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  • How to save errors with the handleError in CakePHP 2.0?

    - by jags1988cr
    I have a big problem. Well, I'm trying to save the errors that happen in my web application. For example (only a example), if I make a division by zero, or happens an error in a query or something like that. So, I wanna catch that and save it in the database. But the handleError of CakePHP is static, so I can't use $this-MyModel-saveError(...). In my /app/Lib/AppError.php I have this: class AppError extends ErrorHandler { public $uses = array('Errors.Error'); public static function handleError($code, $description, $file = null, $line = null, $context = null) { //This print the error: echo "Code: ".$code." Description: ".$description." File: ".$file." Line: ".$line."<br>"; //I want to do this, (save to the database): $this->Error->saveError($code, $description, $file, $line); } } Without the $this-Error-saveError($code, $description, $file, $line); it works but I not only want to show the error. I think need an example or something like that. Please help me. Regards and thank you. Thanks... P.D.: Sorry for the English, I'm an english student...

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  • Rails 3 Routing help

    - by Rod Nelson
    OK i'm new to rails 3 and the new routing is driving me mad. I just a good example i was looking at the info on http://rizwanreza.com/2009/12/20/revamped-routes-in-rails-3 but it don't make sense to me. i need an example please! I have my root down that's not hard. I have Site as my controller and i have index help and about then i have a second controller users with index and register on the register page i have 3 text boxes and a submit when i hit submit i get Routing Error No route matches "/user/register" if you need me to i will post my routes file

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  • How to focus a control in an MDIParent when all child windows have closed?

    - by Tim Gradwell
    I have a control in my parent mdi form which I wish to be given the focus if all mdi children have closed. I've tried hooking into the child form's FormClosed event and setting the focus from there but when I test it, my control is not left with focus when I close the mdi child. Can anyone tell me what I'm missing? In the sample below, "first focus" gets hit and does its job correctly (if I comment out the first focus line, my tree does not get focus on startup, so it must be doing its job, right?) Unfortunately, even though "second focus" gets hit, my tree does not end up with the focus when I close the child window. Sample using System; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace mdiFocus { class ParentForm : Form { public ParentForm() { IsMdiContainer = true; tree = new TreeView(); tree.Nodes.Add("SomeNode"); tree.Dock = DockStyle.Left; Controls.Add(tree); } protected override void OnShown(EventArgs e) { Form child = new Form(); child.MdiParent = this; child.Show(); child.FormClosed += new FormClosedEventHandler(child_FormClosed); tree.Focus(); // first focus works ok } void child_FormClosed(object sender, FormClosedEventArgs e) { tree.Focus(); // second focus doesn't seem to work, even though it is hit :( } TreeView tree; } static class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.Run(new ParentForm()); } } }

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  • Set cookie value before view loaded in MVC?

    - by James123
    I need to set a cookie value before my view called. otherwise I have to refresh the page to get cookie value in the view. The problem here is the value of cookie will get in controller. [HttpGet] [Route("Abstract/{meetingCode}")] [AllowAnonymous] public ActionResult Index(string meetingCode) { var meetingAbstract = new MeetingAbstract(); meetingAbstract.Meeting = _abstractContext.GetMeetingWithMeetingCode(meetingCode); if (meetingAbstract.Meeting != null) { var cookie = new HttpCookie("_culture"); cookie.Value = meetingAbstract.Meeting.language.language_locale_code;//"en-US"; cookie.Expires = DateTime.Now.AddDays(365); cookie.Path = "/"; this.ControllerContext.HttpContext.Response.Cookies.Add(cookie); ... Any other way without refresh the page again to set cookie value?

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  • ThreadExceptionEventHandler and invoking delegates

    - by QmunkE
    If I assign a ThreadExceptionEventHandler to Application.ThreadException, why when I invoke a delegate method using a control on the main application thread are any exceptions thrown by that delegate not triggering the event handler? i.e. static void Main() { ... Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); Application.Run(new Form1()); } static void Application_ThreadException(object sender, System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventArgs e) { Console.Error.Write("A thread exception occurred!"); } ... private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread syncThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(this.ThrowException)); syncThread.Start(); } private void ThrowException() { button1.Invoke(new MethodInvoker(delegate { // Not handled by ThreadExceptionEventHandler? throw new Exception(); })); } The context on this is that I have a background thread started from a form which is throwing an unhandled exception which terminates the application. I know this thread is going to be unreliable since it is network connectivity reliant and so subject to being terminated at any point, but I'm just interested as to why this scenario doesn't play out as I expect?

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  • Action method expected parameter named Id and nothing otherwise

    - by codingbiz
    The Error The parameters dictionary contains a null entry for parameter 'UserId' of non-nullable type 'System.Int64' for method 'System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Predict(Int64)' in 'sportingbiz.Controllers.PredictionController'. An optional parameter must be a reference type, a nullable type, or be declared as an optional parameter. Parameter name: parameters This does not work. Throws the error mentioned above http://mysite/User/Profile/15 This works http://mysite/User/Profile/?UserID=15 The Controller Action public ActionResult Profile(long UserID) { } When I changed the parameter name to Id it works. I think it's because Id was specified in the route collection (Global.asax). Is it possible to tell MVC that UserId should map to Id without changing it in the Global.asax

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  • What action is my Symfony/Doctrine generated form actually going to?

    - by Arms
    In my Symfony 1.4 project I am using the doctrine:generate-admin task to create the modules that compose my backend system. One such module is "journeys". When I view the source of the "journeys/new" page (which displays the form to create a new journey entity) the action of the form is simply "journeys" (I expected it to be "journeys/create"). The "journeys" route on its own would call the executeIndex method - however I put a log call in there and upon form submission, the log is not made. So this leads me to believe that executeIndex is NOT being called, and another piece of code is being fired upon form submission that then (depending on a hidden input in the form) calls either executeCreate() or executeUpdate(). Problem is, I don't know where that would be happening. Any insight would be much appreciated. I don't if this is relevant, but here is the routing definition for the journeys module journey: class: sfDoctrineRouteCollection options: model: journey module: journeys prefix_path: /journeys column: id with_wildcard_routes: true Thanks!

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  • How to make sure no scripts except those under my own domain, can include the db connection file?

    - by Jack
    I would like to ensure that any scripts that are trying to "include" my database connection file are located under my own domain. I don't want a hacker to include the database connection file to their malicious script and gain access to my database that way. My connection file's name is pretty easy to guess, it's called "connect.php". So without renaming it and taking the security through obscurity route, how can I protect it by making sure all connection requests are made by scripts residing under my own domain name? How can this be checked using PHP?

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  • How to properly assign a value to the member of a struct that has a class data type?

    - by sasayins
    Hi, Please kindly see below for the codes. Its compiling successfully but the expected result is not working. Im very confused because my initialization of the array is valid, //cbar.h class CBar { public: class CFoo { public: CFoo( int v ) : m_val = v {} int GetVal() { return m_val; } private: int m_val; }; public: static const CFoo foo1; static const CFoo foo2; public: CBar( CFoo foo ) m_barval( foo.GetVal() ){} int GetFooVal() { return m_barval; } private: int m_barval; }; //cbar.cpp const CBar::CFoo foo1 = CBar::CFoo(2); const CBar::CFoo foo2 = CBar::CFoo(3); //main.cpp struct St { CBar::CFoo foo; }; St st[] = { CBar::foo1, CBar::foo2 }; for( int i=0; i<sizeof(st)/sizeof(St); i++ ) { CBar cbar( st[i].foo ); std::cout << cbar.GetFooVal() << std::endl; } But then when I change the St::foo to a pointer. And like assign the address of CBar::foo1 or CBar::foo2, its working, like this, //main.cpp struct St { const CBar::CFoo *foo; }; St st[] = { &CBar::foo1, &CBar::foo2 }; for( int i=0; i<sizeof(st)/sizeof(St); i++ ) { CBar cbar( *st[i].foo ); std::cout << cbar.GetFooVal() << std::endl; } The real problem is. The app should output 2 3 Please advice. Many thanks.

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  • Java : Inner class of an interface (from google guice)

    - by bsreekanth
    Hello, I was going through the source of google guice, and found an unfamiliar piece of code. It would be great learning if someone can clarify it. I have very basic understanding of inner classes, as they keep the implementation details close to the public interface. Otherwise the inner class may pollute the namespace. Now, I see the below lines at public static final Scope SINGLETON = new Scope() { public <T> Provider<T> scope(final Key<T> key, final Provider<T> creator) { return new Provider<T>() { ......... } It assign an inner class instance to the static variable, but Scope is an interface defined as (at) public interface Scope Is it possible to instantiate the interface?? or is it a succinct syntax for an anonymous implementation of an interface?? If anyone can explain what the author is intended by multiple nested classes above (Scope and Provider), and why it make sense to implement this way, it would help me to understand. thanks.

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  • Developing a high-performance, scalable Comet application

    - by Rob
    Well, the title says most of it. I'm looking to develop a chat application that will hopefully become something more, and currently I'm considering my options for what I should build it on top of. I've taken a look at Tornado with Redis as my primary option - Tornado, being a Comet server, is perfect for long polling to retrieve the messages on Redis, which I have the intention of using as both a persistent data store, as well as a message queue with its nifty subpub features. However, I've also heard good things about Django, RabbitMQ, MongoDB and Orbited. JavaScript isn't a big problem for me, so Orbited's JavaScript support isn't too much of a boon. Really, I'd probably be happy to develop on the route I've chosen for myself, but if there are any gaping deficiencies in my plan, I'd like some kind person to point them out before I find I've wasted months on this.

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  • Cloning ID3DXMesh with declration that has 12 floats breaks?

    - by meds
    I have the following vertex declration: struct MESHVERTInstanced { float x, y, z; // Position float nx, ny, nz; // Normal float tu, tv; // Texcoord float idx; // index of the vertex! float tanx, tany, tanz; // The tangent const static D3DVERTEXELEMENT9 Decl[6]; static IDirect3DVertexDeclaration9* meshvertinstdecl; }; And I declare it as such: const D3DVERTEXELEMENT9 MESHVERTInstanced::Decl[] = { { 0, 0, D3DDECLTYPE_FLOAT3, D3DDECLMETHOD_DEFAULT, D3DDECLUSAGE_POSITION, 0 }, { 0, 12, D3DDECLTYPE_FLOAT3, D3DDECLMETHOD_DEFAULT, D3DDECLUSAGE_NORMAL, 0 }, { 0, 24, D3DDECLTYPE_FLOAT2, D3DDECLMETHOD_DEFAULT, D3DDECLUSAGE_TEXCOORD, 0 }, { 0, 32, D3DDECLTYPE_FLOAT1, D3DDECLMETHOD_DEFAULT, D3DDECLUSAGE_TEXCOORD, 1 }, { 0, 36, D3DDECLTYPE_FLOAT3, D3DDECLMETHOD_DEFAULT, D3DDECLUSAGE_TANGENT, 0 }, D3DDECL_END() }; What I try to do next is copy an ID3DXMesh into another one with the new vertex declaration as such: model->CloneMesh( model->GetOptions(), MESHVERTInstanced::Decl, gd3dDevice, &pTempMesh ); When I try to get the FVF size of pTempMesh (D3DXGetFVFVertexSize(pTempMesh-GetFVF())) I get '0' though the size should be 48. The whole thing is fine if I don't have the last declaration, '{ 0, 36, D3DDECLTYPE_FLOAT3, D3DDECLMETHOD_DEFAULT, D3DDECLUSAGE_TANGENT, 0 },' in it and the CloneMesh function does not return a FAIL. I've also tried using different declarations such as D3DDECLUSAGE_TEXCOORD and that has worked fine, returning a size of 48. Is there something specific about D3DDECLUSAGE_TANGENT I don't know? I'm at a complete loss as to why this isn't working...

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  • Objective C Naming Convention for an object that owns itself

    - by Ed Marty
    With the latest releases of XCode that contain static analyzers, some of my objects are throwing getting analyzer issues reported. Specifically, I have an object that owns itself and is responsible for releasing itself, but should also be returned to the caller and possibly retained there manually. If I have a method like + (Foo) newFoo the analyzer sees the word New and reports an issue in the caller saying that newFoo is expected to return an object with retain +1, and it isn't being released anywhere. If I name it + (Foo) getFoo the analyzer reports an issue in that method, saying there's a potential leak because it's not deallocated before returning. My class basically looks like this: + (Foo *) newFoo { Foo *myFoo = [[[Foo new] retain] autorelease]; [myFoo performSelectorInBackground:@selector(bar) withObject:nil]; return myFoo; } - (void) bar { //Do something that might take awhile [self release]; } The object owns itself and when its done, will release itself, but there's nowhere that it's being stored, so the static analyzer sees it as a leak somewhere. Is there some naming or coding convention to help?

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  • Detecting support for a given JavaScript event?

    - by Will
    I'm interested in using the JavaScript hashchange event to monitor changes in the URL's fragment identifier. I'm aware of Really Simple History and the jQuery plugins for this. However, I've reached the conclusion that in my particular project it's not really worth the added overhead of another JS file. What I would like to do instead is take the "progressive enhancement" route. That is, I want to test whether the hashchange event is supported by the visitor's browser, and write my code to use it if it's available, as an enhancement rather than a core feature. IE 8, Firefox 3.6, and Chrome 4.1.249 support it, and that accounts for about 20% of my site's traffic. So, uh ... is there some way to test whether a browser supports a particular event? Thanks.

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  • VS2010 and CSS: What is the best way to position a single form control

    - by George
    OK, I have a ton of controls on my page that I need to individually place. I need to set a margin here, a padding there, etc. None of these particular styles that I want to apply will be applied to more than control. What is the bets practice for determining at which level the style is placed, etc? OK, my choices are 1) External CSS file 1A) Using ClientIdMode = Auto (the default) I could assign a unique CssClass value to the ASP.NET control and, in the external CSS file, create a class selector that would only be applied to that one control. 1B) User Client ID = Predicatable In the external CSS file, I could determine what the ID will be for the controls of interest and create an ID selector (#ControlID{Style} ). However, I fear maintenance issues due to including/removing parent containers that would cause the ID to change. 1C) User Client ID = Static. I could choose static IDs for the controls such that I minimize the likelihood of a clash with auto generated IDs (perhaps by prefixing the ID with "StaticID_" and use an external stylesheet with ID selectors. 2) I could place the style right on the control. The only disadvantage here, as I see it, is that style info is brought down each time instead of being cached , which is what I'd get using an external CSS. If a style isn't resused, I personally don't see much benefit to placing it in an external file, though please explain why if you disagree. Is there moire of a reason that "It's nice to have all the CSS in one place?"

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  • Refactoring. Your way to reduce code complexity of big class with big methods

    - by Andrew Florko
    I have a legacy class that is rahter complex to maintain: class OldClass { method1(arg1, arg2) { ... 200 lines of code ... } method2(arg1) { ... 200 lines of code ... } ... method20(arg1, arg2, arg3) { ... 200 lines of code ... } } methods are huge, unstructured and repetitive (developer loved copy/paste aprroach). I want to split each method into 3-5 small functions, whith one pulic method and several helpers. What will you suggest? Several ideas come to my mind: Add several private helper methods to each method and join them in #region (straight-forward refactoring) Use Command pattern (one command class per OldClass method in a separate file). Create helper static class per method with one public method & several private helper methods. OldClass methods delegate implementation to appropriate static class (very similiar to commands). ? Thank you in advance!

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  • How do you customize a url for a form with Asp MVC?

    - by Maudite
    I am adding a search box to a Asp Mvc. This is html for the form: @using (Html.BeginForm("Query", "Search", FormMethod.Get)) { <input type="text" name="q" /> <input type="submit" value="Seach" /> } and I added this route routes.MapRoute("Search", "q={query}", new { controller = "Search", action = "Query" }); I would like the form to generate a url that looks like http://localhost:####/q=value in textbox. Is it possible to change the way MVC generates the url? This is currently what I get: http://localhost:50916/Search/Query?q=value in textbox

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  • How to check if a child-object is populated

    - by TheQ
    How can i check if a child-object of a linq-object is populated or not? Example code below. My model have two methods, one joins data, and the other does not: public static Member GetMemberWithPhoto(Guid memberId) { using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { DataLoadOptions dataLoadOptions = new DataLoadOptions(); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Member>(x => x.UserPhoto); db.LoadOptions = dataLoadOptions; var query = from x in db.Members where x.MemberId == memberId select x; return query.FirstOrDefault(); } } public static Member GetMember(Guid memberId) { using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { var query = from x in db.Members where x.MemberId == memberId select x; return query.FirstOrDefault(); } } Then my control have the following code: Member member1 = Member.GetMemberWithPhoto(memberId); Member member2 = Member.GetMember(memberId); Debug.WriteLine(member1.UserPhoto.ToString()); Debug.WriteLine(member2.UserPhoto.ToString()); The last line will generate a "Cannot access a disposed object" exception. I know that i can get rid of that exception just by not disposing the datacontext, but then the last line will generate a new query to the database, and i don't want that. What i would like is something like: Debug.WriteLine((member1.UserPhoto.IsPopulated()) ? member1.UserPhoto.ToString() : "none"); Debug.WriteLine((member2.UserPhoto.IsPopulated()) ? member2.UserPhoto.ToString() : "none"); Is it possible?

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  • Should I still use querystrings for page number, etc, when using ASP.NET 4 URL Routing?

    - by Scott
    I am switching from Intelligencia's UrlRewriter to the new web forms routing in ASP.NET 4.0. I have it working great for basic pages, however, in my e-commerce site, when browsing category pages, I previously used querystrings that were built into my pager control to control paging. An old url (with UrlRewriting) would be: http://www.mysite.com/Category/Arts-and-Crafts_17 I now have a MapPageRoute defined in global.asax as: routes.MapPageRoute("category-browse", "Category/{name}_{id}", ~/CategoryPage.aspx"); This works great. Now, somebody clicks to go to page 2. Previously I would have just tacked on ?page=2 as the querystring. Now, How do I handle this using web forms routing? I know I can do something like: http://www.mysite.com/Category/Arts-and-Crafts_17/page/2 But in addition to page, I can have filters, age ranges, gender, etc. Should I just keep defining routes that handle these variables, or should I continue using querystrings and can I define a route that allows me to use my querstrings like before?

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  • Dependencyproperty doesn't have value on load

    - by Jakob
    My problem is this, I have a UC called profile that contains another UC called FollowImageControl. In my Profile.xaml i declaretively bind a property of FollowImageControl called FollowerId to a CurrentUserId from Profile.xaml.cs. Problem is that I CurrentUserId is assigned in Profile.xaml.cs; the Profile.xaml code-behind. This means that I do not initially get the FollowerId. I have these methods in the FollowImageControl.xaml.cs: public static readonly DependencyProperty _followUserId = DependencyProperty.Register("FollowUserId", typeof(Guid), typeof(FollowImageControl), null); public Guid FollowUserId { get { return (Guid)GetValue(_followUserId); } set { SetValue(_followUserId, value); } } public FollowImageControl() { // Required to initialize variables InitializeComponent(); LoggedInUserId = WebContext.Current.User.UserId; var ctx = new NotesDomainContext(); if (ctx.IsFollowingUser(LoggedInUserId, FollowUserId).Value) SwitchToDelete.Begin(); } private void AddImg_MouseLeftButtonDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { if (LoggedInUserId != FollowUserId) { var ctx = new NotesDomainContext(); ctx.FollowUser(FollowUserId, LoggedInUserId); ctx.SubmitChanges(); } } THE WEIRD THING IS that when i insert breakpoints the FollowerUserId in FollowImageControl() is 0, but it has a value in AddImg_MouseLeftButtonDown, and there is no inbetween logic that sets the value of it. How is this??? Here's a little more code info: This is my binding from profile.xaml <internalCtrl:FollowImageControl FollowUserId="{Binding ElementName=ProfileCtrl, Path=CurrentUserId}" /> this is my constructor in profile.xaml.cs wherein the CurrentUserId is set public static readonly DependencyProperty _CurrentUserId = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentUserId", typeof(Guid), typeof(Profile), null); public Guid CurrentUserId { get { return (Guid)GetValue(_CurrentUserId); } set { SetValue(_CurrentUserId, value); } } public Profile(Guid UserId) { CurrentUserId = UserId; InitializeComponent(); Loaded += new RoutedEventHandler(Profile_Loaded); } I'm seriously dumbfound that one minute the FollowerId has no value, and the next it holds the right, without me having changed the value in the code-behind.

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  • How to encrypt a RSAKey using another RSAKey?

    - by Tom Brito
    I know its not the usual thing to do. But the specification I'm implementing is discribed this way, and I cannot run out. I was trying to encrypt the modulus and exponent of the private key, but the following test code raises an exception because the byte array is 1 byte larger then the maximum allowed by RSA block: import java.security.KeyPair; import java.security.KeyPairGenerator; import java.security.NoSuchAlgorithmException; import java.security.NoSuchProviderException; import java.security.interfaces.RSAPrivateKey; import java.security.interfaces.RSAPublicKey; import javax.crypto.Cipher; import org.apache.commons.lang.ArrayUtils; public class TEST { public static KeyPair generateKeyPair() throws NoSuchAlgorithmException, NoSuchProviderException { KeyPairGenerator keyPairGenerator = KeyPairGenerator.getInstance("RSA", "BC"); keyPairGenerator.initialize(1024); return keyPairGenerator.generateKeyPair(); } public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { KeyPair keyPair = generateKeyPair(); RSAPrivateKey privateKey = (RSAPrivateKey) keyPair.getPrivate(); System.out.println("Priv modulus len = " + privateKey.getModulus().bitLength()); System.out.println("Priv exponent len = " + privateKey.getPrivateExponent().bitLength()); System.out.println("Priv modulus toByteArray len = " + privateKey.getModulus().toByteArray().length); byte[] byteArray = privateKey.getModulus().toByteArray(); // the byte at index 0 have no value (in every generation it is always zero) byteArray = ArrayUtils.subarray(byteArray, 1, byteArray.length); System.out.println("byteArray size: " + byteArray.length); RSAPublicKey publicKey = (RSAPublicKey) keyPair.getPublic(); Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("RSA", "BC"); cipher.init(Cipher.ENCRYPT_MODE, publicKey); byte[] encryptedBytes = cipher.doFinal(byteArray); System.out.println("Success!"); } } (obs. its just a test, i would never encrypt the private key with its pair public key) The byte array is 128 bytes, the exactly maximum allowed by a RSA block, so why the exception? And how to fix it?

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  • MidiSystem.getSequencer() returns Audio Device Unavailable

    - by ksemeks
    I've keep having an exception thrown, on and on. When i try to make a new Sequencer object, i keep getting the javax.sound.midi.MidiUnavailableException: Audio Device Unavailable exception. So, here's the code: import javax.sound.midi.*; public class MiniMusicPlayer1 { public static void main(String[] args) { try { Sequencer sequencer = MidiSystem.getSequencer(); sequencer.open(); Sequence seq = new Sequence(Sequence.PPQ, 4); Track track = seq.createTrack(); for (int i = 5; i < 61; i += 4) { track.add(makeEvent(144, 1, i, 100, i)); track.add(makeEvent(128, 1, i, 100, (i+2))); } sequencer.setSequence(seq); sequencer.setTempoInBPM(220); sequencer.start(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } public static MidiEvent makeEvent(int comd, int chan, int one, int two, int tick) { MidiEvent event = null; try { ShortMessage a = new ShortMessage(); a.setMessage(comd, chan, one, two); event = new MidiEvent(a, tick); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return event; } } And here's the complete error (at compile): javax.sound.midi.MidiUnavailableException: Audio Device Unavailable at com.sun.media.sound.MixerSynth.implOpen(MixerSynth.java:165) at com.sun.media.sound.AbstractMidiDevice.doOpen(AbstractMidiDevice.java:144) at com.sun.media.sound.AbstractMidiDevice.openInternal(AbstractMidiDevice.java:134) at com.sun.media.sound.AbstractMidiDevice.getReceiverReferenceCounting(AbstractMidiDevice.java:339) at javax.sound.midi.MidiSystem.getReceiver(MidiSystem.java:243) at javax.sound.midi.MidiSystem.getSequencer(MidiSystem.java:442) at javax.sound.midi.MidiSystem.getSequencer(MidiSystem.java:348) at MiniMusicPlayer1.main(MiniMusicPlayer1.java:9) First i was unable to play MIDI files on my pc, but then i got it to work, so now i can play MIDI files, that's okay. I tried even to close every process which uses my sound card, but the error is still there. Anyone can help me?

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  • iphone development bank payment

    - by twelshesgi
    I have been hired to develop an iphone app. My customer is non-technical and wants me to take care of everything. So, I want to develop and manage the app within my existing account, but have his bank information so he gets paid automatically. But itunes connect seems to only allow a single bank account for all my apps. Is there a way to route payments for just his app? Apologize for posting this to programming forum . . .

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  • Is it a good practice for a .js file to rely on variables declared in the including html

    - by Bozho
    In short: <script type="text/javascript"> var root = '${config.root}'; var userLanguage = '${config.language}'; var userTimezone = '${config.timezone}'; </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/scripts.js"></script> And then, in scripts.js, rely on these variables: if (userLanguage == 'en') { .. } The ${..} is simply a placeholder for a value in the script that generates the page. It can be php, jsp, asp, whatever. The point is - it is dynamic, and hence it can't be part of the .js file (which is static). So, is it OK for the static javascript file to rely on these externally defined configuration variables? (they are mainly configuration, of course). Or is it preferred to make the .js file be served dynamically as well (i.e. make it a .php / .jsp, with the proper Content-Type), and have these values defined in there.

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  • Offline navigation software for Android - what is out there?

    - by Ted
    Im looking for navigation software for the Android platform and I have a few requirements: Offline maps. The maps should be stored on the device/memory card so no Internet-connection is required There should be some way to interact with the application "through code"; sending route requests, getting current location perhaps, bringing app to foreground/background, etc. An API so it can be controlled from another application. No monthly fees The only one I found so far to match the above is Sygic Navigation. However, I havent yet been able to communication with the app even though they say that it can be done. Still investigating that...

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