Search Results

Search found 35561 results on 1423 pages for 'value'.

Page 318/1423 | < Previous Page | 314 315 316 317 318 319 320 321 322 323 324 325  | Next Page >

  • .NET ValidationRule problem

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

    Read the article

  • Pass a variable into a trigger

    - by Codesleuth
    I have a trigger which deals with some data for logging purposes like so: CREATE TRIGGER trgDataUpdated ON tblData FOR UPDATE AS BEGIN INSERT INTO tblLog ( ParentID, OldValue, NewValue, UserID ) SELECT deleted.ParentID, deleted.Value, inserted.Value, @intUserID -- how can I pass this in? FROM inserted INNER JOIN deleted ON inserted.ID = deleted.ID END How can I pass in the variable @intUserID into the above trigger, as in the following code: DECLARE @intUserID int SET @intUserID = 10 UPDATE tblData SET Value = @x PS: I know I can't literally pass in @intUserID to the trigger, it was just used for illustration purposes.

    Read the article

  • PHP Flatten Array with multiple leaf nodes

    - by tafaju
    What is the best way to flatten an array with multiple leaf nodes so that each full path to leaf is a distinct return? array("Object"=>array("Properties"=>array(1, 2))); to yield Object.Properties.1 Object.Properties.2 I'm able to flatten to Object.Properties.1 but 2 does not get processed with recursive function: function flattenArray($prefix, $array) { $result = array(); foreach ($array as $key => $value) { if (is_array($value)) $result = array_merge($result, flattenArray($prefix . $key . '.', $value)); else $result[$prefix . $key] = $value; } return $result; } I presume top down will not work when anticipating multiple leaf nodes, so either need some type of bottom up processing or a way to copy array for each leaf and process (althought that seems completely inefficient)

    Read the article

  • what is the easiest way to do this function in c# ?

    - by From.ME.to.YOU
    Hello let say that we have an array [5,5] 01,02,03,04,05 06,07,08,09,10 11,12,13,14,15 16,17,18,19,20 21,22,23,24,25 the user should send 2 values to the function (start,searchFOR) for example (13,25) the function should search for that value in this way 07,08,09 12, ,14 17,18,19 if the value is n't found in this level it will goes a level higher 01,02,03,04,05 06, , , ,10 11, , , ,15 16, , , ,20 21,22,23,24,25 if the array is bigger than this and the value didn't found it will go to a level higher Thanks for your help

    Read the article

  • Zend Framework Custom Validation Class Error Message

    - by remlabm
    The validation fails as it should but does not return the error message. $form->addElement('text', 'phone_number', array( 'required' => true, 'validators' => array( array('NotEmpty', true, array('messages' => 'Enter a valid Phone Number')), array('regex', false, array('pattern' => '/\([0-9]{3}\)\s[0-9]{3}-[0-9]{4}/', 'messages' => 'Enter a valid Phone Number' )), 'CheckPhoneNumber'), ), )); Custom Class: class Custom_Validators_CheckPhoneNumber extends Zend_Validate_Abstract{ const IN_USE = 'inUse'; protected $_messageTemplates = array( self::IN_USE => "'%value%' is currently in use" ); public function isValid($value) { $this->_setValue($value); $user_check = Users::getActive(preg_replace("/[^0-9]/", "", $value)); if($user_check->id){ $this->_error(self::IN_USE); return false; } return true; } } Just fails does not give the "IN_USE" error.

    Read the article

  • I need to Loop an a formula with the Offset function until the cell is blank

    - by CEMG
    I need to Loop the formula below until Column "B" which contains dates is empty. I am stuck and I just can't seem to write the VBA Code to do the Loop until there is no more Dates in Column "B". The formula is smoothing out the yields by using those dates that have a yield. I hope anyone would be able to help me. Thanks in advance A B C D 5 Factor Date Yield Input 6 3 May-10 .25 7 1 Jun-10 8 2 Jul-10 9 3 Aug-10 0.2000 10 1 Sep-10 11 2 Oct-10 12 3 Nov-10 0.2418 13 1 Dec-10 14 2 Jan-11 15 3 Feb-11 0.3156 16 1 Mar-11 17 2 Apr-11 . Sub IsNumeric() 'IF(ISNUMBER(C6),C6, If Application.IsNumber(range("c6").Value) Then range("d6").Value = range("c6") 'IF(C6<C5,((OFFSET(C6,2,0)-OFFSET(C6,-1,0))*A6/3+OFFSET(C6,-1,0)), If range("c6").Select < range("c5").Select Then range("d6").Value = range("c6").Offset(2, 0).Select - range("c6").Offset(-1, 0).Select * (range("a6").Select / 3) + range("c6").Offset(-1, 0).Select 'IF(C6<>C7,((OFFSET(C6,1,0)-OFFSET(C6,-2,0))*(A6/3)+OFFSET(C6,-2,0)),""))) If range("c6").Select <> range("c7").Select Then range("d6").Value = (range("c6").Offset(1, 0).Select) - range("c6").Offset(-2, 0).Select * (range("a6").Select / 3) + range("c6").Offset(-2, 0).Select Else range("d6").Value = "" End If End If End If End Sub

    Read the article

  • Create a buffered image from rgb pixel values

    - by Jeff Storey
    I have an integer array of RGB pixels that looks something like: pixels[0] = <rgb-value of pixel(0,0)> pixels[1] = <rgb-value of pixel(1,0)> pixels[2] = <rgb-value of pixel(2,0)> pixels[3] = <rgb-value of pixel(0,1)> ...etc... And I'm trying to create a BufferedImage from it. I tried the following: BufferedImage img = new BufferedImage(width, height, BufferedImage.TYPE_INT_RGB); img.getRaster().setPixels(0, 0, width, height, pixels); But the resulting image has problems with the color bands. The image is unclear and there are diagonal and horizontal lines through it. What is the proper way to initialize the image with the rgb values? thanks, Jeff

    Read the article

  • J2EE: Default values for custom tag attributes

    - by Nick
    So according to Sun's J2EE documentation (http://docs.sun.com/app/docs/doc/819-3669/bnani?l=en&a=view), "If a tag attribute is not required, a tag handler should provide a default value." My question is how in the hell do I define a default value as per the documentation's description. Here's the code: <%@ attribute name="visible" required="false" type="java.lang.Boolean" %> <c:if test="${visible}"> My Tag Contents Here </c:if> Obviously, this tag won't compile because it's lacking the tag directive and the core library import. My point is that I want the "visible" property to default to TRUE. The "tag attribute is not required," so the "tag handler should provide a default value." I want to provide a default value, so what am I missing? Any help is greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Insert into a generic dictionary with possibility of duplicate keys?

    - by Chris Clark
    Is there any reason to favor one of these approaches over the other when inserting into a generic dictionary with the possibility of a key conflict? I'm building an in-memory version of a static collection so in the case of a conflict it doesn't matter whether the old or new value is used. If Not mySettings.ContainsKey(key) Then mySettings.Add(key, Value) End If Versus mySettings(key) = Value And then of course there is this, which is obviously not the right approach: Try mySettings.Add(key, Value) Catch End Try Clearly the big difference here is that the first and second approaches actually do different things, but in my case it doesn't matter. It seems that the second approach is cleaner, but I'm curious if any of you .net gurus have any deeper insight. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Creating PowerShell Automatic Variables from C#

    - by Uros Calakovic
    I trying to make automatic variables available to Excel VBA (like ActiveSheet or ActiveCell) also available to PowerShell as 'automatic variables'. PowerShell engine is hosted in an Excel VSTO add-in and Excel.Application is available to it as Globals.ThisAddin.Application. I found this thread here on StackOverflow and started created PSVariable derived classes like: public class ActiveCell : PSVariable { public ActiveCell(string name) : base(name) { } public override object Value { get { return Globals.ThisAddIn.Application.ActiveCell; } } } public class ActiveSheet : PSVariable { public ActiveSheet(string name) : base(name) { } public override object Value { get { return Globals.ThisAddIn.Application.ActiveSheet; } } } and adding their instances to the current POwerShell session: runspace.SessionStateProxy.PSVariable.Set(new ActiveCell("ActiveCell")); runspace.SessionStateProxy.PSVariable.Set(new ActiveSheet("ActiveSheet")); This works and I am able to use those variables from PowerShell as $ActiveCell and $ActiveSheet (their value change as Excel active sheet or cell change). Then I read PSVariable documentation here and saw this: "There is no established scenario for deriving from this class. To programmatically create a shell variable, create an instance of this class and set it by using the PSVariableIntrinsics class." As I was deriving from PSVariable, I tried to use what was suggested: PSVariable activeCell = new PSVariable("ActiveCell"); activeCell.Value = Globals.ThisAddIn.Application.ActiveCell; runspace.SessionStateProxy.PSVariable.Set(activeCell); Using this, $ActiveCell appears in my PowerShell session, but its value doesn't change as I change the active cell in Excel. Is the above comment from PSVariable documentation something I should worry about, or I can continue creating PSVariable derived classes? Is there another way of making Excel globals available to PowerShell?

    Read the article

  • convert 0.5 to 0.50 in C#

    - by Rohit
    I have a string which holds 0.5. I have to convert in to 0.50. I have tried following ways but nothing works.Please help hdnSliderValue.Value is 0.5,I want workFlow.QualityThresholdScore to be 0.50 workFlow.QualityThresholdScore = Convert.ToDecimal(String.format("{0:d}",hdnSliderValue.Value)); workFlow.QualityThresholdScore = Convert.ToDecimal(String.format("{0:0.00}",hdnSliderValue.Value)); IS there any built in function or will i have to do string handling to accomplish this.

    Read the article

  • Selenium: Can i test if a page loaded a flash app (ie a swf) properly?

    - by Max Williams
    hi all. I'm writing some selenium tests (in rspec for a rails app). One of my pages loads a swf and while i don't want to test the functionality of this flash app i do want to test that it loaded up ok. Is this possible? In case it helps, the html to load the swf is: <OBJECT classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=8,0,0,0" width="800" height="600"> <PARAM NAME=movie VALUE="http://localhost:3000/assets/players/millionaire/millionaire.swf"> <PARAM NAME=quality VALUE="high"> <PARAM NAME=FlashVars VALUE="quizXML=http://localhost:3000/quizzes/371.xml?online=true&myURL=http://localhost:3000/assets/players/millionaire/&online=true"> <param name=width value="800"> <param name=height value="600"> <EMBED src="http://localhost:3000/assets/players/millionaire/millionaire.swf" FlashVars="quizXML=http://localhost:3000/quizzes/371.xml?online=true&myURL=http://localhost:3000/assets/players/millionaire/&online=true" width="800" height="600" quality=high TYPE="application/x-shockwave-flash" PLUGINSPAGE="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer"> </EMBED> </OBJECT> thanks - max

    Read the article

  • Use date operations on a computed field filter in a view

    - by stephenhay
    I'd like to expose a filter in Views based on a Computed Field. This field should utilize the date operation "less than". Apparently, a date type is not available to computed field (varchar is). However, using varchar results in views treating the field as a string rather than as a date, without the operation I'm looking for. So I tried using a timestamp instead of a date, which allowed me to use an integer data type. The exposed view gives me a "less than" operation, but as it's still not a date, the user must type in a timestamp. Not handy. So I'm thinking the best way to do this is to create a new (hidden) CCK field which is a date field, and set the value of this field to the value of the Computed Field. I can then use the new CCK field for my exposed filter. But I'm not getting anywhere with this, as I'm unsure how to set another CCK field with a Computed Field. To return the value to the computed field itself, I'm using the standard: $node_field[0]['value'] = $newestdate; I would like to set the value of the new CCK field to $newestdate as well. Can anyone help?

    Read the article

  • grails and flash movie

    - by ziftech
    Is it possibe to insert into GSP simple flash movie? I tried this way: <object type="application/x-shockwave-flash" data="${resource(dir:'flash',file:'movie.swf')}" width="400" height="400"> <param name="movie" value="${resource(dir:'flash',file:'movie.swf')}" /> <param name="bgcolor" value="#ffffff" /> <param name="AllowScriptAccess" value="always" /> <param name="flashvars" value="feed=${resource(dir:'flash',file:'movie.xml')}" /> <p>This widget requires Flash Player 9 or better</p> </object> It seems that movie is loaded but .xml and pictures are not...

    Read the article

  • ajax and servlet

    - by kawtousse
    Hi everyone I am using ajax to send a value to a servlet with that parameter value I must display a table HTML. from my JSP when sending with following: xhr.open("POST","ServletImputOPC",true); xhr.setRequestHeader('Content-Type','application/x-www-form-urlencoded'); var unit =document.getElementById('unit').value; xhr.send("t[0]="+t[0]); it returns the clause in my servlet correctly witch is: parameter received:Nameof my parameter. that is improve that the servlet receive the parameter. But when using it in the servlet it return a null value. So the problem that the servlet return the parameter received but did not able to use it. What should I do to resolve it. Many thinks.

    Read the article

  • How to cause bindings to be updated, particularly for derived values?

    - by rrhartjr
    I'm using some CLR objects that use the INotifyPropertyChanged interface and use the PropertyChanged function to update in WPF bindings. Pretty boilerplate: protected void RaisePropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } Then the property: private double m_TotalWidgets = 0; public double TotalWidgets { get { return m_TotalWidgets; } set { m_TotalWidgets = value; RaisePropertyChanged("TotalWidgets"); } } Is there a better way to update a derived value or even the whole class? Say I had a calculated value: public double ScaledWidgets { get { return TotalWidgets * CONSTANT_FACTOR; } } I would have to fire ScaledWidget's PropertyChanged when TotalWidgets is updated, eg: set { m_TotalWidgets = value; RaisePropertyChanged("TotalWidgets"); RaisePropertyChanged("ScaledWidgets"); } Is there a better way to do this? Is it possible "invalidate" the whole object, especially if there are a lot of derived values? I think it would be kind of lame to fire 100 PropertyChanged events.

    Read the article

  • Lazy loading is not working for one to many

    - by Shire
    Any 1-M that use the primary key of the parent table, but any 1-M that uses a different column does not work. It generates the SQL correctly, but put the value of the key into the SQL instead of the column value I want. Example mapping: public TemplateMap() { Table("IMPORT"); LazyLoad(); Id(x => x.ImportId).Column("IMPORT_ID").GeneratedBy.Assigned(); Map(x => x.ImportSetId).Column("IMPORTSET_ID"); HasMany(x => x.GoodChildren) .Access.CamelCaseField() .KeyColumns.Add("IMPORT_ID") .Cascade.Delete() .Inverse(); HasMany(x => x.BadChildren) .Access.CamelCaseField() .KeyColumns.Add("IMPORTSET_ID") .Cascade.Delete() .Inverse(); } Lazy loading works for GoodChildren, but not for BadChildren. The SQL statement is correct for both children. But the wrong values are use. If the value of IMPORT_ID is 10 and the value of IMPORTSET_ID is 12. The value 10 will be used for the IMPORTSET_ID in the SQL for BadChildren instead of 12. Anyone have any ideas what I need to change to get BadChildren to work correctly? Note: GoodChildren links to IMPORT_ID on Template BadChildren links to IMPORTSET_ID on Template

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC URL Routing problem

    - by Sadegh
    hi, i have defined a route as below: context.MapRoute("SearchEngineWebSearch", "search/web/{query}/{index}/{size}", new { controller = "search", action = "web", query = "", index = 0, size = 5 }); and action method to handle request match with that: public System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Web(string query = "", int index = 0, int size = 5) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(query)) return RedirectToRoute("SearchEngineBasicSearch"); var search = new Search(); var results = search.PerformSearch(query, index, size); ViewData["Query"] = query; if (results != null && results.Count() > 0) { ViewData["Results"]= results; return View("Web"); } else return View("Not-Found"); } and form to sent parameter to action method: <% using (Html.BeginForm("Web", "Search", FormMethod.Post)) { %> <input name="query" type="text" value="<%: ViewData["Query"]%>" class="search-field" /> <input type="submit" value="Search" class="search-button" /> <input type="hidden" name="index" value="2" /> <input type="hidden" name="size" value="2" /> <%} %> now after click on submit and sending value to action method all route values updated but url values still is equals to first time of sending parameter. for example if i sent for first time request such as http://localhost/search/web/google and for next time http://localhost/search/web/yahoo, query parameter which passed to action method is yahoo but url after postback is http://localhost/search/web/google still! can anybody help me plz? ;)

    Read the article

  • Get object from arraycollection

    - by Nll
    I have a problem about to get an object from arraycollection of objects with Id,so I do : protected $_rootObject; public function __construct(myClasse $rootObject) { $this->_rootObject= $rootObject; } public function getObjectById($id) { $value = null; foreach($this->_rootObject as $root) { if ($id == $root->getId()) { $value = $root; break; } } return $value; } Then the function return "NULL" so it's dosn't work...

    Read the article

  • Validation.HasError attached property

    - by Nima
    Did I miss something? 1- Style <Style TargetType="{x:Type TextBox}"> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=Validation.HasError}" Value="true"> <Setter Property="BorderBrush" Value="Blue" /> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> <Setter Property="MinWidth" Value="160" /> <Setter Property="Margin" Value="0 7 0 0"/> </Style> 2 - Viewmodel implement IDataErrorInfo 3- textBox in view <TextBox x:Name="FirstName" Text="{Binding Person.FirstName, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged, ValidatesOnDataErrors=true}"></TextBox> 3 - I use Caliburn MVVM I got " BindingExpression path error: 'Validation' property not found on 'object' ''PersonWindowViewModel' (HashCode=38783181)'. BindingExpression:Path=Validation.HasError; DataItem='PersonWindowViewModel' (HashCode=38783181); target element is 'TextBox' (Name='FirstName'); target property is 'NoTarget' (type 'Object')"S

    Read the article

  • setting cookies

    - by aharon
    Okay, so I'm trying to set cookies using Ruby. I'm in a Rack environment. response[name]=value will add an HTTP header into the HTTP headers hash rack has. I know that it works. The following method doesn't work: def set_cookie(opts={}) args = { :name => nil, :value => nil, :expires => Time.now+314, :path => '/', :domain => Cambium.uri #contains the IP address of the dev server this is running on }.merge(opts) raise ArgumentError, ":name and :value are mandatory" if args[:name].nil? or args[:value].nil? response['Set-Cookie']="#{args[:name]}=#{args[:value]}; expires=#{args[:expires].clone.gmtime.strftime("%a, %d-%b-%Y %H:%M:%S GMT")}; path=#{args[:path]}; domain=#{args[:domain]}" end Why not? And how can I solve it? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Send html array as post variable using Request.JSON

    - by ian
    I have an html: First name: <input type='text' name='first_name' value='' /><br/> Last name: <input type='text' name='last_name' value='' /><br/> <input type='checkbox' name='category[]' value='Math' /> Math<br/> <input type='checkbox' name='category[]' value='Science' /> Science<br/> <input type='checkbox' name='category[]' value='History' /> History<br/> etc..... I want to send(using post method) the selected categories(category[]) via mootools ajax so that if I dump the $_POST variable in the server I will get something like: array(1) { [category]=> array(2) { [0]=> string(4) "Math" [1]=> string(7) "History" } } What should be the javascript(mootools) code for it? Below is my partial code. new Request.JSON({url: '/ajax_url', onSuccess: function(){ alert('success'); } }).post(???); Note that I don't want to send first_name and last_name fields. I only want to send the category field which is an html array.

    Read the article

  • blank to numeric conversion derived column

    - by praveen
    Hi All, I have a source column with blank (not "NULL"), and target as numeric. while converting using the data conversion it is not converting due to balnk source value so I used derived column to replace a blank value with NULL or 0 as (source column == " ") ? "0" : source column but its not giving the value as 0 in the blank place. thanks prav

    Read the article

  • How do I run some VBA code when a cell is changed?

    - by Gravitas
    I want to add some VBA code when the value in a cell changes. I've already tried Worksheet_Change(), as described at http://www.contextures.com/xlfaqmac.html#WSChange However, this won't work: it only fires when the user changes the value. I want to fire it whenever the value changes, i.e. whenever the spreadsheet recalculates. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Access ConfigurationSection from ConfigurationElement

    - by shivesh
    I have a configuration class that maps web.config, something like that: public class SiteConfigurationSection : ConfigurationSection { [ConfigurationProperty("defaultConnectionStringName", DefaultValue = "LocalSqlServer")] public string DefaultConnectionStringName { get { return (string)base["defaultConnectionStringName"]; } set { base["defaultConnectionStringName"] = value; } } [ConfigurationProperty("Module", IsRequired = true)] public ModuleElement Module { get { return (ModuleElement)base["Module"]; } } } public class ModuleElement : ConfigurationElement { [ConfigurationProperty("connectionStringName")] public string ConnectionStringName { get { return (string)base["connectionStringName"]; } set { base["connectionStringName"] = value; } } public string ConnectionString { get { string str; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(this.ConnectionStringName)) { str =//GET THE DefaultConnectionStringName from SiteConfigurationSection; } else str = this.ConnectionStringName; return WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[str].ConnectionString; } } } Meaning if connection string name value is missing in Module section in web.config file, the value should be read from configurationsection. How to do that?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 314 315 316 317 318 319 320 321 322 323 324 325  | Next Page >