcessInfo ) then begin try Does WinExec require a different ParamString, or am I doing this wrong with WinExec? I did not post the full ExecAndWait method but I can if someone wants to see it.

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• Use of putty in command line

  - by kij

  Hi, I'm trying to use putty in command line from an hudson job. The command is the following one: putty -ssh -2 -P 22 USERNAME@SERVER_ADDR -pw PASS -m command.txt Where 'command.txt' is a shell script to execute in the server through SSH. If i launch this command from the Window command prompt, it works, the shell script is executed on the server machine. If i launch a build of the hudson job configured with this batch command, it doesn't work. The build is running... and running... and running.. without doing anything, and i have to stop it manually. So my question is: Is it possible to launch an external programm (i.e. putty) from an hudson job ? ps: i tried SSH plugin but... not a really good plugin (pre/post build, fail status of the commands launched not caught by hudson, etc.) Thanks in advance for your help. Best regards. kij

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• Manipulating a NSTextField via AppleScript

  - by Garry

  A little side project I'm working on is a digital life assistant, much like project JARVIS. What I'm trying to do is speak to my mac, have my words translated to text and then have the text interpreted by my program. Currently, my app is very simple, consisting of a single window containing a single wrapped NSTextView. Using MacSpeech Dictate, When I say the custom command "Jeeves", MacSpeech ensures that my app is frontmost, highlights any text in the TextField and clears it, then presses the Return key to trigger the textDidEndEditing method of NSTextField. This is done via Applescript. MacSpeech then switches to dictation mode and the next sentence I say will appear in the NSTextField. What I can't figure out is how to signify that I have finished saying a command to my program. I could simply say another keyword like "execute" or something similar that would send an AppleScript return keystroke to my app (thereby triggering the textDidEndEditing event) but this is cumbersome. Is there a notification that happens when text is pasted into a NSTextField? Would a timer work that would fire after maybe three seconds once my program becomes frontmost (three seconds should be sufficient for me to say a command)? Thanks,

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• SQL trigger to delete rows from database

  - by wpearse

  I have an industrial system that logs alarms to a remotely hosted MySQL database. The industrial system inserts a new row whenever a property of the alarm changes (such as the time the alarm was activated, acknowledged or switched off) into a table named 'alarms'. I don't want multiple records for each alarm, so I have set up two database triggers. The first trigger mirrors each new record to a second table, creating/updating rows as required: CREATE TRIGGER `mirror_alarms` BEFORE INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW INSERT INTO `alarm_display` (Tag,...,OffTime) VALUES (new.Tag,...,new.OffTime) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE OnDate=new.OnDate,...,OffTime=new.OffTime The second trigger should execute after the first and (ideally) delete all rows from the alarms table. (I used the Tag property of the alarm because the Tag property never changes, although I suspect I could just use a 'DELETE FROM alarms WHERE 1' statement to the same effect). CREATE TRIGGER `remove_alarms` AFTER INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW DELETE FROM alarms WHERE Tag=new.Tag My problem is that the second trigger doesn't appear to run, or if it does, the second trigger doesn't delete any rows from the database. So here's the question: why does my second trigger not do what I expect it to do?

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• App Crashes Loading View Controllers

  - by golfromeo

  I have the following code in my AppDelegate.h file: @class mainViewController; @class AboutViewController; @interface iSearchAppDelegate : NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate> { UIWindow *window; mainViewController *viewController; AboutViewController *aboutController; UINavigationController *nav; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWindow *window; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet mainViewController *viewController; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet AboutViewController *aboutController; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UINavigationController *nav; [...IBActions declared here...] @end Then, in my .m file: @implementation iSearchAppDelegate @synthesize window; @synthesize viewController, aboutController, settingsData, nav, engines; (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { [window addSubview:nav.view]; [window addSubview:aboutController.view]; [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } -(IBAction)switchToHome{ [window bringSubviewToFront:viewController.view]; } -(IBAction)switchToSettings{ [window bringSubviewToFront:nav.view]; } -(IBAction)switchToAbout{ [window bringSubviewToFront:aboutController.view]; } - (void)dealloc { [viewController release]; [aboutController release]; [nav release]; [window release]; [super dealloc]; } @end Somehow, when I run the app, the main view presents itself fine... however, when I try to execute the actions to switch views, the app crashes with an EXC_BAD_ACCESS. Thanks for any help in advance.

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• Memory leaks while using array of double

  - by Gacek

  I have a part of code that operates on large arrays of double (containing about 6000 elements at least) and executes several hundred times (usually 800) . When I use standard loop, like that: double[] singleRow = new double[6000]; int maxI = 800; for(int i=0; i<maxI; i++) { singleRow = someObject.producesOutput(); //... // do something with singleRow // ... } The memory usage rises for about 40MB (from 40MB at the beggining of the loop, to the 80MB at the end). When I force to use the garbage collector to execute at every iteration, the memory usage stays at the level of 40MB (the rise is unsignificant). double[] singleRow = new double[6000]; int maxI = 800; for(int i=0; i<maxI; i++) { singleRow = someObject.producesOutput(); //... // do something with singleRow // ... GC.Collect() } But the execution time is 3 times longer! (it is crucial) How can I force the C# to use the same area of memory instead of allocating new ones? Note: I have the access to the code of someObject class, so if it would be needed, I can change it.

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• Do database engines other than SQL Server behave this way?

  - by Yishai

  I have a stored procedure that goes something like this (pseudo code) storedprocedure param1, param2, param3, param4 begin if (param4 = 'Y') begin select * from SOME_VIEW order by somecolumn end else if (param1 is null) begin select * from SOME_VIEW where (param2 is null or param2 = SOME_VIEW.Somecolumn2) and (param3 is null or param3 = SOME_VIEW.SomeColumn3) order by somecolumn end else select somethingcompletelydifferent end All ran well for a long time. Suddenly, the query started running forever if param4 was 'Y'. Changing the code to this: storedprocedure param1, param2, param3, param4 begin if (param4 = 'Y') begin set param2 = null set param3 = null end if (param1 is null) begin select * from SOME_VIEW where (param2 is null or param2 = SOME_VIEW.Somecolumn2) and (param3 is null or param3 = SOME_VIEW.SomeColumn3) order by somecolumn end else select somethingcompletelydifferent And it runs again within expected parameters (15 seconds or so for 40,000+ records). This is with SQL Server 2005. The gist of my question is this particular "feature" specific to SQL Server, or is this a common feature among RDBMS' in general that: Queries that ran fine for two years just stop working as the data grows. The "new" execution plan destroys the ability of the database server to execute the query even though a logically equivalent alternative runs just fine? This may seem like a rant against SQL Server, and I suppose to some degree it is, but I really do want to know if others experience this kind of reality with Oracle, DB2 or any other RDBMS. Although I have some experience with others, I have only seen this kind of volume and complexity on SQL Server, so I'm curious if others with large complex databases have similar experience in other products.

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• Doctrine2 - relationship

  - by Filip Golonka

  I'm developing an application, which is looking for optimal route and timetable in public transport. I have some experience about Doctrine1, but it's my first time with Doctrine2. There is soem new fields to describe relations (mappedBy and inversedBy) and also some new ways of mapping. I have following code: $query = $this->em->createQuery("SELECT partial cls.{stop}, partial t.{arriveTime, departureTime} FROM \Entities\Timetable t JOIN t.ride r JOIN t.carrierLineStop cls WHERE t.departureTime>=:time AND r.idCarrierLine=:carrierLine AND (cls.idStop=:firstStop OR cls.idStop=:lastStop)"); $query->setParameters(array( 'time' => $time, 'carrierLine' => $path->getLine(), 'firstStop' => $path->getFirstStop(), 'lastStop' => $path->getLastStop() )); When I try to execute that script I've got an error: [Semantical Error] line 0, col 24 near '}, partial t.{arriveTime,': Error: There is no mapped field named 'stop' on class Entities\CarrierLineStop. Mapping files: Entities\CarrierLineStop: type: entity table: carrier_line_stop fields: idCarrierLineStop: id: true type: integer unsigned: false nullable: false column: id_carrier_line_stop generator: strategy: IDENTITY nextStop: type: integer unsigned: false nullable: true column: next_stop manyToOne: idCarrierLine: targetEntity: Entities\CarrierLine cascade: { } mappedBy: null inversedBy: null joinColumns: id_carrier_line: referencedColumnName: id_carrier_line orphanRemoval: false stop: column: id_stop targetEntity: Entities\Stop cascade: { } mappedBy: null inversedBy: carrierLineStop joinColumns: id_stop: referencedColumnName: id_stop orphanRemoval: false lifecycleCallbacks: { } - Entities\Stop: type: entity table: stop fields: idStop: id: true type: integer unsigned: false nullable: false column: id_stop generator: strategy: IDENTITY name: type: string length: 45 fixed: false nullable: true miejscowosc: type: string length: 45 fixed: false nullable: true latitude: type: decimal nullable: true longitude: type: decimal nullable: true oneToMany: carrierLineStop: targetEntity: Entities\CarrierLineStop cascade: { } mappedBy: stop inversedBy: null joinColumns: id_stop: referencedColumnName: id_stop orphanRemoval: false lifecycleCallbacks: { } I have no idea about where the problem is...

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• Converting contents of a byte array to wchar_t*

  - by Christopher MacKinnon

  I seem to be having an issue converting a byte array (containing the text from a word document) to a LPTSTR (wchar_t *) object. Every time the code executes, I am getting a bunch of unwanted Unicode characters returned. I figure it is because I am not making the proper calls somewhere, or not using the variables properly, but not quite sure how to approach this. Hopefully someone here can guide me in the right direction. The first thing that happens in we call into C# code to open up Microsoft Word and convert the text in the document into a byte array. byte document __gc[]; document = word->ConvertToArray(filename); The contents of document are as follows: {84, 101, 115, 116, 32, 68, 111, 99, 117, 109, 101, 110, 116, 13, 10} Which ends up being the following string: "Test Document". Our next step is to allocate the memory to store the byte array into a LPTSTR variable, byte __pin * value; value = &document[0]; LPTSTR image; image = (LPTSTR)malloc( document->Length + 1 ); Once we execute the line where we start allocating the memory, our image variable gets filled with a bunch of unwanted Unicode characters: ????????????????? And then we do a memcpy to transfer over all of the data memcpy(image,value,document->Length); Which just causes more unwanted Unicode characters to appear: ????????????????? I figure the issue that we are having is either related to how we are storing the values in the byte array, or possibly when we are copying the data from the byte array to the LPTSTR variable. Any help with explaining what I'm doing wrong, or anything to point me in the right direction will be greatly appreciated.

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• Android app crashes on Async Task

  - by Telmo Vaz

  why is my APP crashing when I invoke the AsyncTask? public class Login extends Activity { String mail; EditText mailIn; Button btSubmit; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle tokenArg) { super.onCreate(tokenArg); setContentView(R.layout.login); mailIn = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.usermail); btSubmit = (Button)findViewById(R.id.submit); btSubmit.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View thisView) { new LoginProc().execute(); } }); } public class LoginProc extends AsyncTask<String, Void, Void> { @Override protected void onPreExecute() { mailIn = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.usermail); mail = mailIn.getText().toString(); super.onPreExecute(); } @Override protected Void doInBackground(String... params) { Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), mail, Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); return null; } } } I'm trying to make the String name get it's value on the preExecute method, but it happens that the app crashes on that point. Even if I take the preExecute and do that on the doInBrackground, it still crashes. What's wrong?

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• XMLHttpRequest() and outputting csv file

  - by sjw

  Initially, I developed a javascript function to use window.open to post contents of a form to a new window which simply opened the new window and initiated a csv file download. Now on reflection, I find the opening of the window superfluous and am trying to just execute a XMLHttpRequest() to download the csv. I am not getting what I want and I'm not 100% sure that I can so I thought I'd ask here for some assistance. When a form is submitted, I want to take all the form values and post them to another page which builds an SQL string and builds a csv based on the contents. (This I can do and works fine with XMLHttpRequest() as seen below) var xhReq = new XMLHttpRequest(); var parameters = ""; for ( i=0; i<formObj.elements.length; i++ ) { parameters += formObj.elements[i].name + "=" + encodeURI( formObj.elements[i].value ) + "&"; } xhReq.open("POST", outputLocation, false); xhReq.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xhReq.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameters.length); xhReq.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xhReq.send(parameters); document.write(xhReq.responseText); The code above calls the page ok, builds the csv ok, but it outputs the contents into the current browser window instead of initiating a csv file download. Can I achieve what I need using XMLHttpRequest() or am I going it about it the wrong way? Thanks

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