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  • Why do you need "extern C" for C++ callbacks to C functions?

    - by Artyom
    Hello, I find such examples in Boost code. namespace boost { namespace { extern "C" void *thread_proxy(void *f) { .... } } // anonymous void thread::thread_start(...) { ... pthread_create(something,0,&thread_proxy,something_else); ... } } // boost Why do you actually need this extern "C"? It is clear that thread_proxy function is private internal and I do not expect that it would be mangled as "thread_proxy" because I actually do not need it mangled at all. In fact in all my code that I had written and that runs on may platforms I never used extern "C" and this had worked as-as with normal functions. Why extern "C" is added? My problem is that extern "C" function pollute global name-space and they do not actually hidden as author expects. This is not duplicate! I'm not talking about mangling and external linkage. It is obvious in this code that external linkage is unwanted! Answer: Calling convention of C and C++ functions are not necessary the same, so you need to create one with C calling convention. See 7.5 (p4) of C++ standard.

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  • Java : Inner class of an interface (from google guice)

    - by bsreekanth
    Hello, I was going through the source of google guice, and found an unfamiliar piece of code. It would be great learning if someone can clarify it. I have very basic understanding of inner classes, as they keep the implementation details close to the public interface. Otherwise the inner class may pollute the namespace. Now, I see the below lines at public static final Scope SINGLETON = new Scope() { public <T> Provider<T> scope(final Key<T> key, final Provider<T> creator) { return new Provider<T>() { ......... } It assign an inner class instance to the static variable, but Scope is an interface defined as (at) public interface Scope Is it possible to instantiate the interface?? or is it a succinct syntax for an anonymous implementation of an interface?? If anyone can explain what the author is intended by multiple nested classes above (Scope and Provider), and why it make sense to implement this way, it would help me to understand. thanks.

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  • Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

    - by Tony_Henrich
    My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

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  • I cannot seem to load an XML document using ASP (Classic), IIS6. Details inside.

    - by carny666
    So I am writing a web application for use within my organization. The application requires that it know who the current user is. This is done by calling the Request.ServerVariables("AUTH_USER") function, which works great as long as 'Anonymous Access' is disabled (unchecked) and 'Integrated Windows Authentication' is enabled (checked) within IIS for this subweb. Unfortunately by doing this I get an 'Access Denied' error when I hit the load method of the XML DOM. Example code: dim urlToXmlFile urlToXmlFile = "http://currentwebserver/currentsubweb/nameofxml.xml" dim xmlDom set xmlDom = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") xmlDom.async = false xmlDom.load( urlToXmlFile ) ' <-- this is where I get the error! I've looked everywhere and cannot find a solution. I should be able to load an XML file into the DOM regardless of the authentication method. Any help would be appreciated. So far the only two solutions I can come up with are: a) create a new subweb that JUST gets the current user name and somehow passes it back to my XML reading subweb. b) open up security on the entire system to 'Everyone', which works but our IS department wouldn't care for that.

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  • IIS7.5 and MVC 2 : Implementing HTTP(S) security

    - by Program.X
    This is my first ASP.NET MVC application, and my first on an IIS 7.x installation whereby I have to do anything over and above the standard. I need to enforce Windows authentication on the /Index and /feeds/xxx.svc pages/services. In ASP.NET Web Forms, I would apply the Windows permissions on the files and remove Anonymous authentication in IIS 6. This needs to work over HTTP/S, but don't worry about that, that's in hand. What happens in MVC/IIS 7? I have tried modifying the permissions on the /Index.aspx view, which seems to block access. It asks me for a username/password, but does not grant access when I enter a valid username/password. Pressing Escape gives me an exception "*Access to the path 'E:\dev\xxx\xxx.ConsultantRegistration.Web.Admin\Views\ConsultantRegistration\index.aspx' is denied. *", which does get sent as a 401. So although the username/password does exist on the Index.aspx view, I can't use those credentials to access said view. I have in my web.config: What am I missing?

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  • getting windows username with javascript

    - by jbkkd
    I have a site which is built in ASP.net and C#. Let's call it webapp. it uses a Form system to log on into it, and cannot be changed easliy. I got a request to change the log in to some kind of windows authentication. I'll explain. Our windows login uses active directory for users to log into their windows account. their login name is sXXXXXXX. X are numbers. in my webapp, I want to take the users numbers from their active directory login, and check if those exist in the webapp database. if it exists, they will automatically log in. If it doesn't, they will be referred to the regular login page for the webapp system which is currently in use. I tried changing my IIS to disable anonymous login and enabling windows authentication, therefore making the user browser to send it's current logged in user name to my webapp. I changed the web config as well from "Forms" to "Windows", which made my whole webapp obsolete as the whole forms system did not work. My question is this - is there a different way for the browser only to send the username to my webapp? I thought maybe javascript, I just don't know how to implement that, if it's even possible. I know it's not very secure, but all this platform and system is built outside the internet, it's on a private network.

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  • [C# Thread] I'd like access to a share on the network!

    - by JustLooking
    Some Details I am working with VisualWebGUI, so this app is like ASP.NET, and it is deployed on IIS 7 (for testing) For my 'Web Site', Anonymous Authentication is set to a specific user (DomainName\DomainUser). In my web.config, I have impersonation on. This is how I got my app to access the share in the first place. The Problem There is a point in the the app where we use the Thread class, something similar to: Thread myThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(objInstance.PublicMethod)); myThread.Start(); What I have noticed is that I can write to my logs (text file on the share), everywhere throughout my code, except in the thread that I kicked off. I added some debugging output and what I see for users is: The thread that's kicked off: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Everywhere else in my code: DomainName\DomainUser (described in my IIS setup) OK, for some reason the thread gets a different user (NETWORK SERVICE). Fine. But, my share (and the actual log file) was given 'Full Control' to the NETWORK SERVICE user (this share resides on a different server than the one that my app is running). If NETWORK SERVICE has rights to this folder, why do I get access denied? Or is there a way to have the thread I kick off have the same user as the process?

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  • White-box testing in Javascript - how to deal with privacy?

    - by Max Shawabkeh
    I'm writing unit tests for a module in a small Javascript application. In order to keep the interface clean, some of the implementation details are closed over by an anonymous function (the usual JS pattern for privacy). However, while testing I need to access/mock/verify the private parts. Most of the tests I've written previously have been in Python, where there are no real private variables (members, identifiers, whatever you want to call them). One simply suggests privacy via a leading underscore for the users, and freely ignores it while testing the code. In statically typed OO languages I suppose one could make private members accessible to tests by converting them to be protected and subclassing the object to be tested. In Javascript, the latter doesn't apply, while the former seems like bad practice. I could always wall back to black box testing and simply check the final results. It's the simplest and cleanest approach, but unfortunately not really detailed enough for my needs. So, is there a standard way of keeping variables private while still retaining some backdoors for testing in Javascript?

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  • NServiceBus & MSMQ: How To Change the Default Permissions on the Queue?

    - by Amy T
    My team is on our first attempt at using NServiceBus (v2.0), using MSMQ as the backing storage. We're getting stuck on queue permissions. We're using it in a Web Forms application, where the user account the website runs under is not an administrator on the machine. When NServiceBus creates the MSMQ queue, it gives the local administrators group full control, and the local everyone and anonymous groups permissions to send messages. But then later, as part of initializing the queue, NServiceBus tries to read all of its messages. That's where we run into the permissions error. Since the website isn't running as an administrator, it's not allowed to read messages. How are other people dealing with this? Do your applications run as administrators? Or do you create the MSMQ queue in your code first, giving it the permissions you need, so that NServiceBus doesn't have to create it? Or is there a bit of configuration we're missing? Or are we likely writing our code that uses NServiceBus incorrectly to be running into this?

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  • How can I pass a hash to a Perl subroutine?

    - by Vishalrix
    In one of my main( or primary) routines,I have two or more hashes. I want the subroutine foo() to recieve these possibly-multiple hashes as distinct hashes. Right now I have no preference if they go by value, or as references. I am struggling with this for the last many hours and would appreciate help, so that I dont have to leave perl for php! ( I am using mod_perl, or will be) Right now I have got some answer to my requirement, shown here From http://forums.gentoo.org/viewtopic-t-803720-start-0.html # sub: dump the hash values with the keys '1' and '3' sub dumpvals { foreach $h (@_) { print "1: $h->{1} 3: $h->{3}\n"; } } # initialize an array of anonymous hash references @arr = ({1,2,3,4}, {1,7,3,8}); # create a new hash and add the reference to the array $t{1} = 5; $t{3} = 6; push @arr, \%t; # call the sub dumpvals(@arr); I only want to extend it so that in dumpvals I could do something like this: foreach my %k ( keys @_[0]) { # use $k and @_[0], and others } The syntax is wrong, but I suppose you can tell that I am trying to get the keys of the first hash ( hash1 or h1), and iterate over them. How to do it in the latter code snippet above?

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  • Jquery + Prototype Question

    - by mikeyhill
    I recently inherited a site which is botched in all sorts of ways. I'm more of a php guy and initially the js was working just fine. I made no changes to the javascript or the any of the include files but after making a few content edits I'm getting errors from firebug. a.dispatchEvent is not a function emptyFunction()protot...ects.js (line 2) emptyFunction()protot...ects.js (line 2) fireContentLoadedEvent()protot...ects.js (line 2) [Break on this error] var Prototype={Version:'1.6.0.2',Brows...pe,Enumerable);Element.addMethods(); protot...ects.js (line 2) this.m_eTarget.setStyle is not a function [Break on this error] this.m_eTarget.setStyle( { position: 'relative', overflow:'hidden'} ); protot...ects.js (line 43) uncaught exception: [Exception... "Component returned failure code: 0x80070057 (NS_ERROR_ILLEGAL_VALUE)" nsresult: "0x80070057 (NS_ERROR_ILLEGAL_VALUE)" location: "JS frame :: js/prototype_effects.js :: anonymous :: line 2" data: no] Googling around I found several posts that sometimes jquery+prototype don't play well and rearranging the scripts could fix this issue, however being that I didn't touch these sections I'm not sure where I even need to begin to debug. The previous developer incorporated a head.inc file which loads up prototype, scriptaculous and then many of the pages are in a sub-template loading up jquery for functions like lightbox. The site is temp housed at http://dawn.mikeyhill.com Any help is appreciated.

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  • Trouble using 'eval' to define a toplevel function when called from within an object.

    - by mschaef
    I've written (in JavaScript) an interactive read-eval-print-loop that is encapsulated within an object. However, I recently noticed that toplevel function definitions specified to the interpreter do not appear to be 'remembered' by the interpreter. After some diagnostic work, I've reduced the core problem to this: var evaler = { eval: function (str) { return eval(str); }, }; eval("function t1() { return 1; }"); // GOOD evaler.eval("function t2() { return 2; }"); // FAIL After running this script, I have a definition for t1, and no defintion for t2. The act of calling eval from within evaler is sufficiently different from the toplevel call that the global definition does not get recorded. What does happen is that the call to evaler.eval returns a function object, so I'm presuming that t2 is being defined and stored in some other set of bindings that I don't have access to. (It's not defined as a member in evaler.) Is there any easy fix for this? I've tried all sorts of fixes, and haven't stumbled upon one that works. (Most of what I've done has centered around putting the call to eval in an anonymous function, and altering the way that's called, chainging __parent__, etc.) Any thoughts on how to fix this?

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  • problem after uploading file to web host

    - by Alexander
    I have a .xml file in my App_Data folder, I can access it fine in my localhost, however after uploading it to my webhost I got the following: ASP.NET is not authorized to access the requested resource. Consider granting access rights to the resource to the ASP.NET request identity. ASP.NET has a base process identity (typically {MACHINE}\ASPNET on IIS 5 or Network Service on IIS 6) that is used if the application is not impersonating. If the application is impersonating via , the identity will be the anonymous user (typically IUSR_MACHINENAME) or the authenticated request user. To grant ASP.NET access to a file, right-click the file in Explorer, choose "Properties" and select the Security tab. Click "Add" to add the appropriate user or group. Highlight the ASP.NET account, and check the boxes for the desired access. So who should I grant access to read? There's 3 user in my web host and all seems to have read access set to them.. one is NETWORK_SERVICE, IUSR_MACHINENAME and my user. So what is wrong?

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  • Use `require()` with `node --eval`

    - by rentzsch
    When utilizing node.js's newish support for --eval, I get an error (ReferenceError: require is not defined) when I attempt to use require(). Here's an example of the failure: $ node --eval 'require("http");' undefined:1 ^ ReferenceError: require is not defined at eval at <anonymous> (node.js:762:36) at eval (native) at node.js:762:36 $ Here's a working example of using require() typed into the REPL: $ node > require("http"); { STATUS_CODES: { '100': 'Continue' , '101': 'Switching Protocols' , '102': 'Processing' , '200': 'OK' , '201': 'Created' , '202': 'Accepted' , '203': 'Non-Authoritative Information' , '204': 'No Content' , '205': 'Reset Content' , '206': 'Partial Content' , '207': 'Multi-Status' , '300': 'Multiple Choices' , '301': 'Moved Permanently' , '302': 'Moved Temporarily' , '303': 'See Other' , '304': 'Not Modified' , '305': 'Use Proxy' , '307': 'Temporary Redirect' , '400': 'Bad Request' , '401': 'Unauthorized' , '402': 'Payment Required' , '403': 'Forbidden' , '404': 'Not Found' , '405': 'Method Not Allowed' , '406': 'Not Acceptable' , '407': 'Proxy Authentication Required' , '408': 'Request Time-out' , '409': 'Conflict' , '410': 'Gone' , '411': 'Length Required' , '412': 'Precondition Failed' , '413': 'Request Entity Too Large' , '414': 'Request-URI Too Large' , '415': 'Unsupported Media Type' , '416': 'Requested Range Not Satisfiable' , '417': 'Expectation Failed' , '418': 'I\'m a teapot' , '422': 'Unprocessable Entity' , '423': 'Locked' , '424': 'Failed Dependency' , '425': 'Unordered Collection' , '426': 'Upgrade Required' , '500': 'Internal Server Error' , '501': 'Not Implemented' , '502': 'Bad Gateway' , '503': 'Service Unavailable' , '504': 'Gateway Time-out' , '505': 'HTTP Version not supported' , '506': 'Variant Also Negotiates' , '507': 'Insufficient Storage' , '509': 'Bandwidth Limit Exceeded' , '510': 'Not Extended' } , IncomingMessage: { [Function: IncomingMessage] super_: [Function: EventEmitter] } , OutgoingMessage: { [Function: OutgoingMessage] super_: [Function: EventEmitter] } , ServerResponse: { [Function: ServerResponse] super_: [Circular] } , ClientRequest: { [Function: ClientRequest] super_: [Circular] } , Server: { [Function: Server] super_: { [Function: Server] super_: [Function: EventEmitter] } } , createServer: [Function] , Client: { [Function: Client] super_: { [Function: Stream] super_: [Function: EventEmitter] } } , createClient: [Function] , cat: [Function] } > Is there a way to use require() with node's --eval? I'm on node 0.2.6 on Mac OS X 10.6.5.

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  • Loading a view routed by a URL parameter (e.g., /users/:id) in MEAN stack

    - by Matt Rowles
    I am having difficulties with trying to load a user by their id, for some reason my http.get call isn't hitting my controller. I get the following error in the browser console: TypeError: undefined is not a function at new <anonymous> (http://localhost:9000/scripts/controllers/users.js:10:8) Update I've fixed my code up as per comments below, but now my code just enters an infinite loop in the angular users controllers (see code below). I am using the Angular Express Generator for reference Backend - nodejs, express, mongo routes.js: // not sure if this is required, but have used it before? app.param('username', users.show); app.route('/api/users/:username') .get(users.show); controller.js: // This never gets hit exports.show = function (req, res, next, username) { User.findOne({ username: username }) .exec(function (err, user) { req.user = user; res.json(req.user || null); }); }; Frontend - angular app.js: $routeProvider .when('/users/:username', { templateUrl: function( params ){ return 'users/view/' + params.username; }, controller: 'UsersCtrl' }) services/user.js: angular.module('app') .factory('User', function ($resource) { return $resource('/api/users/:username', { username: '@username' }, { update: { method: 'PUT', params: {} }, get: { method: 'GET', params: { username:'username' } } }); }); controllers/users.js: angular.module('app') .controller('UsersCtrl', ['$scope', '$http', '$routeParams', '$route', 'User', function ($scope, $http, $routeParams, $route, User) { // this returns the error above $http.get( '/api/users/' + $routeParams.username ) .success(function( user ) { $scope.user = user; }) .error(function( err) { console.log( err ); }); }]); If it helps, I'm using this setup

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  • Is method reference caching a good idea in Java 8?

    - by gexicide
    Consider I have code like the following: class Foo { Y func(X x) {...} void doSomethingWithAFunc(Function<X,Y> f){...} void hotFunction(){ doSomethingWithAFunc(this::func); } } Consider that hotFunction is called very often. Would it then be advisable to cache this::func, maybe like this: class Foo { Function<X,Y> f = this::func; ... void hotFunction(){ doSomethingWithAFunc(f); } } As far as my understanding of java method references goes, the Virtual Machine creates an object of an anonymous class when a method reference is used. Thus, caching the reference would create that object only once while the first approach creates it on each function call. Is this correct? Should method references that appear at hot positions in the code be cached or is the VM able to optimize this and make the caching superfluous? Is there a general best practice about this or is this highly VM-implemenation specific whether such caching is of any use?

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  • Validating a phone number in Android PreferenceScreen

    - by djechelon
    I have a PreferenceScreen in which the user is capable, if system can't autodetect it, to enter the device's phone number. I'm still learning this part of Android but I managed to understand a bit of PreferenceScreens by examples provided by Android SDK itself and a few tutorials. What I want is that the user can save the phone number only if null or valid, where by "valid" I mean running a generic validation logic (ie. an anonymous method that returns true or false, that can be reused in any possible situation*) or better, just to simplify things, ^(\+39)?3[0-9]{9}$ For now I have the following XML snip <EditTextPreference android:inputType="phone" android:key="@string/preference_phoneNo" android:selectAllOnFocus="true" android:singleLine="true" android:summary="@string/pref_phoneNumber_description" android:title="@string/pref_phoneNumber" /> and following code by courtesy of Eclipse New Activity wizard: private void setupSimplePreferencesScreen() { if (!isSimplePreferences(this)) { return; } addPreferencesFromResource(R.xml.pref_general); bindPreferenceSummaryToValue(findPreference(getString(R.string.preference_phoneNo))); } addPreferenceFromResource is supposed to load the XML node and add the preference to the screen, while binPreferenceSummaryToValue is supposed to make description text change when preference is updated. Just for sake of completeness for those who don't like code courtesy of the IDE, the second method is provided by Eclipse who also provides a private class in the code file that is /** * A preference value change listener that updates the preference's summary * to reflect its new value. */ In the general case, what should I do to perform validation logic before the preference gets saved when I click OK on the preference editor? Where is the validation logic to be put in a PreferenceScreen? *Aren't we all here to learn?

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  • A good(elegant) way to retrieve records with counts.

    - by user93422
    Context: ASP.NET MVC 2.0, C#, SQL Server 2007, IIS7 I have 'scheduledMeetings' table in the database. There is a one-to-many relationship: scheduledMeeting - meetingRegistration So that you could have 10 people registered for a meeting. meetingRegistration has fields Name, and Gender (for example). I have a "calendar view" on my site that shows all coming events, as well as gender count for each event. At the moment I use Linq to Sql to pull the data: var meetings = db.Meetings.Select( m => new { MeetingId = m.Id, Girls = m.Registrations.Count(r => r.Gender == 0), Boys = m.Registrations.Count(r=>r.Gender == 1) }); (actual query is half-a-page long) Because there is anonymous type use going on I cant extract it into a method (since I have several different flavors of calendar view, with different information on each, and I dont want to create new class for each). Any suggestions on how to improve this? Is database view is the answer? Or should I go ahead and create named-type? Any feedback/suggestions are welcome. My DataLayer is huge, I want to trim it, just dont know how. Pointers to a good reading would be good too.

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  • git on HTTP with gitolite and nginx

    - by Arnaud
    I am trying to setup a server where my git repo would be accessible with HTTP(S). I am using gitolite and nginx (and gitlab for web interface but I doubt it makes any difference). I have searched the whole afternoon and I think I'm stuck. I have think I have understood that nginx needs fcgiwrap to work with gitolite, so I tried several configurations, but none of them work. My repositories are at /home/git/repositories. Here's the three nginx configurations I have tried. 1: location ~ /git(/.*) { gzip off; root /usr/lib/git-core; fastcgi_pass unix:/var/run/fcgiwrap.socket; include /etc/nginx/fcgiwrap.conf; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME /usr/lib/git-core/git-http-backend; fastcgi_param DOCUMENT_ROOT /usr/lib/git-core/; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_NAME git-http-backend; fastcgi_param GIT_HTTP_EXPORT_ALL ""; fastcgi_param GIT_PROJECT_ROOT /home/git/repositories; fastcgi_param PATH_INFO $1; #fastcgi_param PATH_TRANSLATED $document_root$fastcgi_path_info; } Result: > git clone http://myservername/projectname.git test/ Cloning into test... fatal: http://myservername/projectname.git/info/refs not found: did you run git update-server-info on the server? and > git clone http://myservername/git/projectname.git test/ Cloning into test... error: The requested URL returned error: 502 while accessing http://myservername/git/projectname.git/info/refs fatal: HTTP request failed 2: location ~ /git(/.*) { fastcgi_pass localhost:9001; include /etc/nginx/fcgiwrap.conf; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME /usr/lib/git-core/git-http-backend; fastcgi_param GIT_HTTP_EXPORT_ALL ""; fastcgi_param GIT_PROJECT_ROOT /home/git/repositories; fastcgi_param PATH_INFO $1; } Result: > git clone http://myservername/projectname.git test/ Cloning into test... fatal: http://myservername/projectname.git/info/refs not found: did you run git update-server-info on the server? and > git clone http://myservername/git/projectname.git test/ Cloning into test... error: The requested URL returned error: 502 while accessing http://myservername/git/projectname.git/info/refs fatal: HTTP request failed 3: location ~ ^.*\.git/objects/([0-9a-f]+/[0-9a-f]+|pack/pack-[0-9a-f]+.(pack|idx))$ { root /home/git/repositories/; } location ~ ^.*\.git/(HEAD|info/refs|objects/info/.*|git-(upload|receive)-pack)$ { root /home/git/repositories; fastcgi_pass unix:/var/run/fcgiwrap.socket; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME /usr/lib/git-core/git-http-backend; fastcgi_param PATH_INFO $uri; fastcgi_param GIT_PROJECT_ROOT /home/git/repositories; include /etc/nginx/fcgiwrap.conf; } Result: > git clone http://myservername/projectname.git test/ Cloning into test... error: The requested URL returned error: 502 while accessing http://myservername/projectname.git/info/refs fatal: HTTP request failed and > git clone http://myservername/git/projectname.git test/ Cloning into test... error: The requested URL returned error: 502 while accessing http://myservername/git/projectname.git/info/refs fatal: HTTP request failed Also note that with any of those configurations, when I try to clone with a project name that actually doesn't exist, I get a 502 error. Does anyone already succeeded in doing this? What am I doing wrong? Thanks. UPDATE: nginx error log file said: 2012/04/05 17:34:50 [crit] 21335#0: *50 connect() to unix:/var/run/fcgiwrap.socket failed (13: Permission denied) while connecting to upstream, client: 192.168.12.201, server: myservername, request: "GET /git/oct_editor.git/info/refs HTTP/1.1", upstream: "fastcgi://unix:/var/run/fcgiwrap.socket:", host: "myservername" So I changed permissions for /var/run/fcgiwrap.socket, and now I have : > git clone http://myservername/git/projectname.git test/ Cloning into test... error: The requested URL returned error: 403 while accessing http://myservername/git/projectname.git/info/refs fatal: HTTP request failed Here is the error.log file I have now: 2012/04/05 17:36:52 [error] 21335#0: *78 FastCGI sent in stderr: "Cannot chdir to script directory (/usr/lib/git-core/git/projectname.git/info)" while reading response header from upstream, client: 192.168.12.201, server: myservername, request: "GET /git/projectname.git/info/refs HTTP/1.1", upstream: "fastcgi://unix:/var/run/fcgiwrap.socket:", host: "myservername" I keep on investigating.

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  • AppCmd returns error: Object 'SET' is not supported

    - by RHPT
    I am trying to set SSL Host Headers and Secure Site Bindings in IIS7. I followed the directions on this website http://www.digicert.com/ssl-support/ssl-host-headers-iis-7.htm (among others), but when I run the appcmd command mentioned, I get the error "Object 'SET' is not supported. Run 'appcmd.exe /?' to display supported objects". I have also tryed "appcmd site set" but it still returns the same error. What am I doing wrong? The server I am working on is Windows 2008 R2 x64, if that matters. Thank you.

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  • SQL 2008 Database tuning advisor won’t start

    - by Andrew Hancox
    For some reason I can't get DTA to connect to my development machine. It connects to a remote DB just fine but when I point it to my dev machine I get an error saying: Failed to initialize MSDB database for tuning (exit code: -1073741819). I'm pretty sure it's not a permissions issue since I've used profiler to capture what it's doing and all of the commands it's run so far look fine and are being run under my account which is associated with the sysadmin role, when I run them in sql management studio they go through fine. I'm pretty convinced that the problem is related to creating the objects in MSDB that are used by DTA but I tried creating these manually (I found scripts on the web) and it just seems to push the problem along the line slightly. I'm going out of my mind - have even tried reinstalling SQL but that's not fixed it. I'm using SQL 2008 with SP1 (10.0.2531) on windows server 2008 (patched up to date). SAVE ME!!!!!

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  • Exposing BL as WCF service

    - by Oren Schwartz
    I'm working on a middle-tier project which encapsulates the business logic (uses a DAL layer, and serves a web application server [ASP.net]) of a product deployed in a LAN. The BL serves as a bunch of services and data objects that are invoked upon user action. At present times, the DAL acts as a separate application whereas the BL uses it, but is consumed by the web application as a DLL. Both the DAL and the web application are deployed on different servers inside organization, and since the BL DLL is consumed by the web application, it resides in the same server. The worst thing about exposing the BL as a DLL is that we lost track with what we expose. Deployment is not such a big issue since mostly, product versions are deployed together. Would you recommend migrating from DLL to WCF service? if so, why ? Do you know anyone who had a similar experience ?

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  • Exposing BL as WCF service

    - by Oren Schwartz
    I'm working on a middle-tier project which encapsulates the business logic (uses a DAL layer, and serves a web application server [ASP.net]) of a product deployed in a LAN. The BL serves as a bunch of services and data objects that are invoked upon user action. At present times, the DAL acts as a separate application whereas the BL uses it, but is consumed by the web application as a DLL. Both the DAL and the web application are deployed on different servers inside organization, and since the BL DLL is consumed by the web application, it resides in the same server. The worst thing about exposing the BL as a DLL is that we lost track with what we expose. Deployment is not such a big issue since mostly, product versions are deployed together. Would you recommend migrating from DLL to WCF service? if so, why ? Do you know anyone who had a similar experience ? Thank you !

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  • Can't Delete Old Windows Directory

    - by David Mullin
    I got a new SSD drive for my computer, and have installed Windows on this drive. This left an old Windows directory on my old normal drive. I am now attempting to delete this old Windows directory, but am getting blocked by security. If I crawl down into each subdirectory, I can manually change the ownership and access rights for each file, but if I attempt to do it from the root directory, I get a "Failed to enumerate objects in the container. Access is denied" error. I have tried logging in as local Administrator, but this had the same effect. I figure that I am missing something stupid, but I just can't determine what it is.

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  • Active Directory, Linux, and User Private Groups

    - by larsks
    We're in the process of moving from NIS on our Linux systems to binding everything to Active Directory. The NIS environment follows the common standard used by many Linux distributions that a user's primary group is a group of the same name as the user (and of which the user is typically the only member). I have been informed that in the Active Directory environment, you may not have a group name with the same name as a user (specifically, that no two AD security objects may have the same name). This would seem to complicate the process of moving our group definitions into AD. It looks like we could maintain the NIS group information in AD using only POSIX attributes (e.g., not an actual AD security object), but that seems like a suboptimal fix (because we do really want to have the same view of group membership in both the Unix and AD worlds). Have you moved a large legacy NIS environment into Active Directory? How did you handle this situation?

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