Search Results

Search found 9419 results on 377 pages for 'context sensitive grammar'.

Page 312/377 | < Previous Page | 308 309 310 311 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 319  | Next Page >

• VB.NET vs. C#.NET?

  - by Onion-Knight

  Hello everyone, The company I work for has all of its legacy ("legacy" being used rather liberally in this context) code in VB.NET. They have about 6000+ lines of VB.NET code, so all of the developers are comfortable with it. We have started to develop a new product, and are finding that some modules are easier to complete in C# than in VB.NET, such as Interprocess Communication via WCF. The things our product will eventually need to do are as follows: Communicate via IPC between Windows Services, Silverlight, and WinForms Handle parallization, and all the complexity that comes along with it Windows Service and WinForms development ASP.NET, AJAX, and Silverlight development Database (SQL) access Lots of event handling (Sync and Async events) My question is: Given the type of work we will be doing to complete our product, are there features of one language that will make life easier that the other does not have? And if so, it is worth asking the developers to switch to a language they are less comfortable with? I was hoping to keep this as objective as possible, by listing exactly what type of work we will be doing with the product. Please don't turn this into a VB/C# holy war. Thanks, Onion-Knight

  Read the article

• Setting Position of source and listener has no effect

  - by Ben E

  Hi Guys, First time i've worked with OpenAL, and for the life of my i can't figure out why setting the position of the source doesn't have any effect on the sound. The sounds are in stero format, i've made sure i set the listener position, the sound is not realtive to the listener and OpenAL isn't giving out any error. Can anyone shed some light? Create Audio device ALenum result; mDevice = alcOpenDevice(NULL); if((result = alGetError()) != AL_NO_ERROR) { std::cerr << "Failed to create Device. " << GetALError(result) << std::endl; return; } mContext = alcCreateContext(mDevice, NULL); if((result = alGetError()) != AL_NO_ERROR) { std::cerr << "Failed to create Context. " << GetALError(result) << std::endl; return; } alcMakeContextCurrent(mContext); SoundListener::SetListenerPosition(0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); SoundListener::SetListenerOrientation(0.0f, 0.0f, -1.0f); The two listener functions call alListener3f(AL_POSITION, x, y, z); Real vec[6] = {x, y, z, 0.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f}; alListenerfv(AL_ORIENTATION, vec); I set the sources position to 1,0,0 which should be to the right of the listener but it has no effect alSource3f(mSourceHandle, AL_POSITION, x, y, z); Any guidance would be much appreciated

  Read the article

• Why is a CoreData forceFetch required after a delete on the iPad but not the iPhone?

  - by alyoshak

  When the following code is run on the iPhone the count of fetched objects after the delete is one less than before the delete. But on the iPad the count remains the same. This inconsistency was causing a crash on the iPad because elsewhere in the code, soon after the delete, fetchedObjects is called and the calling code, trusting the count, attempts access to the just-deleted object's properties, resulting in a NSObjectInaccessibleException error (see below). A fix has been to use that commented-out call to performFetch, which when executed makes the second call to fetchObjects yield the same result as on the iPhone without it. My question is: Why is the iPad producing different results than the iPhone? This is the second of these differences that I've discovered and posted recently. -(NSError*)deleteObject:(NSManagedObject*)mo; { NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store before delete: %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); [self.managedObjectContext deleteObject:mo]; // Save the context. NSError *error = nil; if (![self.managedObjectContext save:&error]) { } // [self.fetchedResultsController performFetch:&error]; // force a fetch NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store after delete (and save): %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); return error; } (The full NSObjectInaccessibleException is: "Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSObjectInaccessibleException', reason: 'CoreData could not fulfill a fault for '0x1dcf90 <x-coredata://DC02B10D-555A-4AB8-8BC4-F419C4982794/Blueprint/p"

  Read the article

• oData/ADO.NET Data Services using LINQ-to-SQL with a decryption layer

  - by Program.X

  I have written an application using LINQ-to-SQL that submits a web form into a database. I absact the LINQ-to-SQL away using a Repository pattern. This repository has the basic methods: Get(), Save(), etc. As a development of the project, I needed to encrypt certain fields in the form. This was trivial, as I just added the encryption calls to the Get(), Save() methods in the Repository. Now, I want to put an oData layer over it, to allow RESTful extraction from MS Excel 2010 (when it comes out). I have this working, after a few stumbles on useless error messages, etc. However, obviously, those encrypted fields are still encrypted. My repository pattern would have decrypted these for me. As far as I know, I have to directly bind my oData service to the LINQ-to-SQL context for the schema, etc. to work - unless I enter a whole world of pain (any URLs appreciated). Is there a way I can insert my encryption/decryption layer into the request so decryption is done "on the fly"? I looked at the OnStartProcessingRequest() overload of DataService but this doesn't seem that useful.

  Read the article

• Is Perl's flip-flop operator bugged? It has global state, how can I reset it?

  - by Evan Carroll

  I'm dismayed. Ok, so this was probably the most fun perl bug I've ever found. Even today I'm learning new stuff about perl. Essentially, the flip-flop operator .. which returns false until the left-hand-side returns true, and then true until the right-hand-side returns false keep global state (or that is what I assume.) My question is can I reset it, (perhaps this would be a good addition to perl4-esque hardly ever used reset())? Or, is there no way to use this operator safely? I also don't see this (the global context bit) documented anywhere in perldoc perlop is this a mistake? Code use feature ':5.10'; use strict; use warnings; sub search { my $arr = shift; grep { !( /start/ .. /never_exist/ ) } @$arr; } my @foo = qw/foo bar start baz end quz quz/; my @bar = qw/foo bar start baz end quz quz/; say 'first shot - foo'; say for search \@foo; say 'second shot - bar'; say for search \@bar; Spoiler $ perl test.pl first shot foo bar second shot

  Read the article

• How to call Postgres function returning SETOF record?

  - by Peter

  I have written the following function: -- Gets stats for all markets CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION GetMarketStats ( ) RETURNS SETOF record AS $$ BEGIN SELECT 'R approved offer' AS Metric, SUM(CASE WHEN M.MarketName = 'A+' AND M.Term = 24 THEN LO.Amount ELSE 0 end) AS MarketAPlus24, SUM(CASE WHEN M.MarketName = 'A+' AND M.Term = 36 THEN LO.Amount ELSE 0 end) AS MarketAPlus36, SUM(CASE WHEN M.MarketName = 'A' AND M.Term = 24 THEN LO.Amount ELSE 0 end) AS MarketA24, SUM(CASE WHEN M.MarketName = 'A' AND M.Term = 36 THEN LO.Amount ELSE 0 end) AS MarketA36, SUM(CASE WHEN M.MarketName = 'B' AND M.Term = 24 THEN LO.Amount ELSE 0 end) AS MarketB24, SUM(CASE WHEN M.MarketName = 'B' AND M.Term = 36 THEN LO.Amount ELSE 0 end) AS MarketB36 FROM "Market" M INNER JOIN "Listing" L ON L.MarketID = M.MarketID INNER JOIN "ListingOffer" LO ON L.ListingID = LO.ListingID; END $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; And when trying to call it like this... select * from GetMarketStats() AS (Metric VARCHAR(50),MarketAPlus24 INT,MarketAPlus36 INT,MarketA24 INT,MarketA36 INT,MarketB24 INT,MarketB36 INT); I get an error: ERROR: query has no destination for result data HINT: If you want to discard the results of a SELECT, use PERFORM instead. CONTEXT: PL/pgSQL function "getmarketstats" line 2 at SQL statement I don't understand this output. I've tried using perform too, but I thought one only had to use that if the function doesn't return anything.

  Read the article

• jQuery Tabs remove icon

  - by mare

  Using jQuery Tabs script with an icon to remove the tab but this code renders differntly in IE8 and Firefox 3.6.2. The problem is that Firefox wraps the tab and puts "X" signs in new row, whicle IE correctly renders it in the same row (but not centered vertically as it should but rather in the top right corner - which is still better than Firefox behaviour). I have spent the last hour trying to find out if the problems lies in CSS (both with Firebug and IE's Developer Toolbar) but there is nothing special in CSS, just the default jQuery Flick UI CSS. <div id="tabgroup.<%= Model.Slug %>"> <ul> <% foreach (ContentListItem tab in Model.Contains) {%> <li><a href="#tab\.<%=tab.Slug%>"> <%=tab.Title%></a><% if (Context.User.IsInRole("Administrators")) { %><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-close"><%=Resources.Localize.Routes_TabDelete %></span><% } %> </li> <% }%> </ul> <% foreach (ContentListItem tab in Model.Contains) { Html.RenderAction("Display", "Tab", new { slug = tab.Slug }); }%> </div> Please disregard the stuff about ASP.NET MVC code...

  Read the article

• Maven Mojo & SCM Plugin: Check for a valid working directory

  - by Patrick Bergner

  Hi there. I'm using maven-scm-plugin from within a Mojo and am trying to figure out how to determine if a directory D is a valid working directory of an SCM URL U (i.e. a checkout of U to D already happened). The context is that I want to do a checkout of U if D is a working set or do an update if it isn't. The plan is to check out U to D if D does not exist, update D if D is a valid working directory of U, display an error if D exists and is not a valid working directory of U. What I tried is to call ScmManager.status(), ScmManager.list() and ScmManager.changelog() and try to guess something from their results. But that didn't work. The results from status and changelog always return something positive (isSuccess() = true, getChangedFiles() = valid List, no exceptions to catch), whereas list throws an exception in any case. ScmRepository and ScmFileSet don't seem to provide suitable methods as well. An option would be to always do an update if D exists but then I cannot tell if it is a working directory of U or any SCM working directory at all. The ideal solution would be independent of the actual SCM system and a specific ScmVersion. Thanks for your help! Patrick

  Read the article

• Python Process won't call atexit

  - by Brian M. Hunt

  I'm trying to use atexit in a Process, but unfortunately it doesn't seem to work. Here's some example code: import time import atexit import logging import multiprocessing logging.basicConfig(level=logging.DEBUG) class W(multiprocessing.Process): def run(self): logging.debug("%s Started" % self.name) @atexit.register def log_terminate(): # ever called? logging.debug("%s Terminated!" % self.name) while True: time.sleep(10) @atexit.register def log_exit(): logging.debug("Main process terminated") logging.debug("Main process started") a = W() b = W() a.start() b.start() time.sleep(1) a.terminate() b.terminate() The output of this code is: DEBUG:root:Main process started DEBUG:root:W-1 Started DEBUG:root:W-2 Started DEBUG:root:Main process terminated I would expect that the W.run.log_terminate() would be called when a.terminate() and b.terminate() are called, and the output to be something likeso (emphasis added)!: DEBUG:root:Main process started DEBUG:root:W-1 Started DEBUG:root:W-2 Started DEBUG:root:W-1 Terminated! DEBUG:root:W-2 Terminated! DEBUG:root:Main process terminated Why isn't this working, and is there a better way to log a message (from the Process context) when a Process is terminated? Thank you for your input - it's much appreciated.

  Read the article

• Spring bean's DESTROY-METHOD attribute and web-application "prototype"d bean

  - by EugeneP

  Can get work the attribute "destroy-method". First, even if I type non-existing method name into "destroy-method" attribute, Spring initialization completes fine (already strange!). Next, when a bean has a "prototype" scope, then I suppose it must be destroyed before the application is closed. That not happens, it is simply never called in my case. Though, after extracting this bean I can call this method explicitly and it does its job. Could you explain why this method is never called in my Spring 2.5 case? p.s. The method exists, it is public and has no arguments. It seems to be a more difficult task then I thought. The problem is that this destroy method is called whenever the context is closed, and this is a rare case. My question is this: I have a web app. I have a "prototype"-scoped bean. What I need is when the current session is closed, this destroy method was automatically called by Spring. I can do it by hand, but is there any solution how to make Spring do this job? It destroys the bean after the session is destroyed, it might be possible for Spring to call a method on that bean before destroying it?

  Read the article

• Base class deleted before subclass during python __del__ processing

  - by Oddthinking

  Context I am aware that if I ask a question about Python destructors, the standard argument will be to use contexts instead. Let me start by explaining why I am not doing that. I am writing a subclass to logging.Handler. When an instance is closed, it posts a sentinel value to a Queue.Queue. If it doesn't, a second thread will be left running forever, waiting for Queue.Queue.get() to complete. I am writing this with other developers in mind, so I don't want a failure to call close() on a handler object to cause the program to hang. Therefore, I am adding a check in __del__() to ensure the object was closed properly. I understand circular references may cause it to fail in some circumstances. There's not a lot I can do about that. Problem Here is some simple example code: explicit_delete = True class Base: def __del__(self): print "Base class cleaning up." class Sub(Base): def __del__(self): print "Sub-class cleaning up." Base.__del__(self) x = Sub() if explicit_delete: del x print "End of thread" When I run this I get, as expected: Sub-class cleaning up. Base class cleaning up. End of thread If I set explicit_delete to False in the first line, I get: End of thread Sub-class cleaning up. Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute '__del__'" in <bound method Sub.__del__ of <__main__.Sub instance at 0x00F0B698>> ignored It seems the definition of Base is removed before the x._del_() is called. The Python Documentation on _del_() warns that the subclass needs to call the base-class to get a clean deletion, but here that appears to be impossible. Can you see where I made a bad step?

  Read the article

• MySqlDataReader giving error at build

  - by TuxMeister

  Hey there. I have a function in VB.net that authenticates a user towards a MySQL DB before launching the main application. Here's the code of the function: Public Function authConnect() As Boolean Dim dbserver As String Dim dbuser As String Dim dbpass As String dbserver = My.Settings.dbserver.ToString dbuser = My.Settings.dbuser.ToString dbpass = My.Settings.dbpass.ToString conn = New MySqlConnection myConnString = "server=" & dbserver & ";" & "user id=" & dbuser & ";" & "password=" & dbpass & ";" & "database=rtadmin" Dim myCommand As New MySqlCommand Dim myAdapter As New MySqlDataAdapter Dim myData As New DataTable Dim myDataReader As New MySqlDataReader Dim query As String myCommand.Parameters.Add(New MySqlParameter("?Username", login_usr_txt.Text)) myCommand.Parameters.Add(New MySqlParameter("?Password", login_pass_txt.Text)) query = "select * from users where user = ?Username and passwd = ?Password" conn.ConnectionString = myConnString Try conn.Open() Try myCommand.Connection = conn myCommand.CommandText = query myAdapter.SelectCommand = myCommand myDataReader = myCommand.ExecuteReader If myDataReader.HasRows() Then MessageBox.Show("You've been logged in.", "RT Live! Information", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Information) End If Catch ex As Exception End Try Catch ex As Exception End Try End Function The function is not yet complete, there are a few other things that need to be done before launching the application, since I'm using a MessageBox to display the result of the login attempt. The error that I'm getting is the following: Error 1 'MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlDataReader.Friend Sub New(cmd As MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlCommand, statement As MySql.Data.MySqlClient.PreparableStatement, behavior As System.Data.CommandBehavior)' is not accessible in this context because it is 'Friend'. C:\Users\Mario\documents\visual studio 2010\Projects\Remote Techs Live!\Remote Techs Live!\Login.vb 43 13 Remote Techs Live! Any ideas? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Can ElementTree be told to preserve the order of attributes?

  - by dmckee

  I've written a fairly simple filter in python using ElementTree to munge the contexts of some xml files. And it works, more or less. But it reorders the attributes of various tags, and I'd like it to not do that. Does anyone know a switch I can throw to make it keep them in specified order? Context for this I'm working with and on a particle physics tool that has a complex, but oddly limited configuration system based on xml files. Among the many things setup that way are the paths to various static data files. These paths are hardcoded into the existing xml and there are no facilities for setting or varying them based on environment variables, and in our local installation they are necessarily in a different place. This isn't a disaster because the combined source- and build-control tool we're using allows us to shadow certain files with local copies. But even thought the data fields are static the xml isn't, so I've written a script for fixing the paths, but with the attribute rearrangement diffs between the local and master versions are harder to read than necessary. This is my first time taking ElementTree for a spin (and only my fifth or sixth python project) so maybe I'm just doing it wrong. Abstracted for simplicity the code looks like this: tree = elementtree.ElementTree.parse(inputfile) i = tree.getiterator() for e in i: e.text = filter(e.text) tree.write(outputfile) Reasonable or dumb? Related links: How can I get the order of an element attribute list using Python xml.sax? Preserve order of attributes when modifying with minidom

  Read the article

• ASP MVC.Net 3 RC2 bug ?

  - by Jarek Waliszko

  Hello, so far I've been using ASP.Net 3 BETA. Everything was working fine till the update to RC2 version. Of course I've read ScottGu's article about RC2. My problem is following. Basically I have 2 controllers: public class DynamicPageController : Controller { public ActionResult Redirect(string resource, int? pageNumber, int? id) { } } public class SystemController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { } } In the Globals.asax I have routes like this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.MapRoute( "SystemRoute", "System/{action}", new { controller = "System", action = "Index" } ); routes.MapRoute( "PageRoute", "{resource}/{id}/{pageNumber}", new { controller = "DynamicPage", action = "Redirect", resource = UrlParameter.Optional, pageNumber = UrlParameter.Optional, id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); } In the code, I have simple link creation: System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper u = new System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper(context); string url = u.Action("Index", "System"); and the url is "/my_app/System" in both versions (BETA and RC2) But the code below (the syntax is the same as above, only controller and action names are different): string url = u.Action("Redirect", "DynamicPage", new RouteValueDictionary(new { resource = "Home" })); gives url which is null in RC2. It should be (and in fact in BETA was) "/my_app/Home" Why ? Is it a bug ? How can I create url for my "DynamicPage" controller ? Regards BTW: From where can I now download ASP.Mvc BETA version along with ASP.Net Web Pages 1.0 installers ? Since RC2 announcement I have problems finding mentioned 2 installers. Normally I would upgrade my code but this issue described above makes me stay with BETA for a while, since I have no time for migration and testing everything now.

  Read the article

• Spring - Transaction Readonly

  - by AAK

  Hello Gurus! Just wanted your expert opinions on declarative transaction management for Spring. Here is my setup - A. DAO Layer is Plain old JDBC using jdbcTemplete (No hibernate etc) B. Service Layer is POJO with declarative trasnactions as follows - save*, readonly=false, rollback for Throwable Things work fine with above setup. However when I say get*, readonly=true I see errors in my log file saying - Database connection cannot be marked as readonly. This happens for all get* methods in Service Layer. Now my questions - A. Do I have to say get* as readonly? All my get* methods are pure read DB operations. I do not wish to run them in any transaction context. How serious is the above error? B. When I remove the get* confiiguration, I do not see the errors, morever all my simple get* operations are performed without transactions. Is this the way to go? C. Why would anyone want to have transactional methods where readonly = true? Is there any practical significance of this configuration? Thank you! As always your resposes are much appreciated!

  Read the article

• Why I got some memory problems?

  - by Tattat

  I got this error from XCode: objc[8422]: FREED(id): message release sent to freed object=0x3b120c0 I googled and find that is related to the memory. But I don't know which line of code I go wrong, any ideas? @implementation MyAppDelegate @synthesize window; @synthesize viewController; - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { // Override point for customization after app launch [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; [self changeScene:[MainGameMenuScene class]]; } - (void)dealloc { [viewController release]; [window release]; [super dealloc]; } - (void) changeScene: (Class) scene { BOOL animateTransition = true; if(animateTransition){ [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.5]; [UIView setAnimationTransition:UIViewAnimationTransitionFlipFromLeft forView:window cache:YES]; //does nothing without this line. } if( viewController.view != nil ) { [viewController.view removeFromSuperview]; //remove view from window's subviews. [viewController.view release]; //release gamestate } viewController.view = [[scene alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, IPHONE_WIDTH, IPHONE_HEIGHT) andManager:self]; //now set our view as visible [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; if(animateTransition){ [UIView commitAnimations]; } }

  Read the article

• Continuous Integration with 64-bit Sharepoint and TFS 2008?

  - by Hirvox

  I've set up a 64-bit TFS 2008 build server with Sharepoint, continuous integration and out-of-the-box MSTest. Unit tests for plain business logic classes run just fine and test results are published into TFS. However, any test that uses Sharepoint's API fails horribly, SPFarm.Local returning null and so on. Is there a way to fix this? The tests run fine in an otherwise identical 32-bit development environment (Windows Server 2008 under Hyper-V, Sharepoint patched up to June 2009 cumulative update) from both Visual Studio and command line, so the problem is not about improper use of SPContext.Current or any other part of the API that needs to be run in a web server context. I've ruled out permissions issues, because the build agent account can deploy the solution and create site collections just fine with stsadm. The next culprit could be that the unit tests were being run with a 32-bit process, which couldn't access the 64-bit Sharepoint API properly. I tried a workaround, but it has the side effect of disabling TFS support in MSTest. Do I have to wait for 2010 versions of MS tools (and hope for the best) or is there a third-party test framework available that runs natively in 64 bit and can publish test results into TFS 2008?

  Read the article

• Problems when handling orientation changes

  - by nixau

  Hi all, I need to handle orientation changes in my Android application. For this purpose I decided to use OrientationEventListener convenience class. But his callback method is given somewhat strange behavior. My application starts in the portrait mode and then eventually switches to the lanscape one. I have some custom code executing in the callback onOrientationChanged method that provides some additional UI handling logic - it has a few calls to findViewById. What is strange is that when switching back from landscape to portrait mode onOrientationChanged callback is called twice, and what's even worse - the second call is dealing with bad Context - findViewById method starts returning null. These calls are made right from the MainThread @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); listener = new OrientationListener(); } @Override protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); // enabling listening listener.enable(); } @Override protected void onPause() { super.onPause(); // disabling listening listener.disable(); } I've replicated the same behavior with a dummy Activity without any logic except for one that deals with orientation hadling. I initiate orientation switch from the Android 2.2 emulator by pressing Ctrl+F11 What could be wrong? Upd: Inner class that implements OrientationEventListener private class OrientationListener extends OrientationEventListener { public OrientationL() { super(getBaseContext()); } @Override public void onOrientationChanged(int orientation) { toString(); } } }

  Read the article

• An unusual type signature

  - by Travis Brown

  In Monads for natural language semantics, Chung-Chieh Shan shows how monads can be used to give a nicely uniform restatement of the standard accounts of some different kinds of natural language phenomena (interrogatives, focus, intensionality, and quantification). He defines two composition operations, A_M and A'_M, that are useful for this purpose. The first is simply ap. In the powerset monad ap is non-deterministic function application, which is useful for handling the semantics of interrogatives; in the reader monad it corresponds to the usual analysis of extensional composition; etc. This makes sense. The secondary composition operation, however, has a type signature that just looks bizarre to me: (<?>) :: (Monad m) => m (m a -> b) -> m a -> m b (Shan calls it A'_M, but I'll call it <?> here.) The definition is what you'd expect from the types; it corresponds pretty closely to ap: g <?> x = g >>= \h -> return $ h x I think I can understand how this does what it's supposed to in the context of the paper (handle question-taking verbs for interrogatives, serve as intensional composition, etc.). What it does isn't terribly complicated, but it's a bit odd to see it play such a central role here, since it's not an idiom I've seen in Haskell before. Nothing useful comes up on Hoogle for either m (m a -> b) -> m a -> m b or m (a -> b) -> a -> m b. Does this look familiar to anyone from other contexts? Have you ever written this function?

  Read the article

• Cache consistency & spawning a thread

  - by Dave Keck

  Background I've been reading through various books and articles to learn about processor caches, cache consistency, and memory barriers in the context of concurrent execution. So far though, I have been unable to determine whether a common coding practice of mine is safe in the strictest sense. Assumptions The following pseudo-code is executed on a two-processor machine: int sharedVar = 0; myThread() { print(sharedVar); } main() { sharedVar = 1; spawnThread(myThread); sleep(-1); } main() executes on processor 1 (P1), while myThread() executes on P2. Initially, sharedVar exists in the caches of both P1 and P2 with the initial value of 0 (due to some "warm-up code" that isn't shown above.) Question Strictly speaking – preferably without assuming any particular CPU – is myThread() guaranteed to print 1? With my newfound knowledge of processor caches, it seems entirely possible that at the time of the print() statement, P2 may not have received the invalidation request for sharedVar caused by P1's assignment in main(). Therefore, it seems possible that myThread() could print 0. References These are the related articles and books I've been reading. (It wouldn't allow me to format these as links because I'm a new user - sorry.) Shared Memory Consistency Models: A Tutorial hpl.hp.com/techreports/Compaq-DEC/WRL-95-7.pdf Memory Barriers: a Hardware View for Software Hackers rdrop.com/users/paulmck/scalability/paper/whymb.2009.04.05a.pdf Linux Kernel Memory Barriers kernel.org/doc/Documentation/memory-barriers.txt Computer Architecture: A Quantitative Approach amazon.com/Computer-Architecture-Quantitative-Approach-4th/dp/0123704901/ref=dp_ob_title_bk

  Read the article

• How do I lookup a JNDI Datasource from outside a web container?

  - by masotime

  I have the following environment set up: Java 1.5 Sun Application Server 8.2 Oracle 10 XE Struts 2 Hibernate I'm interested to know how I can write code for a Java client (i.e. outside of a web application) that can reference the JNDI datasource provided by the application server. The ports for the Sun Application Server are all at their defaults. There is a JNDI datasource named jdbc/xxxx in the server configuration, but I noticed that the Hibernate configuration for the web application uses the name java:comp/env/jdbc/xxxx instead. Most of the examples I've seen so far involve code like Context ctx = new InitialContext(); ctx.lookup("jdbc/xxxx"); But it seems I'm either using the wrong JNDI name, or I need to configure a jndi.properties or other configuration file to correctly point to a listener? I have appserv-rt.jar from the Sun Application Server which has a jndi.properties inside of it, but it does not seem to help. There's a similar question here, but it doesn't give any code / refers to having iBatis obtain the JNDI Datasource automatically: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/39053/accessing-datasource-from-outside-a-web-container-through-jndi

  Read the article

• Is Software Engineering Dead? [closed]

  - by nik

  Right from Jeff's blog: Software Engineering: Dead? I was utterly floored when I read this new IEEE article by Tom DeMarco (pdf). See if you can tell why. He quotes DeMarco, "I'm gradually coming to the conclusion that software engineering is an idea whose time has come and gone". Further, "What DeMarco seems to be saying -- and, at least, what I am definitely saying -- is that control is ultimately illusory on software development projects." I am writing these lines without context to invoke reading of the related subject. What are the views of the programming community here? I have started to realize that a community wiki is not getting the right amount of participation here. That is the reason I left this question out in the open, while still contemplating a change to CW. It was closed once, and I thought that was the end of it. But, now I see it was reopened and has more answers (all of which I have not yet read). However, I see a lot of CW requests and am forced to reconsider that. This is how I intend to make the CW decision here. There is a comment by Neil Butterworth requesting a CW at 12 upvotes -- "should be community wiki" There is a comment by Lance Roberts requesting no CW at 0 upvotes -- "+1 for not putting it in community wiki" The difference is 12 for a CW request at the moment If this difference becomes 5 more (that is 17), I'll move this question to CW, and it will not return back from there Of course, there is also a close vote at the moment; the question may be closed again.

  Read the article

• partial entity loading and management in silverlight / wcf ria

  - by Dan Wray

  I have a Silverlight 4 app which pulls entities down from a database using WCF RIA services. These data objects are fairly simple, just a few fields but one of those fields contains binary data of an arbitrarily size. The application needs access to this data basically asap after a user has logged in, to display in a list, enable selection etc. My problem is because of the size of this data, the load times are not acceptable and can approach the default timeout of the RIA service. I'd like to somehow partially load the objects into my local data context so that I have the IDs, names etc but not the binary data. I could then at a later point (ie when it's actually needed) populate the binary fields of those objects I need to display. Any suggestions on how to accomplish this would be welcome. Another approach which has occurred to me whilst writing this question (how often does that happen?!) is that I could move the binary data into a seperate database table joined to the original record 1:1 which would allow me to make use of RIA's lazy loading on that binary data. again.. comments welcome! Thanks.

  Read the article

• Using Linq2Sql to insert data into multiple tables using an auto incremented primary key

  - by Thomas

  I have a Customer table with a Primary key (int auto increment) and an Address table with a foreign key to the Customer table. I am trying to insert both rows into the database in one nice transaction. using (DatabaseDataContext db = new DatabaseDataContext()) { Customer newCustomer = new Customer() { Email = customer.Email }; Address b = new Address() { CustomerID = newCustomer.CustomerID, Address1 = billingAddress.Address1 }; db.Customers.InsertOnSubmit(newCustomer); db.Addresses.InsertOnSubmit(b); db.SubmitChanges(); } When I run this I was hoping that the Customer and Address table automatically had the correct keys in the database since the context knows this is an auto incremented key and will do two inserts with the right key in both tables. The only way I can get this to work would be to do SubmitChanges() on the Customer object first then create the address and do SubmitChanges() on that as well. This would create two roundtrips to the database and I would like to see if I can do this in one transaction. Is it possible? Thanks

  Read the article

• how to retrive pK using spring security

  - by aditya

  i implement this method of the UserDetailService interface, public UserDetails loadUserByUsername(final String username) throws UsernameNotFoundException, DataAccessException { final EmailCredential userDetails = persistentEmailCredential .getUniqueEmailCredential(username); if (userDetails == null) { throw new UsernameNotFoundException(username + "is not registered"); } final HashSet<GrantedAuthority> authorities = new HashSet<GrantedAuthority>(); authorities.add(new GrantedAuthorityImpl("ROLE_USER")); for (UserRole role:userDetails.getAccount().getRoles()) { authorities.add(new GrantedAuthorityImpl(role.getRole())); } return new User(userDetails.getEmailAddress(), userDetails .getPassword(), true, true, true, true, authorities); } in the security context i do some thing like this <!-- Login Info --> <form-login default-target-url='/dashboard.htm' login-page="/login.htm" authentication-failure-url="/login.htm?authfailed=true" always-use-default-target='false' /> <logout logout-success-url="/login.htm" invalidate-session="true" /> <remember-me user-service-ref="emailAccountService" key="fuellingsport" /> <session-management> <concurrency-control max-sessions="1" /> </session-management> </http> now i want to pop out the Pk of the logged in user, how can i show it in my jsp pages, any idea thanks in advance

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 308 309 310 311 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 319  | Next Page >