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  • count number of business that belongs to subcategory in doctrine

    - by Ibrahim Azhar Armar
    this is follow up of this question. count number of foreign keys i am using doctrine 1.2 and i want to count the number of business that belongs to subcategory. following are the mysql tables. 1.fi_category +----+-----------------+-----------------+ | id | name | slug | +----+-----------------+-----------------+ 2.fi_subcategory +----+-----------------+-----------------+-------------+ | id | name | slug | category_id | +----+-----------------+-----------------+-------------+ 3.fi_business_subcategory +----+-------------+----------------+ | id | business_id | subcategory_id | +----+-------------+----------------+ i am using this DQL. $q = Doctrine_Query::create() ->select('c.name, c.slug, sc.name, sc.slug') ->from('Model_Category c') ->leftJoin('c.Subcategory sc') ->leftJoin('sc.BusinessSubcategory bsc'); which gives me something like this. Array ( [0] => Array ( [id] => 1 [name] => Entertainment & Lifestyle [slug] => entertainment-lifestyle [Subcategory] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [id] => 1 [name] => Arts and Crafts [slug] => arts-and-crafts ) [1] => Array ( [id] => 2 [name] => Family [slug] => family ) [2] => Array ( [id] => 3 [name] => Fashion [slug] => fashion ) ) ) ) i am looking to fetch the number of business, i.e the returned result should be something like this depending on the business it belongs. Array ( [0] => Array ( [id] => 1 [name] => Entertainment & Lifestyle [slug] => entertainment-lifestyle [Subcategory] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [id] => 1 [name] => Arts and Crafts [slug] => arts-and-crafts [business_count] => 35 ) [1] => Array ( [id] => 2 [name] => Family [slug] => family [business_count] => 10 ) [2] => Array ( [id] => 3 [name] => Fashion [slug] => fashion [business_count] => 27 ) ) ) ) tried various ways using DQL, but nothing seems to work out. any idea how should i go with what i want?

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  • What database table structure should I use for versions, codebases, deployables?

    - by Zac Thompson
    I'm having doubts about my table structure, and I wonder if there is a better approach. I've got a little database for version control repositories (e.g. SVN), the packages (e.g. Linux RPMs) built therefrom, and the versions (e.g. 1.2.3-4) thereof. A given repository might produce no packages, or several, but if there are more than one for a given repository then a particular version for that repository will indicate a single "tag" of the codebase. A particular version "string" might be used to tag a version of the source code in more than one repository, but there may be no relationship between "1.0" for two different repos. So if packages P and Q both come from repo R, then P 1.0 and Q 1.0 are both built from the 1.0 tag of repo R. But if package X comes from repo Y, then X 1.0 has no relationship to P 1.0. In my (simplified) model, I have the following tables (the x_id columns are auto-incrementing surrogate keys; you can pretend I'm using a different primary key if you wish, it's not really important): repository - repository_id - repository_name (unique) ... version - version_id - version_string (unique for a particular repository) - repository_id ... package - package_id - package_name (unique) - repository_id ... This makes it easy for me to see, for example, what are valid versions of a given package: I can join with the version table using the repository_id. However, suppose I would like to add some information to this database, e.g., to indicate which package versions have been approved for release. I certainly need a new table: package_version - version_id - package_id - package_version_released ... Again, the nature of the keys that I use are not really important to my problem, and you can imagine that the data column is "promotion_level" or something if that helps. My doubts arise when I realize that there's really a very close relationship between the version_id and the package_id in my new table ... they must share the same repository_id. Only a small subset of package/version combinations are valid. So I should have some kind of constraint on those columns, enforcing that ... ... I don't know, it just feels off, somehow. Like I'm including somehow more information than I really need? I don't know how to explain my hesitance here. I can't figure out which (if any) normal form I'm violating, but I also can't find an example of a schema with this sort of structure ... not being a DBA by profession I'm not sure where to look. So I'm asking: am I just being overly sensitive?

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  • using a Singleton to pass credentials in a multi-tenant application a code smell?

    - by Hans Gruber
    Currently working on a multi-tenant application that employs Shared DB/Shared Schema approach. IOW, we enforce tenant data segregation by defining a TenantID column on all tables. By convention, all SQL reads/writes must include a Where TenantID = '?' clause. Not an ideal solution, but hindsight is 20/20. Anyway, since virtually every page/workflow in our app must display tenant specific data, I made the (poor) decision at the project's outset to employ a Singleton to encapsulate the current user credentials (i.e. TenantID and UserID). My thinking at the time was that I didn't want to add a TenantID parameter to each and every method signature in my Data layer. Here's what the basic pseudo-code looks like: public class UserIdentity { public UserIdentity(int tenantID, int userID) { TenantID = tenantID; UserID = userID; } public int TenantID { get; private set; } public int UserID { get; private set; } } public class AuthenticationModule : IHttpModule { public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.AuthenticateRequest += new EventHandler(context_AuthenticateRequest); } private void context_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { var userIdentity = _authenticationService.AuthenticateUser(sender); if (userIdentity == null) { //authentication failed, so redirect to login page, etc } else { //put the userIdentity into the HttpContext object so that //its only valid for the lifetime of a single request HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"] = userIdentity; } } } public static class CurrentUser { public static UserIdentity Instance { get { return HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"]; } } } public class WidgetRepository: IWidgetRepository{ public IEnumerable<Widget> ListWidgets(){ var tenantId = CurrentUser.Instance.TenantID; //call sproc with tenantId parameter } } As you can see, there are several code smells here. This is a singleton, so it's already not unit test friendly. On top of that you have a very tight-coupling between CurrentUser and the HttpContext object. By extension, this also means that I have a reference to System.Web in my Data layer (shudder). I want to pay down some technical debt this sprint by getting rid of this singleton for the reasons mentioned above. I have a few thoughts on what an better implementation might be, but if anyone has any guidance or lessons learned they could share, I would be much obliged.

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  • Why does WebSharingAppDemo-CEProviderEndToEnd sample still need a client db connection after scope c

    - by Don
    I'm researching a way to build an n-tierd sync solution. From the WebSharingAppDemo-CEProviderEndToEnd sample it seems almost feasable however for some reason, the app will only sync if the client has a live SQL db connection. Can some one explain what I'm missing and how to sync without exposing SQL to the internet? The problem I'm experiencing is that when I provide a Relational sync provider that has an open SQL connection from the client, then it works fine but when I provide a Relational sync provider that has a closed but configured connection string, as in the example, I get an error from the WCF stating that the server did not receive the batch file. So what am I doing wrong? SqlConnectionStringBuilder builder = new SqlConnectionStringBuilder(); builder.DataSource = hostName; builder.IntegratedSecurity = true; builder.InitialCatalog = "mydbname"; builder.ConnectTimeout = 1; provider.Connection = new SqlConnection(builder.ToString()); // provider.Connection.Open(); **** un-commenting this causes the code to work** //create anew scope description and add the appropriate tables to this scope DbSyncScopeDescription scopeDesc = new DbSyncScopeDescription(SyncUtils.ScopeName); //class to be used to provision the scope defined above SqlSyncScopeProvisioning serverConfig = new SqlSyncScopeProvisioning(); .... The error I get occurs in this part of the WCF code: public SyncSessionStatistics ApplyChanges(ConflictResolutionPolicy resolutionPolicy, ChangeBatch sourceChanges, object changeData) { Log("ProcessChangeBatch: {0}", this.peerProvider.Connection.ConnectionString); DbSyncContext dataRetriever = changeData as DbSyncContext; if (dataRetriever != null && dataRetriever.IsDataBatched) { string remotePeerId = dataRetriever.MadeWithKnowledge.ReplicaId.ToString(); //Data is batched. The client should have uploaded this file to us prior to calling ApplyChanges. //So look for it. //The Id would be the DbSyncContext.BatchFileName which is just the batch file name without the complete path string localBatchFileName = null; if (!this.batchIdToFileMapper.TryGetValue(dataRetriever.BatchFileName, out localBatchFileName)) { //Service has not received this file. Throw exception throw new FaultException<WebSyncFaultException>(new WebSyncFaultException("No batch file uploaded for id " + dataRetriever.BatchFileName, null)); } dataRetriever.BatchFileName = localBatchFileName; } Any ideas?

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  • Is a Multi-DAL Approach the way to go here?

    - by Krisc
    Working on the data access / model layer in this little MVC2 project and trying to think things out to future projects. I have a database with some basic tables and I have classes in the model layer that represent them. I obviously need something to connect the two. The easiest is to provide some sort of 'provider' that can run operations on the database and return objects. But this is for a website that would potentially be used "a lot" (I know, very general) so I want to cache results from the data layer and keep the cache updated as new data is generated. This question deals with how best to approach this problem of dual DALS. One that returns cached data when possible and goes to the data layer when there is a cache miss. But more importantly, how to integrate the core provider (thing that goes into database) with the caching layer so that it too can rely on cached objects rather than creating new ones. Right now I have the following interfaces: IDataProvider is used to reach the database. It doesn't concern itself with the meaning of the objects it produces, but simply the way to produce them. interface IDataProvider{ // Select, Update, Create, et cetera access IEnumerable<Entry> GetEntries(); Entry GetEntryById(int id); } IDataManager is a layer that sits on top of the IDataProvider layer and manages the cache interface IDataManager : IDataProvider{ void ClearCache(); } Note that in practice the IDataManager implementation will have useful helper functions to add objects to their related cache stores. (In the future I may define other functions on the interface) I guess what I am looking for is the best way to approach a loop back from the IDataProvider implementations so that they can access the cache. Or a different approach entirely may be in order? I am not very interested in 3rd party products at the moment as I am interested in the design of these things much more than this specific implementation. Edit: I realize the title may be a bit misleading. I apologize for that... not sure what to call this question.

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  • Thoughts on streamlining multiple .Net apps

    - by John Virgolino
    We have a series of ASP.Net applications that have been written over the course of 8 years. Mostly in the first 3-4 years. They have been running quite well with little maintenance, but new functionality is being requested and we are running into IDE and platform issues. The apps were written in .Net 1.x and 2.x and run in separate spaces but are presented as a single suite of applications which use a common navigation toolbar (implemented as a user control). Every time we want to add something to a menu in the nav we have to modify it in all the apps which is a pain. Also, the various versions of Crystal reports and that we used tables to organize the visual elements and we end up with a mess, especially with all the multi-platform .Net versions running. We need to streamline the suite of apps and make it easier to add on new apps without a hassle. We also need to bring all these apps under one .Net platform and IDE. In addition, there is a WordPress blog styled to match the style of the application suite "integrated" into the UI and a link to a MediaWiki Wiki application as well. My current thinking is to use an open source content management system (CMS) like Joomla (PHP based unfortunately, but it works well) as the user interface framework for style templating and menu management. Joomla's article management would allow us to migrate the Wiki content into articles which could be published without interfering with the .Net apps. Then essentially use an IFrame within an "article" to "host" the .Net application, then... Upgrade the .Net apps to VS2010, strip out all the common header/footer controls and migrate the styles to use the style sheets used in the CMS. As I write this, I certainly realize this is a lot of work and there are optimization issues which this may cause as well as using IFrames seems a bit like cheating and I've read about issues with IFrames. I know that we could use .Net application styling, but it seems like a lot more work (not sure really). Also, the use of a CMS to handle the blog and wiki also seems appealing, unless there is a .Net CMS out there that can handle all of these requirements. Given this information, I am looking to know if I am totally going in the wrong direction? We tried to use open source and integrate it over time, but not this has become hard to maintain. Am I not aware of some technology out there that will meet our requirements? Did we do this right and should we just focus on getting the .Net streamlined? I understand that no matter what we do, it's going to be a lot of work. The communities considerable experience would be helpful. Thanks!! PS - A complete rewrite is not an option.

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  • T-SQL generated from LINQ to SQL is missing a where clause

    - by Jimmy W
    I have extended some functionality to a DataContext object (called "CodeLookupAccessDataContext") such that the object exposes some methods to return results of LINQ to SQL queries. Here are the methods I have defined: public List<CompositeSIDMap> lookupCompositeSIDMap(int regionId, int marketId) { var sidGroupId = CompositeSIDGroupMaps.Where(x => x.RegionID.Equals(regionId) && x.MarketID.Equals(marketId)) .Select(x => x.CompositeSIDGroup); IEnumerator<int> sidGroupIdEnum = sidGroupId.GetEnumerator(); if (sidGroupIdEnum.MoveNext()) return lookupCodeInfo<CompositeSIDMap, CompositeSIDMap>(x => x.CompositeSIDGroup.Equals(sidGroupIdEnum.Current), x => x); else return null; } private List<TResult> lookupCodeInfo<T, TResult>(Func<T, bool> compLambda, Func<T, TResult> selectLambda) where T : class { System.Data.Linq.Table<T> dataTable = this.GetTable<T>(); var codeQueryResult = dataTable.Where(compLambda) .Select(selectLambda); List<TResult> codeList = new List<TResult>(); foreach (TResult row in codeQueryResult) codeList.Add(row); return codeList; } CompositeSIDGroupMap and CompositeSIDMap are both tables in our database that are represented as objects in my DataContext object. I wrote the following code to call these methods and display the T-SQL generated after calling these methods: using (CodeLookupAccessDataContext codeLookup = new CodeLookupAccessDataContext()) { codeLookup.Log = Console.Out; List<CompositeSIDMap> compList = codeLookup.lookupCompositeSIDMap(5, 3); } I got the following results in my log after invoking this code: SELECT [t0].[CompositeSIDGroup] FROM [dbo].[CompositeSIDGroupMap] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[RegionID] = @p0) AND ([t0].[MarketID] = @p1) -- @p0: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [5] -- @p1: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [3] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.1 SELECT [t0].[PK_CSM], [t0].[CompositeSIDGroup], [t0].[InputSID], [t0].[TargetSID], [t0].[StartOffset], [t0].[EndOffset], [t0].[Scale] FROM [dbo].[CompositeSIDMap] AS [t0] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.1 The first T-SQL statement contains a where clause as specified and returns one column as expected. However, the second statement is missing a where clause and returns all columns, even though I did specify which rows I wanted to view and which columns were of interest. Why is the second T-SQL statement generated the way it is, and what should I do to ensure that I filter out the data according to specifications via the T-SQL? Also note that I would prefer to keep lookupCodeInfo() and especially am interested in keeping it enabled to accept lambda functions for specifying which rows/columns to return.

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  • What classes should I map against with NHibernate?

    - by apollodude217
    Currently, we use NHibernate to map business objects to database tables. Said business objects enforce business rules: The set accessors will throw an exception on the spot if the contract for that property is violated. Also, the properties enforce relationships with other objects (sometimes bidirectional!). Well, whenever NHibernate loads an object from the database (e.g. when ISession.Get(id) is called), the set accessors of the mapped properties are used to put the data into the object. What's good is that the middle tier of the application enforces business logic. What's bad is that the database does not. Sometimes crap finds its way into the database. If crap is loaded into the application, it bails (throws an exception). Sometimes it clearly should bail because it cannot do anything, but what if it can continue working? E.g., an admin tool that gathers real-time reports runs a high risk of failing unnecessarily instead of allowing an admin to even fix a (potential) problem. I don't have an example on me right now, but in some instances, letting NHibernate use the "front door" properties that also enforce relationships (especially bidi) leads to bugs. What are the best solutions? Currently, I will, on a per-property basis, create a "back door" just for NHibernate: public virtual int Blah {get {return _Blah;} set {/*enforces BR's*/}} protected virtual int _Blah {get {return blah;} set {blah = value;}} private int blah; I showed the above in C# 2 (no default properties) to demonstrate how this gets us basically 3 layers of, or views, to blah!!! While this certainly works, it does not seem ideal as it requires the BL to provide one (public) interface for the app-at-large, and another (protected) interface for the data access layer. There is an additional problem: To my knowledge, NHibernate does not give you a way to distinguish between the name of the property in the BL and the name of the property in the entity model (i.e. the name you use when you query, e.g. via HQL--whenever you give NHibernate the name (string) of a property). This becomes a problem when, at first, the BR's for some property Blah are no problem, so you refer to it in your O/R mapping... but then later, you have to add some BR's that do become a problem, so then you have to change your O/R mapping to use a new _Blah property, which breaks all existing queries using "Blah" (common problem with programming against strings). Has anyone solved these problems?!

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  • Java: Making concurrent MySQL queries from multiple clients synchronised

    - by Misha Gale
    I work at a gaming cybercafe, and we've got a system here (smartlaunch) which keeps track of game licenses. I've written a program which interfaces with this system (actually, with it's backend MySQL database). The program is meant to be run on a client PC and (1) query the database to select an unused license from the pool available, then (2) mark this license as in use by the client PC. The problem is, I've got a concurrency bug. The program is meant to be launched simultaneously on multiple machines, and when this happens, some machines often try and acquire the same license. I think that this is because steps (1) and (2) are not synchronised, i.e. one program determines that license #5 is available and selects it, but before it can mark #5 as in use another copy of the program on another PC tries to grab that same license. I've tried to solve this problem by using transactions and table locking, but it doesn't seem to make any difference - Am I doing this right? Here follows the code in question: public LicenseKey Acquire() throws SmartLaunchException, SQLException { Connection conn = SmartLaunchDB.getConnection(); int PCID = SmartLaunchDB.getCurrentPCID(); conn.createStatement().execute("LOCK TABLE `licensekeys` WRITE"); String sql = "SELECT * FROM `licensekeys` WHERE `InUseByPC` = 0 AND LicenseSetupID = ? ORDER BY `ID` DESC LIMIT 1"; PreparedStatement statement = conn.prepareStatement(sql); statement.setInt(1, this.id); ResultSet results = statement.executeQuery(); if (results.next()) { int licenseID = results.getInt("ID"); sql = "UPDATE `licensekeys` SET `InUseByPC` = ? WHERE `ID` = ?"; statement = conn.prepareStatement(sql); statement.setInt(1, PCID); statement.setInt(2, licenseID); statement.executeUpdate(); statement.close(); conn.commit(); conn.createStatement().execute("UNLOCK TABLES"); return new LicenseKey(results.getInt("ID"), this, results.getString("LicenseKey"), results.getInt("LicenseKeyType")); } else { throw new SmartLaunchException("All licenses of type " + this.name + "are in use"); } }

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  • SQL Server - Get Inserted Record Identity Value when Using a View's Instead Of Trigger

    - by CuppM
    For several tables that have identity fields, we are implementing a Row Level Security scheme using Views and Instead Of triggers on those views. Here is a simplified example structure: -- Table CREATE TABLE tblItem ( ItemId int identity(1,1) primary key, Name varchar(20) ) go -- View CREATE VIEW vwItem AS SELECT * FROM tblItem -- RLS Filtering Condition go -- Instead Of Insert Trigger CREATE TRIGGER IO_vwItem_Insert ON vwItem INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN -- RLS Security Checks on inserted Table -- Insert Records Into Table INSERT INTO tblItem (Name) SELECT Name FROM inserted; END go If I want to insert a record and get its identity, before implementing the RLS Instead Of trigger, I used: DECLARE @ItemId int; INSERT INTO tblItem (Name) VALUES ('MyName'); SELECT @ItemId = SCOPE_IDENTITY(); With the trigger, SCOPE_IDENTITY() no longer works - it returns NULL. I've seen suggestions for using the OUTPUT clause to get the identity back, but I can't seem to get it to work the way I need it to. If I put the OUTPUT clause on the view insert, nothing is ever entered into it. -- Nothing is added to @ItemIds DECLARE @ItemIds TABLE (ItemId int); INSERT INTO vwItem (Name) OUTPUT INSERTED.ItemId INTO @ItemIds VALUES ('MyName'); If I put the OUTPUT clause in the trigger on the INSERT statement, the trigger returns the table (I can view it from SQL Management Studio). I can't seem to capture it in the calling code; either by using an OUTPUT clause on that call or using a SELECT * FROM (). -- Modified Instead Of Insert Trigger w/ Output CREATE TRIGGER IO_vwItem_Insert ON vwItem INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN -- RLS Security Checks on inserted Table -- Insert Records Into Table INSERT INTO tblItem (Name) OUTPUT INSERTED.ItemId SELECT Name FROM inserted; END go -- Calling Code INSERT INTO vwItem (Name) VALUES ('MyName'); The only thing I can think of is to use the IDENT_CURRENT() function. Since that doesn't operate in the current scope, there's an issue of concurrent users inserting at the same time and messing it up. If the entire operation is wrapped in a transaction, would that prevent the concurrency issue? BEGIN TRANSACTION DECLARE @ItemId int; INSERT INTO tblItem (Name) VALUES ('MyName'); SELECT @ItemId = IDENT_CURRENT('tblItem'); COMMIT TRANSACTION Does anyone have any suggestions on how to do this better? I know people out there who will read this and say "Triggers are EVIL, don't use them!" While I appreciate your convictions, please don't offer that "suggestion".

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  • Casting objects in C# (ASP.Net MVC)

    - by Mortanis
    I'm coming from a background in ColdFusion, and finally moving onto something modern, so please bear with me. I'm running into a problem casting objects. I have two database tables that I'm using as Models - Residential and Commercial. Both of them share the majority of their fields, though each has a few unique fields. I've created another class as a container that contains the sum of all property fields. Query the Residential and Commercial, stuff it into my container, cunningly called Property. This works fine. However, I'm having problems aliasing the fields from Residential/Commercial onto Property. It's quite easy to create a method for each property: fillPropertyByResidential(Residential source) and fillPropertyByCommercial(Commercial source), and alias the variables. That also works fine, but quite obviously will copy a bunch of code - all those fields that are shared between the two main Models. So, I'd like a generic fillPropertyBySource() that takes the object, and detects if it's Residential or Commercial, fills the particular fields of each respective type, then do all the fields in common. Except, I gather in C# that variables created inside an If are only in the scope of the if, so I'm not sure how to do this. public property fillPropertyBySource(object source) { property prop = new property(); if (source is Residential) { Residential o = (Residential)source; //Fill Residential only fields } else if (source is Commercial) { Commercial o = (Commercial)source; //Fill Commercial only fields } //Fill fields shared by both prop.price = (int)o.price; prop.bathrooms = (float)o.bathrooms; return prop; } "o" being a Commercial or Residential only exists within the scope of the if. How do I detect the original type of the source object and take action? Bear with me - the shift from ColdFusion into a modern language is pretty..... difficult. More so since I'm used to procedural code and MVC is a massive paradigm shift. Edit: I should include the error: The name 'o' does not exist in the current context For the aliases of price and bathrooms in the shared area.

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  • [N]Hibernate: view-like fetching properties of associated class

    - by chiccodoro
    (Felt quite helpless in formulating an appropriate title...) In my C# app I display a list of "A" objects, along with some properties of their associated "B" objects and properties of B's associated "C" objects: A.Name B.Name B.SomeValue C.Name Foo Bar 123 HelloWorld Bar Hello 432 World ... To clarify: A has an FK to B, B has an FK to C. (Such as, e.g. BankAccount - Person - Company). I have tried two approaches to load these properties from the database (using NHibernate): A fast approach and a clean approach. My eventual question is how to do a fast & clean approach. Fast approach: Define a view in the database which joins A, B, C and provides all these fields. In the A class, define properties "BName", "BSomeValue", "CName" Define a hibernate mapping between A and the View, whereas the needed B and C properties are mapped with update="false" insert="false" and do actually stem from B and C tables, but Hibernate is not aware of that since it uses the view. This way, the listing only loads one object per "A" record, which is quite fast. If the code tries to access the actual associated property, "A.B", I issue another HQL query to get B, set the property and update the faked BName and BSomeValue properties as well. Clean approach: There is no view. Class A is mapped to table A, B to B, C to C. When loading the list of A, I do a double left-join-fetch to get B and C as well: from A a left join fetch a.B left join fetch a.B.C B.Name, B.SomeValue and C.Name are accessed through the eagerly loaded associations. The disadvantage of this approach is that it gets slower and takes more memory, since it needs to created and map 3 objects per "A" record: An A, B, and C object each. Fast and clean approach: I feel somehow uncomfortable using a database view that hides a join and treat that in NHibernate as if it was a table. So I would like to do something like: Have no views in the database. Declare properties "BName", "BSomeValue", "CName" in class "A". Define the mapping for A such that NHibernate fetches A and these properties together using a join SQL query as a database view would do. The mapping should still allow for defining lazy many-to-one associations for getting A.B.C My questions: Is this possible? Is it [un]artful? Is there a better way?

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  • Circular database relationships. Good, Bad, Exceptions?

    - by jim
    I have been putting off developing this part of my app for sometime purely because I want to do this in a circular way but get the feeling its a bad idea from what I remember my lecturers telling me back in school. I have a design for an order system, ignoring the everything that doesn't pertain to this example I'm left with: CreditCard Customer Order I want it so that, Customers can have credit cards (0-n) Customers have orders (1-n) Orders have one customer(1-1) Orders have one credit card(1-1) Credit cards can have one customer(1-1) (unique ids so we can ignore uniqueness of cc number, husband/wife may share cc instances ect) Basically the last part is where the issue shows up, sometimes credit cards are declined and they wish to use a different one, this needs to update which their 'current' card is but this can only change the current card used for that order, not the other orders the customer may have on disk. Effectively this creates a circular design between the three tables. Possible solutions: Either Create the circular design, give references: cc ref to order, customer ref to cc customer ref to order or customer ref to cc customer ref to order create new table that references all three table ids and put unique on the order so that only one cc may be current to that order at any time Essentially both model the same design but translate differently, I am liking the latter option best at this point in time because it seems less circular and more central. (If that even makes sense) My questions are, What if any are the pros and cons of each? What is the pitfalls of circular relationships/dependancies? Is this a valid exception to the rule? Is there any reason I should pick the former over the latter? Thanks and let me know if there is anything you need clarified/explained. --Update/Edit-- I have noticed an error in the requirements I stated. Basically dropped the ball when trying to simplify things for SO. There is another table there for Payments which adds another layer. The catch, Orders can have multiple payments, with the possibility of using different credit cards. (if you really want to know even other forms of payment). Stating this here because I think the underlying issue is still the same and this only really adds another layer of complexity.

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  • Displaying data from mutliple arrays with codeigniter

    - by Craig Ward
    I am trying to display results from a database where the results are contained in three tables. How do I echo out the results? $p- works, but $img- or $branch- doesn't. What am I doing wrong? Example code is below Sample controller: $p_id = $this-uri-segment(3); $this-load-model('One_model'); $data['prop'] = $this-One_model-get_details($p_id); $data['img'] = $this-One-get_images($p_id); $this-load-model('Two_model'); $data['branch'] = $this-Two_model-get_details($p_id); $this-load-view('a_test_view', $data); A Sample View <?php foreach ($property as $p):?> <p><?php echo $p->SUMMARY; ?></p> <p>We have <?php echo "$img->num_photos"; ?> photos</p> <p>Branch is <?php echo $branch->name; ?>. Telephone <?php echo $branch->tel; ?></p> <ul> <li><?php echo $p->FEATURE1; ?></li> <li><?php echo $p->FEATURE2; ?></li> <li><?php echo $p->FEATURE3; ?></li> <li><?php echo $p->FEATURE4; ?></li> <li><?php echo $p->FEATURE5; ?></li> <li><?php echo $p->FEATURE6; ?></li> <li><?php echo $p->FEATURE7; ?></li> <li><?php echo $p->FEATURE8; ?></li> <li><?php echo $p->FEATURE9; ?></li> <li><?php echo $p->FEATURE10; ?></li> </ul> <?php endforeach; ?>

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  • mysql timeout - c/C++

    - by user1262876
    Guys i'm facing a problem with this code, the problem is the timeout by timeout i mean the time it takes the program to tell me if the server is connected or not. If i use my localhost i get the answer fast, but when i connect to outside my localhost it takes 50sc - 1.5 min to response and the program frezz until it done. HOw can i fix the frezzing, or make my own timeout, like if still waiting after 50sc, tell me connection failed and stop? please use codes as help, becouse i would understand it better, thanks for any help i get PS: USING MAC #include "mysql.h" #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> // Other Linker Flags: -lmysqlclient -lm -lz // just going to input the general details and not the port numbers struct connection_details { char *server; char *user; char *password; char *database; }; MYSQL* mysql_connection_setup(struct connection_details mysql_details) { // first of all create a mysql instance and initialize the variables within MYSQL *connection = mysql_init(NULL); // connect to the database with the details attached. if (!mysql_real_connect(connection,mysql_details.server, mysql_details.user, mysql_details.password, mysql_details.database, 0, NULL, 0)) { printf("Conection error : %s\n", mysql_error(connection)); exit(1); } return connection; } MYSQL_RES* mysql_perform_query(MYSQL *connection, char *sql_query) { // send the query to the database if (mysql_query(connection, sql_query)) { printf("MySQL query error : %s\n", mysql_error(connection)); exit(1); } return mysql_use_result(connection); } int main() { MYSQL *conn; // the connection MYSQL_RES *res; // the results MYSQL_ROW row; // the results row (line by line) struct connection_details mysqlD; mysqlD.server = (char*)"Localhost"; // where the mysql database is mysqlD.user = (char*)"root"; // the root user of mysql mysqlD.password = (char*)"123456"; // the password of the root user in mysql mysqlD.database = (char*)"test"; // the databse to pick // connect to the mysql database conn = mysql_connection_setup(mysqlD); // assign the results return to the MYSQL_RES pointer res = mysql_perform_query(conn, (char*) "SELECT * FROM me"); printf("MySQL Tables in mysql database:\n"); while ((row = mysql_fetch_row(res)) !=NULL) printf("%s - %s\n", row[0], row[1], row[2]); // <-- Rows /* clean up the database result set */ mysql_free_result(res); /* clean up the database link */ mysql_close(conn); return 0; }

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  • Refactor a link and an image

    - by Mihail Stoynov
    I have to write an link with an image inside. Instead of explaining, here's the code I have now: <c:if test="${userSession.loggedUser eq null and company.image != null}"> <a onclick="${rich:component('loginPanel')}.show()"> <img src="/download.do?hash=#{company.image.hash}" /> </a> </c:if> <c:if test="${userSession.loggedUser eq null and company.image == null}"> <a onclick="${rich:component('loginPanel')}.show()"> <img src="${request.contextPath}/img/icons/logo_default.jpg" /> </a> </c:if> <c:if test="${userSession.loggedUser ne null and company.image != null}"> <a href="company.xhtml?${company.name}"> <img src="/download.do?hash=#{company.image.hash}" /> </a> </c:if> <c:if test="#{userSession.loggedUser ne null and company.image == null}"> <a href="company.xhtml?${company.name}"> <img src="${request.contextPath}/img/icons/logo_default.jpg" /> </a> </c:if> This code looks awful - there are two exact links with two exact images but combined in all possible combinations. Is there a better way? Is there a way to avoid c:if - it created tables? Update: Bozho proposes: You can replace <c:if and <a with <h:outputLink rendered="#{..}". Apart from that I don't see any other optimization. But it doesn't work. This does not render correctly: <a href=> <h:outputLink rendered="#{..} <h:outputLink rendered="#{..} </a> (the image is outside the anchor) This does render fine: <h:outputLink value=> <h:outputLink rendered="#{..} <h:outputLink rendered="#{..} </a> , but it always adds href and in two of the cases I don't want href when rendered.

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  • ASP.Net / MySQL : Translating content into several languages

    - by philwilks
    I have an ASP.Net website which uses a MySQL database for the back end. The website is an English e-commerce system, and we are looking at the possibility of translating it into about five other languages (French, Spanish etc). We will be getting human translators to perform the translation - we've looked at automated services but these aren't good enough. The static text on the site (e.g. headings, buttons etc) can easily be served up in multiple languages via .Net's built in localization features (resx files etc). The thing that I'm not so sure about it how best to store and retrieve the multi-language content in the database. For example, there is a products table that includes these fields... productId (int) categoryId (int) title (varchar) summary (varchar) description (text) features (text) The title, summary, description and features text would need to be available in all the different languages. Here are the two options that I've come up with... Create additional field for each language For example we could have titleEn, titleFr, titleEs etc for all the languages, and repeat this for all text columns. We would then adapt our code to use the appropriate field depending on the language selected. This feels a bit hacky, and also would lead to some very large tables. Also, if we wanted to add additional languages in the future it would be time consuming to add even more columns. Use a lookup table We could create a new table with the following format... textId | languageId | content ------------------------------- 10 | EN | Car 10 | FR | Voiture 10 | ES | Coche 11 | EN | Bike 11 | FR | Vélo We'd then adapt our products table to reference the appropriate textId for the title, summary, description and features instead of having the text stored in the product table. This seems much more elegant, but I can't think of a simple way of getting this data out of the database and onto the page without using complex SQL statements. Of course adding new languages in the future would be very simple compared to the previous option. I'd be very grateful for any suggestions about the best way to achieve this! Is there any "best practice" guidance out there? Has anyone done this before?

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  • Database schema for simple stats project

    - by Bubnoff
    Backdrop: I have a file hierarchy of cvs files for multiple locations named by dates they cover ...by month specifically. Each cvs file in the folder is named after the location. eg', folder name: 2010-feb contains: location1.csv location2.csv Each CSV file holds records like this: 2010-06-28, 20:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 08:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 09:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 10:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 11:30:00 , 0 meaning of record columns ( column names ): Date, time, # of sessions I have a perl script that pulls the data from this mess and originally I was going to store it as json files, but am thinking a database might be more appropriate long term ...comparing year to year trends ...fun stuff like that. Pt 2 - My question/problem: So I now have a REST service that coughs up json with a test database. My question is [ I suck at db design ], how best to design a database backend for this? I am thinking the following tables would suffice and keep it simple: Location: (PK)location_code, name session: (PK)id, (FK)location_code, month, hour, num_sessions I need to be able to average sessions (plus min and max) for each hour across days of week in addition to days of week in a given month or months. I've been using perl hashes to do this and am trying to decide how best to implement this with a database. Do you think stored procedures should be used? As to the database, depending on info gathered here, it will be postgresql or sqlite. If there is no compelling reason for postgresql I'll stick with sqlite. How and where should I compare the data to hours of operation. I am storing the hours of operation in a yaml file. I currently 'match' the hour in the data to a hash from the yaml to do this. Would a database open simpler methods? I am thinking I would do this comparison as I do now then insert the data. Can be recalled with: SELECT hour, num_sessions FROM session WHERE location_code=LOC1 Since only hours of operation are present, I do not need to worry about it. Should I calculate all results as I do now then store as a stats table for different 'reports'? This, rather than processing on demand? How would this look? Anyway ...I ramble. Thanks for reading! Bubnoff

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  • How to get HABTM associated data using hasOne binding

    - by Moin
    Hi, I am following example documented at http://book.cakephp.org/view/83/hasAndBelongsToMany-HABTM I am trying to retrieve associated data using hasOne. I created 3 tables posts, tags and posts_tags. I wrote following code to debug Posts. $this->Post->bindModel(array( 'hasOne' => array( 'PostsTag', 'FilterTag' => array( 'className' => 'Tag', 'foreignKey' => false, 'conditions' => array('FilterTag.id = PostsTag.tag_id') )))); $output=$this->Post->find('all', array( 'fields' => array('Post.*') )); debug($output); I was expecting output something like below. Array ( 0 => Array { [Post] => Array ( [id] => 1 [title] => test post 1 ) [Tag] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [id] => 1 [name] => php ) [1] => Array ( [id] => 2 [name] => javascript ) [2] => Array ( [id] => 3 [name] => xml ) ) } But my output do not have Tags at all. Here is what I got. Array ( [0] => Array ( [Post] => Array ( [id] => 1 [title] => test post1 ) ) [1] => Array ( [Post] => Array ( [id] => 2 [title] => test post2 ) ) ) How do I get associated tags along with the post. I know I am missing something, but unable to figure out. Any help would be highly appreciated.

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  • How do I create a safe local development environment?

    - by docgnome
    I'm currently doing web development with another developer on a centralized development server. In the past this has worked alright, as we have two separate projects we are working on and rarely conflict. Now, however, we are adding a third (possible) developer into the mix. This is clearly going to create problems with other developers changes affecting my work and vice versa. To solve this problem, I'm thinking the best solution would be to create a virtual machine to distribute between the developers for local use. The problem I have is when it comes to the database. Given that we all develop on laptops, simply keeping a local copy of the live data is plain stupid. I've considered sanitizing the data, but I can't really figure out how to replace the real data, with data that would be representative of what people actually enter with out repeating the same information over and over again, e.g. everyone's address becomes 123 Testing Lane, Test Town, WA, 99999 or something. Is this really something to be concerned about? Are there tools to help with this sort of thing? I'm using MySQL. Ideally, if I sanitized the db it should be done from a script that I can run regularly. If I do this I'd also need a way to reduce the size of the db itself. (I figure I could select all the records created after x and whack them and all the records in corresponding tables out so that isn't really a big deal.) The second solution I've thought of is to encrypt the hard drive of the vm, but I'm unsure of how practical this is in terms of speed and also in the event of a lost/stolen laptop. If I do this, should the vm hard drive file itself be encrypted or should it be encrypted in the vm? (I'm assuming the latter as it would be portable and doesn't require the devs to have any sort of encryption capability on their OS of choice.) The third is to create a copy of the database for each developer on our development server that they are then responsible to keep the schema in sync with the canonical db by means of migration scripts or what have you. This solution seems to be the simplest but doesn't really scale as more developers are added. How do you deal with this problem?

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  • MVC | Linq Update Query | Help!

    - by 109221793
    Hi guys, I'm making modifications to a C# MVC application that I've inherited. I have a database, and for simplicity I'll just focus on the two tables I'm working with for this linq query. Item ItemID Int PK ItemName RepairSelection (Yes or No) RepairID Int FK Repair RepairID Int PK RepairCategory SubmissionDate DateSentForRepair Ok, so ItemID is pretty much the identifier, and the View to display the Repair details goes like this (snippet): <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.ItemID)%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => x.ItemID)%><br /> <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.Repair.RepairCategory)%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => x.Repair.RepairCategory, "FormTextShort")%><br /> <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.Repair.SubmissionDate)%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => x.Repair.SubmissionDate)%><br /> <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.Repair.DateSentForRepair)%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => x.Repair.DateSentForRepair)%><br /> <%= Html.ActionLink("Edit Repair Details", "Edit", new { ItemID= Model.ItemID})%> Here is the GET Edit action: public ActionResult Edit(Int64? itemId) { ModelContainer ctn = new ModelContainer(); var item = from i in ctn.Items where i.ItemID == itemId select i; return View(item.First()); } This is also fine, the GET Edit view displays the right details. Where I'm stuck is the linq query to update the Repair table. I have tried it so many ways today that my head is just fried (new to Linq as you may have guessed). My latest try is here (which I know is way off so go easy ;-) ): [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Int64 itemId, Repair repair, Item item, FormCollection formValues) { if (formValues["cancelButton"] != null) { return RedirectToAction("View", new { ItemID = itemId }); } ModelContainer ctn = new ModelContainer(); Repair existingData = ctn.Repair.First(a => a.RepairId == item.RepairID && item.ItemID == itemId); existingData.SentForConversion = DateTime.Parse(formValues["SentForConversion"]); ctn.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("View", new { ItemID = itemId }); } For the above attempt I get a Sequence Contains No Elements error. Any help or pointers would be appreciated. Thanks guys.

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  • SQL query - choosing 'last updated' record in a group, better db design?

    - by Jimmy
    Hi, Let's say I have a MySQL database with 3 tables: table 1: Persons, with 1 column ID (int) table 2: Newsletters, with 1 column ID (int) table 3: Subscriptions, with columns Person_ID (int), Newsletter_ID (int), Subscribed (bool), Updated (Datetime) Subscriptions.Person_ID points to a Person, and Subscription.Newsletter_ID points to a Newsletter. Thus, each person may have 0 or more subscriptions to 0 or more magazines at once. The table Subscriptions will also store the entire history of each person's subscriptions to each newsletter. If a particular Person_ID-Newsletter_ID pair doesn't have a row in the Subscriptions table, then it's equivalent to that pair having a subscription status of 'false'. Here is a sample dataset Persons ID 1 2 3 Newsletters ID 4 5 6 Subscriptions Person_ID Newsletter_ID Subscribed Updated 2 4 true 2010-05-01 3 4 true 2010-05-01 3 5 true 2010-05-10 3 4 false 2010-05-15 Thus, as of 2010-05-16, Person 1 has no subscription, Person 2 has a subscription to Newsletter 4, and Person 3 has a subscription to Newsletter 5. Person 3 had a subscription to Newsletter 4 for a while, but not anymore. I'm trying to do 2 kinds of query. A query that shows everyone's active subscriptions as of query time (we can assume that updated will never be in the future -- thus, this means returning the record with the latest 'updated' value for each Person_ID-Newsletter_ID pair, as long as Subscribed is true (if the latest record for a Person_ID-Newsletter_ID pair has a Subscribed status of false, then I don't want that record returned)). A query that returns all active subscriptions for a specific newsletter - same qualification as in 1. regarding records with 'false' in the Subscribed column. I don't use SQL/databases often enough to tell if this design is good, or if the SQL queries needed would be slow on a database with, say, 1M records in the Subscriptions table. I was using the Visual query builder tool in Visual Studio 2010 but I can't even get the query to return the latest updated record for each Person_ID-Newsletter_ID pair. Is it possible to come up with SQL queries that don't involve using subqueries (presumably because they would become too slow with a larger data set)? If not, would it be a better design to have a separate Subscriptions_History table, and every time a subscription status for a Person_ID-Newsletter-ID pair is added to Subscriptions, any existing record for that pair is moved to Subscriptions_History (that way the Subscriptions table only ever contains the latest status update for any Person_ID-Newsletter_ID pair)? I'm using .net on Windows, so would it be easier (or the same, or harder) to do this kind of queries using Linq? Entity Framework? Thanks!

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  • Issues querying Access '07 database in C#

    - by Kye
    I'm doing a .NET unit as part of my studies. I've only just started, with a lecturer that as kinda failed to give me the most solid foundation with .NET, so excuse the noobishness. I'm making a pretty simple and generic database-driven application. I'm using C# and I'm accessing a Microsoft Access 2007 database. I've put the database-ish stuff in its own class with the methods just spitting out OleDbDataAdapters that I use for committing. I feed any methods which preform a query a DataSet object from the main program, which is where I'm keeping the data (multiple tables in the db). I've made a very generic private method that I use to perform SQL SELECT queries and have some public methods wrapping that method to get products, orders.etc (it's a generic retail database). The generic method uses a separate Connect method to actually make the connection, and it is as follows: private static OleDbConnection Connect() { OleDbConnection conn = new OleDbConnection( @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0; Data Source=C:\Temp\db.accdb"); return conn; } The generic method is as follows: private static OleDbDataAdapter GenericSelectQuery( DataSet ds, string namedTable, String selectString) { OleDbCommand oleCommand = new OleDbCommand(); OleDbConnection conn = Connect(); oleCommand.CommandText = selectString; oleCommand.Connection = conn; oleCommand.CommandType = CommandType.Text; OleDbDataAdapter adapter = new OleDbDataAdapter(); adapter.SelectCommand = oleCommand; adapter.MissingSchemaAction = MissingSchemaAction.AddWithKey; adapter.Fill(ds, namedTable); return adapter; } The wrapper methods just pass along the DataSet that they received from the main program, the namedtable string is the name of the table in the dataset, and you pass in the query you wish to make. It doesn't matter which query I give it (even something simple like SELECT * FROM TableName) I still get thrown an OleDbException, stating that there was en error with the FROM clause of the query. I've just resorted to building the queries with Access, but there's still no use. Obviously there's something wrong with my code, which wouldn't actually surprise me. Here are some wrapper methods I'm using. public static OleDbDataAdapter GetOrderLines(DataSet ds) { OleDbDataAdapter adapter = GenericSelectQuery( ds, "orderlines", "SELECT OrderLine.* FROM OrderLine;"); return adapter; } They all look the same, it's just the SQL that changes.

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  • How would you structure your entity model for storing arbitrary key/value data with different data t

    - by Nathan Ridley
    I keep coming across scenarios where it will be useful to store a set of arbitrary data in a table using a per-row key/value model, rather than a rigid column/field model. The problem is, I want to store the values with their correct data type rather than converting everything to a string. This means I have to choose either a single table with multiple nullable columns, one for each data type, or a set of value tables, one for each data type. I'm also unsure as to whether I should use full third normal form and separate the keys into a separate table, referencing them via a foreign key from the value table(s), or if it would be better to keep things simple and store the string keys in the value table(s) and accept the duplication of strings. Old/bad: This solution makes adding additional values a pain in a fluid environment because the table needs to be modified regularly. MyTable ============================ ID Key1 Key2 Key3 int int string date ---------------------------- 1 Value1 Value2 Value3 2 Value4 Value5 Value6 Single Table Solution This solution allows simplicity via a single table. The querying code still needs to check for nulls to determine which data type the field is storing. A check constraint is probably also required to ensure only one of the value fields contains non-nulll data. DataValues ============================================================= ID RecordID Key IntValue StringValue DateValue int int string int string date ------------------------------------------------------------- 1 1 Key1 Value1 NULL NULL 2 1 Key2 NULL Value2 NULL 3 1 Key3 NULL NULL Value3 4 2 Key1 Value4 NULL NULL 5 2 Key2 NULL Value5 NULL 6 2 Key3 NULL NULL Value6 Multiple-Table Solution This solution allows for more concise purposing of each table, though the code needs to know the data type in advance as it needs to query a different table for each data type. Indexing is probably simpler and more efficient because there are less columns that need indexing. IntegerValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string int ------------------------------- 1 1 Key1 Value1 2 2 Key1 Value4 StringValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string string ------------------------------- 1 1 Key2 Value2 2 2 Key2 Value5 DateValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string date ------------------------------- 1 1 Key3 Value3 2 2 Key3 Value6 How do you approach this problem? Which solution is better? Also, should the key column be separated into a separate table and referenced via a foreign key or be should it be kept in the value table and bulk updated if for some reason the key name changes?

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  • Look over my C# SQLite Query, what am I doing wrong?

    - by CODe
    I'm writing a WinForms database application using SQLite and C#. I have a sqlite query that is failing, and I'm unsure as to where I'm going wrong, as I've tried everything I could think of. public DataTable searchSubs(String businessName, String contactName) { string SQL = null; if ((businessName != null && businessName != "") && (contactName != null && contactName != "")) { // provided business name and contact name for search SQL = "SELECT * FROM SUBCONTRACTOR WHERE BusinessName LIKE %@BusinessName% AND Contact LIKE %@ContactName%"; } else if ((businessName != null && businessName != "") && (contactName == null || contactName == "")) { // provided business name only for search SQL = "SELECT * FROM SUBCONTRACTOR WHERE BusinessName LIKE %@BusinessName%"; } else if ((businessName == null || businessName == "") && (contactName != null && contactName != "")) { // provided contact name only for search SQL = "SELECT * FROM SUBCONTRACTOR WHERE Contact LIKE %@ContactName%"; } else if ((businessName == null || businessName == "") && (contactName == null || contactName == "")) { // provided no search information SQL = "SELECT * FROM SUBCONTRACTOR"; } SQLiteCommand cmd = new SQLiteCommand(SQL); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BusinessName", businessName); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ContactName", contactName); cmd.Connection = connection; SQLiteDataAdapter da = new SQLiteDataAdapter(cmd); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); try { da.Fill(ds); DataTable dt = ds.Tables[0]; return dt; } catch (Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.ToString()); return null; } finally { cmd.Dispose(); connection.Close(); } } I continually get an error saying that it is failing near the %'s. That's all fine and dandy, but I guess I'm structuring it wrong, but I don't know where! I tried adding apostrophes around the "like" variables, like this: SQL = "SELECT * FROM SUBCONTRACTOR WHERE Contact LIKE '%@ContactName%'"; and quite honestly, that is all I can think of. Anyone have any ideas?

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