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  • GNU Makefile: multiple outputs from single rule + preventing intermediate files from being deleted

    - by makesaurus
    This is sort of a continuation of question from link text. The problem is that there is a rule generating multiple outputs from a single input, and the command is time-consuming so we would prefer to avoid recomputation. Now there is an additional twist, that we want to keep files from being deleted as intermediate files, and rules involve wildcards to allow for parameters. The solution suggested was that we set up the following rule: file-a.out: program file.in ./program file.in file-a.out file-b.out file-c.out file-b.out: file-a.out @ file-c.out: file-b.out @ Then, calling make file-c.out creates both and we avoid issues with running make in parallel with -j switch. All fine so far. The problem is the following. Because the above solution sets up a chain in the DAG, make considers it differently; the files file-a.out and file-b.out are treated as intermediate files, and they by default get deleted as unnecessary as soon as file-c.out is ready. A way of avoiding that was mentioned somewhere here, and consists of adding file-a.out and file-b.out as dependencies of a target .SECONDARY, which keeps them from being deleted. Unfortunately, this does not solve my case because my rules use wildcard patters; specifically, my rules look more like this: file-a-%.out: program file.in ./program $* file.in file-a-$*.out file-b-$*.out file-c-$*.out file-b-%.out: file-a-%.out @ file-c-%.out: file-b-%.out @ so that one can pass a parameter that gets included in the file name, for example by running make file-c-12.out The solution that make documentation suggests is to add these as implicit rules to the list of dependencies of .PRECIOUS, thus keeping these files from being deleted. The solution with .PRECIOUS works, but it also prevents these files from being deleted when a rule fails and files are incomplete. Is there any other way to make this work?

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  • Qt: How to use QTimer to print a message to a QTextBrowser every 10 seconds?

    - by Aaron McKellar
    Hello, I have working at this for hours and cannot figure it out nor can I find any help online that works. Basically the gist of what I am trying to accomplish is to have a Qt GUI with a button and a QTextBrowser. When I push the button I want it to diplay a message and then keep printing this message every 10 seconds. I figured I would use QTimer because it makes sense to have a timer to diplay the message every 10 seconds. When I originally implemented this into my buttonClicked() SLOT it caused the program to freeze. I looked online for a solution and found QApplication::processEvents(). So basically in my function I had something like this: while(1) { QTimer *timer; connect(...) //omitted parameters for this example timer.start(10000); ui->diplay->append("Message"); while(timer.isActive()) { QApplication::processEvents() } } I figured it would break out of the timer.isActive() while loop but it won't it simply stays in there. So I figured this is a threading issue. So I figured out how to use QThreads but I still can't get it to work. Basically when I create a thread with a timer on it and the thread tells the timer to start, the program closes and the console says "The program has unexpectedly finished". There has to be an easy way to do this but my track record with Qt has always been that th

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  • CakePHP dropping session between pages

    - by DavidYell
    Hi, I have an application with multiple regions and various incoming links. The premise, well it worked before, is that in the app_controller, I break out these incoming links and set them in the session. So I have a huge beforeFilter() in my *app_controller* which catches these and sets two variables in the session. Viewing.region and Search.engine, no problem. The problem arises that the session does not seem to be persistant across page requests. So for example, going to /reviews/write (userReviews/add) should have a session available which was set when the user arrived at the site. Although it seems to have vanished! It would appear that unless $this-params is caught explicitly in the *app_controller* and a session variable written, it does not exist on other pages. So far I have tried, swapping between storing session in 'cake' and 'php' both seem to exhibit the same behaviour. I use 'php' as a default. My Session.timeout is '120', Session.checkAgent is False and Security.level is 'low'. All of which should give enough leniency to the framework to allow sessions the most room to live! I'm a bit stumped as to why the session seems to be either recreated or blanked when a new page is being requested. I have commented out the requestAction() calls to make sure that isn't confusing the session request object also, which doesn't seem to make a difference. Any help would be great, as I don't have to have to recode the site to pass all the various variables via parameters in the url, as that would suck, and it's worked before, thus switching on $this-Session-read('Viewing.region') in all my code!

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  • Call instance method with objc_msgSend

    - by user772349
    I'm trying to use the objc_msgSend method to call some method dynamically. Say I want call some method in Class B from Class A and there are two methods in class B like: - (void) instanceTestWithStr1:(NSString *)str1 str2:(NSString *)str1; + (void) methodTestWithStr1:(NSString *)str1 str2:(NSString *)str1; And I can call the class method like this in Class A successfully: objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("ClassB"), sel_registerName("methodTestWithStr1:str2:"), @"111", @"222"); And I can call the instance method like this in Class A successfully as well: objc_msgSend([[objc_getClass("ClassB") alloc] init], sel_registerName("instanceTestWithStr1:str2:"), @"111", @"222"); But the thing is to get a instance of Class B I have to call "initWithXXXXX:XXXXXX:XXXXXX" instead of "init" so that to pass some necessary parameters to class B to do the init stuff. So I stored a instance of ClassB in class A as variable: self.classBInstance = [[ClassB alloc] initWithXXXXX:XXXXXX:XXXXXX]; And then I call the method like this (successfully): The problem is, I want to call a method by simply applying the classname and the method sel like "ClassName" and "SEL" and then call it dynamically: If it's a class method. then call it like: objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("ClassName"), sel_registerName("SEL")); If it's a instance method, find the existing class instance variable in the calling class then: objc_msgSend([self.classInstance, sel_registerName("SEL")); So I want to know if there is any way to: Check if a class has a given method (I found "responseToSelector" will be the one) Check if a given method in class method or instance method (maybe can use responseToSelector as well) Check if a class has a instance variable of a given class So I can call a instance method like: objc_msgSend(objc_getClassInstance(self, "ClassB"), sel_registerName("SEL"));

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  • New to JEE; architecture suggestions for a service/daemon?

    - by Kate
    I am brand new to the JEE world. As an exercise to try and familiarize myself with JEE, I'm trying to create a tiered web-app, but I'm getting a little stuck on what the best way is to spin up a service in the background that does work. Parameters of the service: It must open and hold a socket connection and receive information from the connected server. There is a 1-to-1 correlation between a user and a new socket connection. So the idea is the user presses a button on the web-page, and somewhere on the server a socket connection is opened. For the remainder of the users session (or until the user presses some sort of disconnect button) the socket remains open and pushes received information to some sort of centralized store that servlets can query and return to the user via AJAX. Is there a JEE type way to handle this situation? Naturally what I would think to do is to just write a Java application that listens on a port that the servlets can connect to and spawns new threads that open these sockets, but that seems very ad-hoc to me. (PS: I am also new to Stack Overflow, so forgive me if it takes me some time to figure the site out!)

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  • .NET: bool vs enum as a method parameter

    - by Julien Lebosquain
    Each time I'm writing a method that takes a boolean parameter representing an option, I find myself thinking: "should I replace this by an enum which would make reading the method calls much easier?". Consider the following with an object that takes a parameter telling whether the implementation should use its thread-safe version or not (I'm not asking here if this way of doing this is good design or not, only the use of the boolean): public void CreateSomeObject(bool makeThreadSafe); CreateSomeObject(true); When the call is next to the declaration the purpose of the parameter seems of course obvious. When it's in some third party library you barely know, it's harder to immediately see what the code does, compared to: public enum CreationOptions { None, MakeThreadSafe } public void CreateSomeObject(CreationOptions options); CreateSomeObject(CreationOptions.MakeThreadSafe); which describes the intent far better. Things get worse when there's two boolean parameters representing options. See what happened to ObjectContext.SaveChanges(bool) between Framework 3.5 and 4.0. It has been obsoleted because a second option has been introduced and the whole thing has been converted to an enum. While it seems obvious to use an enumeration when there's three elements or more, what's your opinion and experiences about using an enum instead a boolean in these specific cases?

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  • How to access property in sub method after it runs?

    - by Warren
    I'm having a hard time working this one out but I think it should be pretty simple. Basically, I have this method which talks to a webservice and I need to return some data from the sub method, the "authCode". What am I doing wrong? How can I get the authCode out of the manager, or can I create a block or something to to ensure that the manager block runs first? Am I even using the right words - blocks, sub methods??? Please help :) - (NSString *)getAuthCodeEXAMPLE { __block NSString *returnString = @"nothing yet!"; NSURL *baseURL = [NSURL URLWithString:BaseURLString]; NSDictionary *parametersGetAuthCode = @{@"req": @"getauth"}; AFHTTPSessionManager *manager = [[AFHTTPSessionManager alloc] initWithBaseURL:baseURL]; manager.responseSerializer = [AFJSONResponseSerializer serializer]; [manager POST:APIscript parameters:parametersGetAuthCode success:^(NSURLSessionDataTask *task, id responseObject) { if ([task.response isKindOfClass:[NSHTTPURLResponse class]]) { NSHTTPURLResponse *r = (NSHTTPURLResponse *)task.response; if ([r statusCode] == 200) { self.returnedData = responseObject; NSString *authCode = [self.returnedData authcode]; NSLog(@"Authcode: %@", authCode); returnString = authCode; } } } failure:^(NSURLSessionDataTask *task, NSError *error) { UIAlertView *alertView = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Error" message:[error localizedDescription] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"Ok" otherButtonTitles:nil]; [alertView show]; }]; //this currently returns "nothing yet!" return returnString; }

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  • Emailing a fixed document through Outlook

    - by MoominTroll
    I've added functionality to an application that prints out a bunch of information to a FixedDOcument and sends this off to the printer. This works just fine, however the request is that there be an in application function that emails the document using OUtlook and its here that I come unstuck. I'd very much like to just reuse the class that makes the fixed document for printing to generate the text for email, but I'm struggling to do this. I've tried the following... Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook.Application oApp = new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook.Application(); MailItem email = (MailItem)(oApp.CreateItem(OlItemType.olMailItem)); email.Recipients.Add("[email protected]"); email.Subject = "Hello"; email.Body = "TEST"; FixedDocument doc = CreateReport(); //make my fixed document //this doesn't work, and the parameters it takes suggest it never will email.Attachments.Add(doc, OlAttachmentType.olByValue, 1, null); email.Send(); I can't help but think I'm on completely the wrong tack here, but I don't really want to have to write a bunch of new text formatting (since email.Body only takes a string) when I've already got the content formatted how I want it. Note that the content is all textual, so I don't really care if it gets sent as an attachment or as text in the emails body. Ideally if its sent as an attachment it won't be saved anywhere permanently. Any pointers?

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  • .Net SQL Parameter for String List Problem

    - by JK
    I am writing a C# program in which I send a query to SQL Server to be processed and a dataset returns. I am using parameters to pass information to the query before it is sent to SQL server. This works fine except in the situation below. The query looks like this: reportQuery = " Select * From tableName Where Account_Number in (@AccountNum); and Account_Date = @AccountDate "; The AccountDate parameter works find but not the AccountNum parameter. I need the final query to execute like this: Select * From tableName Where Account_Number in ('AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'); and Account_Date = '1-Jan-2010' The problem is that I have these account numbers (actually text) in a C# string list. To feed it to the parameter, I have been declaring the parameter as a string. I turn the list into one string and feed it to the parameter. I think the problem is that I am feeding the paramater this: "'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'" when it wants this 'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123' How do I get the string list into the query using a parameter and have it execute as shown above? This is how I am declaring and assigning the parameter. SqlParameter AccountNumsParam = new SqlParameter(); AccountNumsParam.ParameterName = "@AccountNums"; AccountNumsParam.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.NVarChar; AccountNumsParam.Value = AccountNumsString; FYI, AccountNumString == "'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'"

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  • Passing the Class<T> in java of a generic list?

    - by Rob Stevenson-Leggett
    I have a method for reading JSON from a service, I'm using Gson to do my serialization and have written the following method using type parameters. public T getDeserializedJSON(Class<T> aClass,String url) { Reader r = getJSONDataAsReader(url); Gson gson = new Gson(); return gson.fromJson(r, aClass); } I'm consuming json which returns just an array of a type e.g. [ { "prop":"value" } { "prop":"value" } ] I have a java class which maps to this object let's call it MyClass. However to use my method I need to do this: RestClient<ArrayList<MyClass>> restClient = new RestClient<ArrayList<MyClass>>(); ArrayList<MyClass> results = restClient.getDeserializedJSON(ArrayList<MyClass>.class, url); However, I can't figure out the syntax to do it. Passing just ArrayList.class doesn't work. So is there a way I can get rid of the Class parameter or how do I get the class of the ArrayList of MyClass?

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  • EGODatabase does not retain inserted record

    - by user135775
    Hi Guy! I'm using EGODatabase to process my data. When I tried to insert data into the database which I created with Base and attached to the project, the data that was inserted programmatically will not show up when I restart my app.However the data inserted manually using Base will show up just fine. Following is the code for inserting data into the database: NSString *path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"Database" ofType:@"db"]; db = [EGODatabase databaseWithPath:path]; if ([db open]) { NSLog(@"Database is opened successfully!"); } else { NSLog(@"Database is failed to open!"); } NSArray *params = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:[aFeed feedID], [aFeed title], nil]; [db executeUpdate:@"Insert INTO Feed (FeedID, Title) VALUES (?, ?)" parameters:params]; EGODatabaseResult *results = [db executeQuery:@"SELECT * FROM Feed"]; for ( EGODatabaseRow * row in results) { NSLog(@"ID: %@ Title: %@", [row stringForColumn:@"FeedID"], [row stringForColumn:@"Title"]); } I appreciate if anyone can share me a working sample code for EGODatabase. I'm using EGODatabase because I might have multi-threading code that write to the database. Thank in advance.

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  • Passing HTML form data in the URL on local machine (file://)

    - by atzz
    Hi, I'm building a small HTML/JS application for primary use on local machine (i.e. everything is accessed via file:// protocol, though maybe in the future it will be hosted on a server within intranet). I'm trying to make a form with method="get" and action="target.html", in the hope that the browser will put form data in the URL (like, file://<path>/target.html?param1=aaa&param2=bbb). However, it's not happening (target.html opens fine, but no parameters is passed). What am I doing wrong? Is it possible to use forms over file:// at all? I can always build the url manually (via JS), but being lazy I'd prefer the browser do it for me. ;) Here is my sample form: <form name='config' action="test_form.html" method="get" enctype="application/x-www-form-urlencoded"> <input type="text" name="param1"> <input type="text" name="param2"> <input type="submit" value="Go"> </form>

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  • Ant Junit tests are running much slower via ant than via IDE - what to look at?

    - by Alex B
    I am running my junit tests via ant and they are running substantially slower than via the IDE. My ant call is: <junit fork="yes" forkmode="once" printsummary="off"> <classpath refid="test.classpath"/> <formatter type="brief" usefile="false"/> <batchtest todir="${test.results.dir}/xml"> <formatter type="xml"/> <fileset dir="src" includes="**/*Test.java" /> </batchtest> </junit> The same test that runs in near instantaneously in my IDE (0.067s) takes 4.632s when run through Ant. In the past, I've been able to speed up test problems like this by using the junit fork parameter but this doesn't seem to be helping in this case. What properties or parameters can I look at to speed up these tests? More info: I am using the reported time from the IDE vs. the time that the junit task outputs. This is not the sum total time reported at the end of the ant run. So, bizarrely, this problem has resolved itself. What could have caused this problem? The system runs on a local disk so that is not the problem.

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  • JSF getter methods called BEFORE beforePhase fires

    - by Bill Leeper
    I got a recommendation to put all data lookups in the beforePhase for a given page, however, now that I am doing some deeper analysis it appears that some getter methods are being called before the beforePhase is fired. It became very obvious when I added support for a url parameter and I was getting NPEs on objects that are initialized in the beforePhase call. Any thoughts? Something I have set wrong. I have this in my JSP page: <f:view beforePhase="#{someController.beforePhaseSummary}"> That is only the 5th line in the JSP file and is right after the taglibs. Here is the code that is in the beforePhaseSummary method: public void beforePhaseSummary(PhaseEvent event) { logger.debug("Fired Before Phase Summary: " + event.getPhaseId()); if (event.getPhaseId() == PhaseId.RENDER_RESPONSE) { HttpServletRequest request = (HttpServletRequest)FacesContext.getCurrentInstance().getExternalContext().getRequest(); if (request.getParameter("application_id") != null) { loadApplication(Long.parseLong(request.getParameter("application_id"))); } /* Do data fetches here */ } } The logging output above indicates that an event is fired. The servlet request is used to capture the url parameters. The data fetches gather data. However, the logging output is below: 2010-04-23 13:44:46,968 [http-8080-4] DEBUG ...SomeController 61 - Get Permit 2010-04-23 13:44:46,968 [http-8080-4] DEBUG ...SomeController 107 - Getting UnsubmittedCount 2010-04-23 13:44:46,984 [http-8080-4] DEBUG ...SomeController 61 - Get Permit 2010-04-23 13:44:47,031 [http-8080-4] DEBUG ...SomeController 133 - Fired Before Phase Summary: RENDER_RESPONSE(6) The logs indicate 2 calls to the getPermit method and one to getUnsubmittedCount before the beforePhase is fired.

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  • Operator overloading in generic struct: can I create overloads for specific kinds(?) of generic?

    - by Carson Myers
    I'm defining physical units in C#, using generic structs, and it was going okay until I got the error: One of the parameters of a binary operator must be the containing type when trying to overload the mathematical operators so that they convert between different units. So, I have something like this: public interface ScalarUnit { } public class Duration : ScalarUnit { } public struct Scalar<T> where T : ScalarUnit { public readonly double Value; public Scalar(double Value) { this.Value = Value; } public static implicit operator double(Scalar<T> Value) { return Value.Value; } } public interface VectorUnit { } public class Displacement : VectorUnit { } public class Velocity : VectorUnit { } public struct Vector<T> where T : VectorUnit { #... public static Vector<Velocity> operator /(Vector<Displacement> v1, Scalar<Duration> v2) { return new Vector<Velocity>(v1.Magnitude / v2, v1.Direction); } } There aren't any errors for the + and - operators, where I'm just working on a Vector<T>, but when I substitute a unit for T, suddenly it doesn't like it. Is there a way to make this work? I figured it would work, since Displacement implements the VectorUnit interface, and I have where T : VectorUnit in the struct header. Am I at least on the right track here? I'm new to C# so I have difficulty understanding what's going on sometimes.

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  • Common methods/implementation across multiple WCF Services

    - by Rob
    I'm looking at implementing some WCF Services as part of an API for 3rd parties to access data within a product I work on. There are currently a set of services exposed as "classic" .net Web Services and I need to emulate the behaviour of these, at least in part. The existing services all have an AcquireAuthenticationToken method that takes a set of parameters (username, password, etc) and return a session token (represented as a GUID), which is then passed in on calls to any other method (There's also a ReleaseAuthenticationToken method, no guesses needed as to what that does!). What I want to do is implement multiple WCF services, such as: ProductData UserData and have both of these services share a common implementation of Acquire/Release. From the base project that is created by VS2k8, it would appear I will start with, per service: public class ServiceName : IServiceName { } public interface IServiceName { } Therefore my questions would be: Will WCF tolerate me adding a base class to this, public class ServiceName : ServiceBase, IServiceName, or does the fact that there's an interface involved mean that won't work? If "No it won't work" to Question 1, could I change IServiceName so it extends another interface, IServiceBase, thus forcing the presence of Acquire/Release methods, but then having to supply the implementation in each service. Are 1 and 2 both really bad ideas and there's actually a much better solution that, knowing next to nothing about WCF, I just haven't thought of?

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  • Disable a control inside a gridview

    - by saeed talaee
    Hi i want to disable link-bottoms control in a grid view with the condition of a special value . for example if the count for a row become 0 ,the link bottom for that row should be invisible . what should i do? where should i write the code? here is cod that i write in row command grid view but it works only of i push the link bottom!! but i want to apply this cod to my page before loading. please guide me int idx = Convert.ToInt32(e.CommandArgument); idx = idx - (GridView1.PageSize * GridView1.PageIndex); int ID = (int)GridView1.DataKeys[idx].Value; string connStr = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["dbconn"].ConnectionString; SqlConnection sqlconn = new SqlConnection(connStr); SqlCommand sqlcmd = new SqlCommand(); sqlcmd = new SqlCommand("SELECT count(ID) FROM ReviwerArticle where ArticleID=@ArticleID", sqlconn); sqlcmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ArticleID", ID); sqlconn.Open(); int count = ((int)sqlcmd.ExecuteScalar()); sqlconn.Close(); if (count == 0) { ((LinkButton)GridView1.Rows[idx].Cells[0].FindControl("LinkButton4") as LinkButton).Visible = false; }

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  • How do I handle freeing unmanaged structures in C# on application close?

    - by LostKaleb
    I have a C# project in which i use several unmanaged C++ functions. More so, I also have static IntPtr that I use as parameters for those functions. I know that whenever I use them, I should implement IDisposable in that class and use a destructor to invoke the Dispose method, where I free the used IntPtr, as is said in the MSDN page. public void Dispose() { Dispose(true); GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } private void Dispose(bool disposing) { // Check to see if Dispose has already been called. if (!this.disposed) { if (disposing) { component.Dispose(); } CloseHandle(m_InstanceHandle); m_InstanceHandle = IntPtr.Zero; disposed = true; } } [System.Runtime.InteropServices.DllImport("Kernel32")] private extern static Boolean CloseHandle(IntPtr handle); However, when I terminate the application, I'm still left with a hanging process in TaskManager. I believe that it must be related to the used of the MarshalAs instruction in my structures: [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential, CharSet = CharSet.Ansi)] public struct SipxAudioCodec { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst=32)] public string CodecName; public SipxAudioBandwidth Bandwidth; public int PayloadType; } When I create such a structure should I also be careful to free the space it allocs using a destructor? [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential, CharSet = CharSet.Ansi)] public struct SipxAudioCodec { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst=32)] public string CodecName; public SipxAudioBandwidth Bandwidth; public int PayloadType; ~SipxAudioCodec() { Marshal.FreeGlobal(something...); } } Thanks in advance!

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  • Query with UDF works in Access but gives Undefined function in expression (Err 3085) in Excel

    - by ronwest
    I have an Access table with a date/time field. I wanted to make a composite Key field out of the date/time field and 3 other text fields in the same format as the matching Key field in another database. So I concatenated the 3 text fields and wrote a User-Defined-Function in a Module to output the date field as a string in the format "YYYYMMDD". Public Function YYYYMMDD(dteDate As Date) As String YYYYMMDD = Format(dteDate, "YYYYMMDD") End Function I can then successfully run my queries in Access and it all works fine. But when I set up some DAO code in Excel and try to run the query that works fine within Access... db.Execute "qryMake_tblValsDailyAccount" ...Excel gives me the "Undefined function in expression. (Error 3085)" error. To me this is a bug in Excel and/or Access, because the (Excel) client shouldn't need to know anything about the internal calculations that normally take place perfectly in the (Access) server when in isolation. Excel should send the querydef (name with no parameters) to the server, let the server do its work then receive the answers. Why does it need to get involved with a function internal to the server? Does anyone know a way around this?

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  • Spring Controller redirect to another page

    - by user1386375
    Hey I got the following problem. This is the content of the jspx file: function postSMTH() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: document.getElementById("urltxt").value, data: parameters, }); } <input type="hidden" value="${pageContext.request.contextPath}/foo/foo2/foodat" name="urltxt" id="urltxt"/> <div class="foodat"><a href="javascript:postSMTH();"><spring:message code="foo_foo2_foodat_text" text="FOODAT"/></a></div> So if I push the submit button, the postSMTH function is called and the ajax object is paste to the Controller which look like this: @Controller @RequestMapping(value="/foo") public class FooController { .............. @RequestMapping(value="/foo2", method=RequestMethod.POST) public String homePOST(HttpServletRequest request) { ........ } @RequestMapping(value="/foo2", method=RequestMethod.GET) public String homeGET(HttpServletRequest request) { ........ } @RequestMapping(value="/foo2/foodat", method=RequestMethod.POST) public String doTHAT(HttpServletRequest request) { // check authorization Map fooMap = request.getParameterMap(); // do something in the Database, depending on the paramMap return "redirect:/foo/foo1"; } } Everything is working fine regarding the Database, but the Problem is, that the redirect at the end DOESN'T work. It just stays at the page foo2. I'm new to Spring, maybe its a little mistake somewhere. I just cant make it out by myself. Would be nice if someone would have some hint. Thanks

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  • Major JQuery bug on IE not reproducible - What can i do in this situation to solve this bug?

    - by ming yeow
    I am hoping to get some help on this issue. Some users on IE have been reporting this javascript issue, but I have been unable to re-produce it. In essence, for some class of windows IE users, the game doesn't work (or $.ajax() is not working). What I know: I swapped out an ajax call (ajax_init_trainer) and used a standard link with some request parameters to do the initialization and ppl seemed to get passed the problem until they hit the next ajax call. I read somewhere that IE does crazy caching so you need to make the urls unique, which is why i added the _requestno parameter. However, setting the cache:false is said to also do this. This didn't fix it for someone who was complaining. function done(res, status) { var data = JSON.parse(res.responseText); hide_loading(); if (status == "success") { window.location.href="/bamo/battle/?{{ fb_sig}}"; } else { display_alert("Problem!",data.msg,$("#notifications")); } }; $(".monster_select_class").click(function() { $(this).attr("src","{{MEDIA_URL}}/bamo/button_select_click.png"); monster_class = $(this).attr("monster_class"); monster_type = $(this).attr("monster_type"); ajax_init_trainer(monster_class,monster_type); }); function ajax_init_trainer(trainer_class,monster_type) { var data = {trainer_class:trainer_class,monster_type:monster_type}; var d = new Date(); var args = { type:"POST",url:"/bamo/api/init_trainer/?_requestno="+d.getTime(),data:data,contentType:"application/json;", dataType: "json",cache:false,complete:done}; $.ajax(args); return false; };

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  • Multiple Foreign keys to a single table and single key pointing to more than one table

    - by user1216775
    I need some suggestions from the database design experts here. I have around six foreign keys into a single table (defect) which all point to primary key in user table. It is like: defect (.....,assigned_to,created_by,updated_by,closed_by...) If I want to get information about the defect I can make six joins. Do we have any better way to do it? Another one is I have a states table which can store one of the user-defined set of values. I have defect table and task table and I want both of these tables to share the common state table (New, In Progress etc.). So I created: task (.....,state_id,type_id,.....) defect(.....,state_id,type_id,...) state(state_id,state_name,...) importance(imp_id,imp_name,...) There are many such common attributes along with state like importance(normal, urgent etc), priority etc. And for all of them I want to use same table. I am keeping one flag in each of the tables to differentiate task and defect. What is the best solution in such a case? If somebody is using this application in health domain, they would like to assign different types, states, importances for their defect or tasks. Moreover when a user selects any project I want to display all the types,states etc under configuration parameters section.

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  • User submitted content filtering

    - by Jim
    Hey all, Does anyone have any ideas on what could be used as a way to filter untrustworthy user submitted content? Take Yelp for instance, they would need to prevent competitors writing business reviews on their competitors. They would need to prevent business owners favourably reviewing their own business, or forcing friends/family to do so. They would need to prevent poor quality reviews from affecting a businesses rating and so on. I can't think what they might use to do this: Prevent multiple users from the same IP reviewing certain things Prevent business owners reviewing their own business (maybe even other businesses in the same categories as their own?) Somehow determine what a review is about and what the actual intentions behind it are Other than the first and second points, I can't think of any clever/easy way to filter potentially harmful reviews from being made available, other than a human doing it. Obviously for a site the size of Yelp this wouldn't be feasible, so what parameters could they take into consideration? Even with human intervention, how would anyone know it was the owners best buddy writing a fake review without knowing the people? I'm using this as an example in a larger study on the subject of filtering user content automatically. Does anyone have any ideas how these systems may work and what they take into consideration? Thanks!

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  • DynamicContent.html: Write a JavaScript in an HTML document that can change the content of an HTML e

    - by A sw A
    ShowHide.html: Write a JavaScript in an HTML document that displays an image and allows the user to toggle the image between appearing and not appearing in the document. Place your image in a (division) tag that has a style attribute. “style.visibility” can take two values: “visible” and “hidden”. The document has a button called “Toggle Image”, which calls the toggle function upon the event “onclick”. DynamicColors.html: Write a JavaScript in an HTML document that changes the background and foreground colors of the body of a document according to the user input. The document has two input texts: background color and foreground color. The colors change when the event “onchange” occurs as you type in the text input and the event handler is called. Your event handler takes two parameters: “where”, and “newColor”. To change the document color and background color you need to change the elements document.body.style.color and document.body.style.backgroundColor. Available colors are: black, silver, gray, white, maroon, red, purple, fuchsia, green, lime, olive, yellow, navy, blue, teal, and aqua. DynamicContent.html: Write a JavaScript in an HTML document that can change the content of an HTML element (a help box). The content of an element is accessed through its “value” property. The content of a help box can change depending on the placement of the mouse cursor. When the cursor is placed over a particular input field (“onmouseover” event), the help box can display advice on how the field is to be filled. When the cursor is moved away from the input field (“onmouseout” event), the help box content changes to simply indicate that assistance is available. Your messages are stored in an array of strings.

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  • problem using 'as_json' in my model and 'render :json' => in my controller (rails)

    - by patrick
    Hi everyone. I am trying to create a unique json data structure, and I have run into a problem that I can't seem to figure out. In my controller, I am doing: favorite_ids = Favorites.all.map(&:photo_id) data = { :albums => PhotoAlbum.all.to_json, :photos => Photo.all.to_json(:favorite => lambda {|photo| favorite_ids.include?(photo.id)}) } render :json => data and in my model: def as_json(options = {}) { :name => self.name, :favorite => options[:favorite].is_a?(Proc) ? options[:favorite].call(self) : options[:favorite] } end The problem is, rails encodes the values of 'photos' & 'albums' (in my data hash) as JSON twice, and this breaks everything... The only way I could get this to work is if I call 'as_json' instead of 'to_json': data = { :albums => PhotoAlbum.all.as_json, :photos => Photo.all.as_json(:favorite => lambda {|photo| favorite_ids.include?(photo.id)}) } However, when I do this, my :favorite = lambda option no longer makes it into the model's as_json method.......... So, I either need a way to tell 'render :json' not to encode the values of the hash so I can use 'to_json' on the values myself, or I need a way to get the parameters passed into 'as_json' to actually show up there....... I hope someone here can help... Thanks!

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