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  • How to have multiple instances of jQuery plugin on single page?

    - by James Skidmore
    I'm writing a simple jQuery plugin, but I'm having trouble being able to use multiple instances on a page. For instance, here is a sample plugin to illustrate my point: (function($) { $.fn.samplePlugin = function(options) { if (typeof foo != 'undefined') { alert('Already defined!'); } else { var foo = 'bar'; } }; })(jQuery); And then if I do this: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#myDiv').samplePlugin({}); // does nothing $('#myDiv2').samplePlugion({}); // alerts "Already defined!" }); This is obviously an over-simplified example to get across the point. So my question is, how do I have two separate instances of the plugin? I'd like to be able to use it across multiple instances on the same page. I'm guessing that part of the problem might be with defining the variables in a global scope. How can I define them unique to that instance of the plugin then? Thank you for your guidance!

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  • Use queried json data in a function

    - by SztupY
    I have a code similar to this: $.ajax({ success: function(data) { text = ''; for (var i = 0; i< data.length; i++) { text = text + '<a href="#" id="Data_'+ i +'">' + data[i].Name + "</a><br />"; } $("#SomeId").html(text); for (var i = 0; i< data.length; i++) { $("#Data_"+i).click(function() { alert(data[i]); RunFunction(data[i]); return false; }); } } }); This gets an array of some data in json format, then iterates through this array generating a link for each entry. Now I want to add a function for each link that will run a function that does something with this data. The problem is that the data seems to be unavailable after the ajax success function is called (although I thought that they behave like closures). What is the best way to use the queried json data later on? (I think setting it as a global variable would do the job, but I want to avoid that, mainly because this ajax request might be called multiple times) Thanks.

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  • Segmentation in Linux : Segmentation & Paging are redundant?

    - by claws
    Hello, I'm reading "Understanding Linux Kernel". This is the snippet that explains how Linux uses Segmentation which I didn't understand. Segmentation has been included in 80 x 86 microprocessors to encourage programmers to split their applications into logically related entities, such as subroutines or global and local data areas. However, Linux uses segmentation in a very limited way. In fact, segmentation and paging are somewhat redundant, because both can be used to separate the physical address spaces of processes: segmentation can assign a different linear address space to each process, while paging can map the same linear address space into different physical address spaces. Linux prefers paging to segmentation for the following reasons: Memory management is simpler when all processes use the same segment register values that is, when they share the same set of linear addresses. One of the design objectives of Linux is portability to a wide range of architectures; RISC architectures in particular have limited support for segmentation. All Linux processes running in User Mode use the same pair of segments to address instructions and data. These segments are called user code segment and user data segment , respectively. Similarly, all Linux processes running in Kernel Mode use the same pair of segments to address instructions and data: they are called kernel code segment and kernel data segment , respectively. Table 2-3 shows the values of the Segment Descriptor fields for these four crucial segments. I'm unable to understand 1st and last paragraph.

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  • PHP Object References in Frameworks

    - by bigstylee
    Before I dive into the disscusion part a quick question; Is there a method to determine if a variable is a reference to another variable/object? For example $foo = 'Hello World'; $bar = &$foo; echo (is_reference($bar) ? 'Is reference' : 'Is orginal'; I have been using PHP5 for a few years now (personal use only) and I would say I am moderately reversed on the topic of Object Orientated implementation. However the concept of Model View Controller Framework is fairly new to me. I have looked a number of tutorials and looked at some of the open source frameworks (mainly CodeIgnitor) to get a better understanding how everything fits together. I am starting to appreciate the real benefits of using this type of structure. I am used to implementing object referencing in the following technique. class Foo{ public $var = 'Hello World!'; } class Bar{ public function __construct(){ global $Foo; echo $Foo->var; } } $Foo = new Foo; $Bar = new Bar; I was surprised to see that CodeIgnitor and Yii pass referencs of objects and can be accessed via the following method: $this->load->view('argument') The immediate advantage I can see is a lot less code and more user friendly. But I do wonder if it is more efficient as these frameworks are presumably optimised? Or simply to make the code more user friendly? This was an interesting article Do not use PHP references.

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  • C/C++ Control Structure Limitations?

    - by STingRaySC
    I have heard of a limitation in VC++ (not sure which version) on the number of nested if statements (somewhere in the ballpark of 300). The code was of the form: if (a) ... else if (b) ... else if (c) ... ... I was surprised to find out there is a limit to this sort of thing, and that the limit is so small. I'm not looking for comments about coding practice and why to avoid this sort of thing altogether. Here's a list of things that I'd imagine could have some limitation: Number of functions in a scope (global, class, or namespace). Number of expressions in a single statement (e.g., compound conditionals). Number of cases in a switch. Number of parameters to a function. Number of classes in a single hierarchy (either inheritance or containment). What other control structures/language features have limits such as this? Do the language standards say anything about these limits (perhaps minimum requirements for an implementation)? Has anyone run into a particular language limitation like this with a particular compiler/implementation? EDIT: Please note that the above form of if statements is indeed "nested." It is equivalent to: if (a) { //... } else { if (b) { //... } else { if (c) { //... } else { //... } } }

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  • C++ boost mpl vector

    - by Gokul
    I understand that the following code won't work, as i is a runtime parameter and not a compile time parameter. But i want to know, whether there is a way to achieve the same. i have a list of classes and i need to call a template function, with each of these classes. void GucTable::refreshSessionParams() { typedef boost::mpl::vector< SessionXactDetails, SessionSchemaInfo > SessionParams; for( int i = 0; i < boost::mpl::size<SessionParams>::value; ++i ) boost::mpl::at<SessionParams, i>::type* sparam = g_getSessionParam< boost::mpl::at<SessionParams, i>::type >(); sparam->updateFromGucTable(this); } } Can someone suggest me a easy and elegant way to perform the same? i need to iterate through the mpl::vector and use the type to call a global function and then use that parameter to do some run-time operations. Thanks in advance, Gokul. Working code typedef boost::mpl::vector< SessionXactDetails, SessionSchemaInfo > SessionParams; class GucSessionIterator { private: GucTable& m_table; public: GucSessionIterator(GucTable& table) :m_table(table) { } template< typename U > void operator()(const U& ) { g_getSessionParam<U>()->updateFromGucTable(m_table); } }; void GucTable::refreshSessionParams() { boost::mpl::for_each< SessionParams >( GucSessionIterator(*this) ); return; }

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  • Atomic swap in GNU C++

    - by Steve
    I want to verify that my understanding is correct. This kind of thing is tricky so I'm almost sure I am missing something. I have a program consisting of a real-time thread and a non-real-time thread. I want the non-RT thread to be able to swap a pointer to memory that is used by the RT thread. From the docs, my understanding is that this can be accomplished in g++ with: // global Data *rt_data; Data *swap_data(Data *new_data) { #ifdef __GNUC__ // Atomic pointer swap. Data *old_d = __sync_lock_test_and_set(&rt_data, new_data); #else // Non-atomic, cross your fingers. Data *old_d = rt_data; rt_data = new_data; #endif return old_d; } This is the only place in the program (other than initial setup) where rt_data is modified. When rt_data is used in the real-time context, it is copied to a local pointer. For old_d, later on when it is sure that the old memory is not used, it will be freed in the non-RT thread. Is this correct? Do I need volatile anywhere? Are there other synchronization primitives I should be calling? By the way I am doing this in C++, although I'm interested in whether the answer differs for C. Thanks ahead of time.

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  • ambient values in mvc2.net routing

    - by Muhammad Adeel Zahid
    Hello Everyone, i have following two routes registered in my global.asax file routes.MapRoute( "strict", "{controller}.mvc/{docid}/{action}/{id}", new { action = "Index", id = "", docid = "" }, new { docid = @"\d+"} ); routes.MapRoute( "default", "{controller}.mvc/{action}/{id}", new { action = "Index", id = "" }, new { docConstraint = new DocumentConstraint() } ); and i have a static "dashboard" link in my tabstrip and some other links that are constructed from values in db here is the code <ul id="globalnav" class = "t-reset t-tabstrip-items"> <li class="bar" id = "dashboard"> <%=Html.ActionLink("dash.board", "Index", pck.Controller, new{docid =string.Empty,id = pck.PkgID }, new { @class = "here" })%> </li> <% foreach (var md in pck.sysModules) { %> <li class="<%=liClass%>"> <%=Html.ActionLink(md.ModuleName, md.ActionName, pck.Controller, new { docid = md.DocumentID}, new { @class = cls })%> </li> <% } %> </ul> Now my launching address is localhost/oa.mvc/index/11 clearly matching the 2nd route. but when i visit any page that has mapped to first route and then come back to dash.board link it shows me localhost/oa.mvc/7/index/11 where 7 is docid and picked from previous Url. now i understand that my action method is after docid and changing it would not clear the docid. my question here is that can i remove docid in this scenario without changing the route. regards adeel

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  • What algorithms compute directions from point A to point B on a map?

    - by A. Rex
    How do map providers (such as Google or Yahoo! Maps) suggest directions? I mean, they probably have real-world data in some form, certainly including distances but also perhaps things like driving speeds, presence of sidewalks, train schedules, etc. But suppose the data were in a simpler format, say a very large directed graph with edge weights reflecting distances. I want to be able to quickly compute directions from one arbitrary point to another. Sometimes these points will be close together (within one city) while sometimes they will be far apart (cross-country). Graph algorithms like Dijkstra's algorithm will not work because the graph is enormous. Luckily, heuristic algorithms like A* will probably work. However, our data is very structured, and perhaps some kind of tiered approach might work? (For example, store precomputed directions between certain "key" points far apart, as well as some local directions. Then directions for two far-away points will involve local directions to a key points, global directions to another key point, and then local directions again.) What algorithms are actually used in practice? PS. This question was motivated by finding quirks in online mapping directions. Contrary to the triangle inequality, sometimes Google Maps thinks that X-Z takes longer and is farther than using an intermediate point as in X-Y-Z. But maybe their walking directions optimize for another parameter, too? PPS. Here's another violation of the triangle inequality that suggests (to me) that they use some kind of tiered approach: X-Z versus X-Y-Z. The former seems to use prominent Boulevard de Sebastopol even though it's slightly out of the way. (Edit: this example doesn't work anymore, but did at the time of the original post. The one above still works as of early November 2009.)

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  • How to do timer with Nios II assembly?

    - by Nick Rosencrantz
    I've got an assignment in a computer engineering course that I don't fully understand since it is so large. Anyway I started coding the parts of it and it seems we should make code for some sort of timer. I've started put together the subroutine for snaptime but I'm not sure what I want: .equ timer, 0x920 .global snaptime .text .align 2 snaptime: movia r8,timer # basadressen till timern stw r0,12(r8) # sparar 0 till snapl movi r9,0b0110 # spara 6 i r9 stw r9,16(r8) # spara r9 movi ... ? andi r10,r10,0xFFFF The manual for Nios II assembly is here and the C code for what I'm trying to do is: #define TIMER_1_BASE ((volatile unsigned int*) 0x920) int snaptime (void) { int snaphight; int snaplow; int snap; TIMER_1_BASE[4]=0; snaphigh = TIMER_1_BASE[5] & 0xffffff; snaplow = TIMER_1_BASE[4] & 0xffffff; snap = snaphigh*65536+snaplow; return (snap); } Perhaps you can inspect the C which should be properly defined and see how I make it with assembly since the spec says it should be assembly.

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  • WCF service reference namespace differs from original

    - by Thorarin
    I'm having a problem regarding namespaces used by my service references. I have a number of WCF services, say with the namespace MyCompany.Services.MyProduct (the actual namespaces are longer). As part of the product, I'm also providing a sample C# .NET website. This web application uses the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct. During initial development, the service was added as a project reference to the website and uses directly. I used a factory pattern that returns an object instance that implements MyCompany.Services.MyProduct.IMyService. So far, so good. Now I want to change this to use an actual service reference. After adding the reference and typing MyCompany.Services.MyProduct in the namespace textbox, it generates classes in the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct.MyCompany.Services.MyProduct. BAD! I don't want to have to change using directives in several places just because I'm using a proxy class. So I tried prepending the namespace with global::, but that is not accepted. Note that I hadn't even deleted the original assembly references yet, and "reuse types" is enabled, but no reusing was done, apparently. However, I don't want to keep the assembly references around in my sample website for it to work anyway. The only solution I've come up with so far is setting the default namespace for my web application to MyCompany (because it cannot be empty), and adding the service reference as Services.MyProduct. Suppose that a customer wants to use my sample website as a starting point, and they change the default namespace to OtherCompany.Whatever, this will obviously break my workaround. Is there a good solution to this problem? To summarize: I want to generate a service reference proxy in the original namespace, without referencing the assembly. Note: I have seen this question, but there was no solution provided that is acceptable for my use case. Edit: As John Saunders suggested, I've submitted some feedback to Microsoft about this: Feedback item @ Microsoft Connect

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  • Set HttpContext.Current.User from Thread.CurrentPrincipal

    - by Argons
    I have a security manager in my application that works for both windows and web, the process is simple, just takes the user and pwd and authenticates them against a database then sets the Thread.CurrentPrincipal with a custom principal. For windows applications this works fine, but I have problems with web applications. After the process of authentication, when I'm trying to set the Current.User to the custom principal from Thread.CurrentPrincipal this last one contains a GenericPrincipal. Am I doing something wrong? This is my code: Login.aspx protected void btnAuthenticate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Authenticate("user","pwd"); FormsAuthenticationTicket authenticationTicket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(1, "user", DateTime.Now, DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(30), false, ""); string ticket = FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(authenticationTicket); HttpCookie authenticationCookie = new HttpCookie(FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, ticket); Response.Cookies.Add(authenticationCookie); Response.Redirect(FormsAuthentication.GetRedirectUrl("user", false)); } Global.asax (This is where the problem appears) protected void Application_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { HttpCookie authCookie = Context.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName]; if (authCookie == null) return; if (HttpContext.Current.User != null && HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated && HttpContext.Current.User.Identity is FormsIdentity) { HttpContext.Current.User = System.Threading.Thread.CurrentPrincipal; //Here the value is GenericPrincipal } Thanks in advance for any help. }

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  • zend session exception on zend_session::start with forms

    - by Grant Collins
    Hi I'm having issues with trying to use Zend_Form_SubForm and sessions. My controller is in essance acting a wizard showing different subforms depending on the stage of the wizard. Using the example I am planning on storing the forms in a session namespace. My controller looks like this. include 'mylib/Form/addTaskWizardForm.php'; class AddtaskController extends Zend_Controller_Action{ private $config = null; private $log = null; private $subFormSession = null; /** * This function is called and initialises the global variables to this object * which is the configuration details and the logger to write to the log file. */ public function init(){ $this->config = Zend_Registry::getInstance()->get('config'); $this->log = Zend_Registry::getInstance()->get('log'); //set layout $this->_helper->layout->setLayout('no-sidemenus'); //we need to get the subforms and $wizardForms = new addTaskWizardForm(); $this->subFormSession = new Zend_Session_Namespace('addTaskWizardForms'); if(!isset($this->subFormSession->subforms)){ $this->subFormSession->subforms = $wizardForms; } } /** * The Landing page controller for the site. */ public function indexAction(){ $form = $this->subFormSession->subforms->getSubForm('start'); $this->view->form = $form; } However this is causing the application session to crash out with Uncaught exception 'Zend_Session_Exception' with message 'Zend_Session::start() Any idea why this is having issues with the Zend Session?? thanks.

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  • Multiple ajax request and progress bar

    - by hunt
    Hi, In a following piece of code i am create a progress bar and showing its progress as the ajax request get processed. i am faking the progress shown here just by adding 5 in to cnt counter variable after that i made a check when counter reach to 90. at this point if the request is not executed successfully then i will pause/disable the progress bar and whenever response come i will complete the whole progress bar with 100. now the problem is i want to add multiple progress bar as i am firing multiple ajax request. so following is the code to implement only for one request and one progress bar but i want it for more than one. as global variables are used over here for checking response and timer id so i don't know how well i can handle it for multiple request var cnt=0; var res=null; function getProgress(data){ res=data; } var i =0; $('#start').click(function(){ i = setInterval(function() { if(res!=null) { clearInterval(i); $("#pb1").progressbar( "option", "value", cnt=cnt+100 ); } var value = $("#pb1").progressbar("option", "value"); if(value >=90 && res==null){ $("#pb1").progressbar("option", "disable"); } else{ $("#pb1").progressbar( "option", "value", cnt=cnt+5 ); } },2500); $.ajax({ url: 'http://localhost/beta/demo.php', success: getProgress }); }); $("#pb1").progressbar({ value: 0 , change: function(event, ui) { if(res!=null) clearInterval(i); } });

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  • I made a horrible loop.... help fix my logic please

    - by Webnet
    I know I'm doing this a bad way... but I'm having trouble seeing any alternatives. I have an array of products that I need to select 4 of randomly. $rawUpsellList is an array of all of the possible upsells based off of the items in their cart. Each value is a product object. I know this is horribly ugly code but I don't see an alternative now.... someone please put me out of my misery so this code doesn't make it to production..... $rawUpsellList = array(); foreach ($tru->global->cart->getItemList() as $item) { $product = $item->getProduct(); $rawUpsellList = array_merge($rawUpsellList, $product->getUpsellList()); } $upsellCount = count($rawUpsellList); $showItems = 4; if ($upsellCount < $showItems) { $showItems = $upsellCount; } $maxLoop = 20; $upsellList = array(); for ($x = 0; $x <= $showItems; $x++) { $key = rand(0, $upsellCount); if (!array_key_exists($key, $upsellList) && is_object($rawUpsellList[$key])) { $upsellList[$key] = $rawUpsellList[$key]; $x++; } if ($x == $maxLoop) { break; } } Posting this code was highly embarassing...

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  • The uncatchable exception, pt 2

    - by chaiguy
    Ok I've done some testing and I've reduced the problem to something very simple: i. Create a method in a new class that throws an exception: public class Class1 { public void CallMe() { string blah = null; blah.ToLower(); } } ii. Create a MethodInfo that points to this method somewhere else: Type class1 = typeof( Class1 ); Class1 obj = new Class1(); MethodInfo method = class1.GetMethod( "CallMe" ); iii. Wrap a call to Invoke() in a try/catch block: try { method.Invoke( obj, null ); // exception is not being caught! } catch { } iv. Run the program without the debugger (works fine). v. Now run the program with the debugger. The debugger will halt the program when the exception occurs, even though it's wrapped in a catch handler that tries to ignore it. (Even if you put a breakpoint in the catch block it will halt before it reaches it!) In fact, the exception is happening when you run it without the debugger too. In a simple test project it's getting ignored at some other level, but if your app has any kind of global exception handling, it will get triggered there as well. This is causing me a real headache because it keeps triggering my app's crash-handler, not to mention the pain it is to attempt to debug.

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  • postgresql help with php loop....

    - by KnockKnockWhosThere
    I keep getting an "Notice: Undefined index: did" error with this query, and I'm not understanding why... I'm much more used to mysql, so, maybe the syntax is wrong? This is the php query code: function get_demos() { global $session; $demo = array(); $result = pg_query("SELECT DISTINCT(did,vid,iid,value) FROM dv"); if(pg_num_rows($result) > 0) { while($r = pg_fetch_array($result)) { switch($r['did']) { case 1: $demo['a'][$r['vid']] = $r['value']; break; case 2: $demo['b'][$r['vid']] = $r['value']; break; case 3: $demo['c'][$r['vid']] = $r['value']; break; } } } else { $session->session_setMessage(2); } return $demo; } When I run that query at the pg prompt, I get results: "(1,1,1,"A")" "(1,2,2,"B")" "(1,3,3,"C")" "(1,4,4,"D")" "(1,5,5,"E")" "(1,6,6,"F")" "(1,7,7,"G")" "(1,8,8,"H")" "(1,9,9,"I")" "(1,10,A,"J")" "(1,11,B,"K")" "(1,12,C,"L")" "(1,13,D,"M")" "(2,14,1,"A")" "(2,15,2,"B")" "(2,16,0,"C")" "(3,17,1,"A")" "(3,18,2,"B")" "(3,19,3,"C")" "(3,20,4,"D")" "(3,21,5,"E")" "(3,22,6,"F")" "(3,23,7,"G")"

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  • Static Property losing its value intermittently ?

    - by joedotnot
    Is there something fundamentally wrong with the following design, or can anyone see why would the static properties sometimes loose their values ? I have a class library project containing a class AppConfig; this class is consumed by a Webforms project. The skeleton of AppConfig class is as follows: Public Class AppConfig Implements IConfigurationSectionHandler Private Const C_KEY1 As String = "WebConfig.Key.1" Private Const C_KEY2 As String = "WebConfig.Key.2" Private Const C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE as string = "Key1defaultVal" Private Const C_KEY2_DEFAULT_VALUE as string = "Key2defaultVal" Private Shared m_field1 As String Private Shared m_field2 As String Public Shared ReadOnly Property ConfigValue1() As String Get ConfigValue1= m_field1 End Get End Property Public Shared ReadOnly Property ConfigValue2() As String Get ConfigValue2 = m_field2 End Get End Property Public Shared Sub OnApplicationStart() m_field1 = ReadSetting(C_KEY1, C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE) m_field2 = ReadSetting(C_KEY2, C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE) End Sub Public Overloads Shared Function ReadSetting(ByVal key As String, ByVal defaultValue As String) As String Try Dim setting As String = System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.AppSettings(key) If setting Is Nothing Then ReadSetting = defaultValue Else ReadSetting = setting End If Catch ReadSetting = defaultValue End Try End Function Public Function Create(ByVal parent As Object, ByVal configContext As Object, ByVal section As System.Xml.XmlNode) As Object Implements System.Configuration.IConfigurationSectionHandler.Create Dim objSettings As NameValueCollection Dim objHandler As NameValueSectionHandler objHandler = New NameValueSectionHandler objSettings = CType(objHandler.Create(parent, configContext, section), NameValueCollection) Return 1 End Function End Class The Static Properties get set once on application start, from the Application_Start event of the Global.asax Sub Application_Start(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) //Fires when the application is started AppConfig.OnApplicationStart() End Sub Thereafter, whenever we want to access a value in the Web.Config from anywhere, e.g. aspx page code-behind or another class or referenced class, we simply call the static property. For example, AppConfig.ConfigValue1() AppConfig.ConfigValue2() This is turn returns the value stored in the static backing fields m_field1, m_field2 Problem is sometimes these values are empty string, when clearly the Web.Config entry has values. Is there something fundamentally wrong with the above design, or is it reasonable to expect the static properties would keep their value for the life of the Application session?

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  • Ninject giving NullReferenceException

    - by Iceman
    I'm using asp.net MVC 2 and Ninject 2. The setup is very simple. Controller calls service that calls repository. In my controller I use inject to instantiate the service classes with no problem. But the service classes don't instantiate the repositories, giving me NullReferenceException. public class BaseController : Controller { [Inject] public IRoundService roundService { get; set; } } This works. But then this does not... public class BaseService { [Inject] public IRoundRepository roundRepository { get; set; } } Giving a NullReferenceException, when I try to use the roundRepository in my RoundService class. IList<Round> rounds = roundRepository.GetRounds( ); Module classes... public class ServiceModule : NinjectModule { public override void Load( ) { Bind( ).To( ).InRequestScope( ); } } public class RepositoryModule : NinjectModule { public override void Load( ) { Bind<IRoundRepository>( ).To<RoundRepository>( ).InRequestScope( ); } } In global.axax.cs protected override IKernel CreateKernel( ) { return new StandardKernel( new ServiceModule( ), new RepositoryModule( ) ); }

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  • How to call a function from another class file

    - by Guy Parker
    I am very familiar with writing VB based applications but am new to Xcode (and Objective C). I have gone through numerous tutorials on the web and understand the basics and how to interact with Interface Builder etc. However, I am really struggling with some basic concepts of the C language and would be grateful for any help you can offer. Heres my problem… I have a simple iphone app which has a view controller (FirstViewController) and a subview (SecondViewController) with associated header and class files. In the FirstViewController.m have a function defined @implementation FirstViewController (void) writeToServer:(const uint8_t ) buf { [oStream write:buf maxLength:strlen((char)buf)]; } It doesn't really matter what the function is. I want to use this function in my SecondViewController, so in SecondViewController.m I import FirstViewController.h import "SecondViewController.h" import "FirstViewController.h" @implementation SecondViewController -(IBAction) SetButton: (id) sender { NSString *s = [@"Fill:" stringByAppendingString: FillLevelValue.text]; NSString *strToSend = [s stringByAppendingString: @":"]; const uint8_t *str = (uint8_t *) [strToSend cStringUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; FillLevelValue.text = strToSend; [FirstViewController writeToServer:str]; } This last line is where my problem is. XCode tells me that FirstViewController may not respond to writeToServer. And when I try to run the application it crashes when this function is called. I guess I don't fully understand how to share functions and more importantly, the relationship between classes. In an ideal world I would create a global class to place my functions in and call them as required. Any advice gratefully received.

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  • IE8 claims my page has an error, firefox doesn't, and I can't find any error. Help!

    - by Bears will eat you
    This is something of a follow-up question to my question here. You can find the HTML source in a text file here. When I load that page in IE8, I get the "Done, but with errors on page." message in my status bar. The detail view shows Expected identifier sms Line: 147 Code: 0 Char: 67 and I see absolutely no problems anywhere near there. In IE8, the page is still behaving erratically w/r/t the randomly losing focus as mentioned in my other question. When I load the same exact page in Firefox (using Firebug) the console shows no errors and the page works perfectly. Any thoughts on what's going on here? This is driving me nuts and making me want to give up on even trying to write an IE friendly page. Edit: Thanks for all the comments! This page is written as a JSP, so I edit in Eclipse. I found an Eclipse warning about the onblur event for the username field. I switched it from onblur="alert(document.activeElement + ' class:' + document.activeElement.class)" to onblur="alert(document.activeElement)" and that made the bizarre IE page error vanish. I had been trying to give more info (namely, its CSS class) about specifically which element is stealing focus - to my own detriment, apparently, since Javascript was interpreting the '.class' part in the Java(script) sense. And, no, the page doesn't validate. But the errors were mostly/all ones that just didn't make sense, such as Line 14, Column 41: Attribute "LANGUAGE" is not a valid attribute. Did you mean "language"? to which I say, WTF?! But I'm still stuck trying to figure out why, as I enter text in the username & password fields, focus randomly switches to a div (working on figuring out which div currently). Edit 2: It's the div between the two "global nav" comments, at the very top of the body. Still no idea why it's happening, though.

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  • problem with image gallery using fancybox jquery

    - by Alexander
    I am trying to use fancybox for one of my image galery and my code is the following.. this is the code for my Gallery.aspx where it inherits from a master page... For some reason it doesn't work.. can you guys tell me what the problem is? <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Global.Master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Gallery.aspx.cs" Inherits="Permias.Gallery" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" runat="server"> <script src="jquery.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="./fancybox/jquery.fancybox-1.3.1.pack.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="./fancybox/jquery.easing-1.3.pack.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="./fancybox/jquery.mousewheel-3.0.2.pack.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="./fancybox/jquery.fancybox-1.3.1.css" type="text/css" media="screen" /> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="splash" runat="server"> <div id="splash">&nbsp;</div> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> <a class="grouped_elements" rel="group1" href="http://farm5.static.flickr.com/4058/4252054277_f0fa91e026.jpg"><img src="http://farm5.static.flickr.com/4058/4252054277_f0fa91e026.jpg" alt=""/></a> </asp:Content>

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  • How to return a value from facebook javascript connect api fucntions

    - by dezwald
    I am trying to create wrapper functions on facebook javascript connect api methods. My problem is that i can not return a value within the facebook api FB_RequireFeatures method. i want my isFBConnected() function to return true or false based on if i'm logged into facebook or not. What is happening is that when i return true it returns it to the child function, which makes sense however, my global "login" variable does not get set to true. I've tried setting a timeout to wait until the facebook connect finishes executing and still no luck. any help or other solutions are welcome! my isFBConnected wrapper function is stated below: function isFBConnected(){ var api_key = '<?=$this->apiKey?>'; var channel_path = '<?=$this->xdReceiver?>'; var host_url = '<?=$this->hostUrl?>'; var servicePathShort = '<?=$this->servicePathShort?>'; var login = false; FB_RequireFeatures(["Api"], function(){ // Create an ApiClient object, passing app's API key and // a site relative URL to xd_receiver.htm FB.Facebook.init(api_key, channel_path); var api = FB.Facebook.apiClient; // If FB user session exists - load stats data if(api.get_session()!=null){ if(api.get_session().uid!='' && api.get_session().uid!=undefined){ login = true; alert(api.get_session().uid); return true; } } login = false; return false; }); return false; }

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  • Stop an executing recursive javascript function

    - by DA
    Using jQuery, I've build an image/slide rotator. The basic setup is (in pseudocode): function setupUpSlide(SlideToStartWith){ var thisSlide = SlideToStartWith; ...set things up... fadeInSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeInSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade in this slide... fadeOutSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeOutSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade out this slide... setupUpSlide(nextSlide) } I call the first function and pass in a particular slide index, and then it does its thing calling chain of functions which then, in turn, calls the first function again passing in the next index. This then repeats infinitely (resetting the index when it gets to the last item). This works just fine. What I want to do now is allow someone to over-ride the slide show by being able to click on a particular slide number. Therefore, if slide #8 is showing and I click #3, I want the recursion to stop and then call the initial function passing in slide #3, which then, in turn, will start the process again. But I'm not sure how to go about that. How does one properly 'break' a recursive script. Should I create some sort of global 'watch' variable that if at any time is 'true' will return: false and allow the new function to execute?

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  • Fastest Java way to remove the first/top line of a file (like a stack)

    - by christangrant
    I am trying to improve an external sort implementation in java. I have a bunch of BufferedReader objects open for temporary files. I repeatedly remove the top line from each of these files. This pushes the limits of the Java's Heap. I would like a more scalable method of doing this without loosing speed because of a bunch of constructor calls. One solution is to only open files when they are needed, then read the first line and then delete it. But I am afraid that this will be significantly slower. So using Java libraries what is the most efficient method of doing this. --Edit-- For external sort, the usual method is to break a large file up into several chunk files. Sort each of the chunks. And then treat the sorted files like buffers, pop the top item from each file, the smallest of all those is the global minimum. Then continue until for all items. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/External_sorting My temporary files (buffers) are basically BufferedReader objects. The operations performed on these files are the same as stack/queue operations (peek and pop, no push needed). I am trying to make these peek and pop operations more efficient. This is because using many BufferedReader objects takes up too much space.

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