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  • JavaScript Key Codes

    - by Jonathan Wood
    I'm working with a JavaScript routine I didn't write. It is called from a text box's onkeydown attribute to prevent unwanted keystrokes. The first argument is apparently not used. The second argument is a list of characters that should be allowed. function RestrictChars(evt, chars) { var key; var keychar; if (window.event) key = window.event.keyCode; else if (e) key = e.which; else return true; keychar = String.fromCharCode(key); if ((key == null) || (key == 0) || (key == 8) || (key == 9) || (key == 13) || (key == 27)) // Control key return true; else if (((chars).indexOf(keychar) > -1)) return true; else return false; } This seems to work for alpha-numeric characters. However, characters such as . and / cause this function to return false, even when these characters are included in the chars parameter. For example, if the . key is pressed, key is set to 190, and keychar gets set to the "3/4" character. Can anyone see how this was meant to work and/or why it doesn't? I don't know enough about JavaScript to see what it's trying to do.

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  • managedObjectContext question...

    - by treasure
    Hello, I have an app which is a UITabBarController, I have defined two subviews Both tabs have their Class attribute in the Identity Inspector set to UINavigationController. Now i have managed to get this far with my coding after VERY LONG trials. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; myAppDelegate *appDelegate = (myAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; self.managedObjectContext = appDelegate.managedObjectContext; { NSError *error = nil; NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [fetchRequest setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"User" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]]; NSArray *fetchedItems = [self.managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]; NSEntityDescription *entityDesc = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"User" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]; // replace the old data with new. this DOESNT WORK if (fetchedItems.count > 0) { Usr *newUsr; for (newUsr in fetchedItems) { if ([newUsr.name isEqualToString:@"Line One"]) { newUsr.uName = @"Line One (new)"; } } } //add a new default data. THIS ADDS DATA TO MY TABLEVIEW BUT IT DOESNT SAVE THEM TO THE SQLITE User *addedDefaultdata = nil; addedDefaultdata = [[User alloc] initWithEntity:entityDesc insertIntoManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]; addedDefaultdata.name = @"Added new 1"; [addedDefaultdata release]; } NSError *error = nil; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } } and my appdelegate looks like this: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { [application setStatusBarStyle:UIStatusBarStyleBlackOpaque]; [window addSubview:navigationController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } now I cannot quire the "User" at all! although i get no errors or warnings! Any suggestions would be much appreciated! Thanks

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  • XML Serialization : Has property of type Class1 : Class1 has another property : How to write the property of Class1 into XML?

    - by Wonderlander
    I want to serialize a class. In this class there's a property, type of Class1, while there are other properties in Class1. public abstract class ComponentBase { [ToSerialize]//An attribute defined my me, indicating whether or not to serialize this property. public ComponentArgs Parameters { get; set; } } public class ComponentArgs { public string WorkingPath { get; set; } public IList<Language> Languages { get; set; } public string ComponentOutputPath { get; set; } } The information serialized must be put into a Dictionary, such as ComponentSettings[str_Name]=str_Value. The method used in reading this value is Reflection. pinfo: Property Info got via Type.GetProperties(); componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue((object)this, null).ToString()); The information after serialization is: <Parameters>MS.STBIntl.Pippin.Framework.ComponentArgs</Parameters> instead of the value of ComponentArgs.WorkingPath. The solution I thought of is to append to the following line an if judgement: componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue((object)this, null).ToString()); if(pinfo is ComponentArgs) componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue( (ComponentArgs)this, null).WorkingPath+"\n"+ LanguageList+"\n"+ //Language list is a concatinated string of all elements in the list. (ComponentArgs)this, null).ComponentOutputPath+"\n"+ ); When deserializing, add a judgement of whether the value contains more than 2 "\n", if so, extract each value from the string. But this way seems clumsy and much more like an workaround. I wonder if there's any more professional way of doing it? My reviewer is very particular and he won't accept such a solution. If you know a way, could you please share it with me? Thanks a lot.

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  • Has inheritance become bad?

    - by mafutrct
    Personally, I think inheritance is a great tool, that, when applied reasonably, can greatly simplify code. However, I seems to me that many modern tools dislike inheritance. Let's take a simple example: Serialize a class to XML. As soon as inheritance is involved, this can easily turn into a mess. Especially if you're trying to serialize a derived class using the base class serializer. Sure, we can work around that. Something like a KnownType attribute and stuff. Besides being an itch in your code that you have to remember to update every time you add a derived class, that fails, too, if you receive a class from outside your scope that was not known at compile time. (Okay, in some cases you can still work around that, for instance using the NetDataContract serializer in .NET. Surely a certain advancement.) In any case, the basic principle still exists: Serialization and inheritance don't mix well. Considering the huge list of programming strategies that became possible and even common in the past decade, I feel tempted to say that inheritance should be avoided in areas that relate to serialization (in particular remoting and databases). Does that make sense? Or am messing things up? How do you handle inheritance and serialization?

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  • assign characters to key combinations in XP or Visual Studio .Net

    - by cpj
    I'm running Mac OSX on a MacBookPro (UK keyboard). I run windows XP under parallels in a VM. I run Visual Studio .Net 2003 and 2008 in XP in the VM when i need to. I have English United Kingdom and English United states keyboards setup in XP. (they switch sometimes for no apparent reason) There is no hash "#" key on my mac's keyboard. However, in OSX I can get a hash with an alt+3 key combination. But In Windows XP... I can not make a "#" character. I can go to the character map in windows and copy a hash.. switch into OSX and copy a hash.. search in code and copy a hash.. but I can not make a hash in XP using my keyboard without typing U+0023: ... which you can imagine is annoying. coding anything with hash symbols is becoming a choir. Anyone got any advice or key mapping tricks I can use to get hash characters working in XP using my mac UK keyboard?

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  • What is the meaning of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

    - by beemaster
    Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

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  • Conflict with @Html.LabelFor and W3C Validator?

    - by Tyler
    I have a model that I am using to present an index of a model from a database and have given a display name to some of the rows that may need spaces in them, (I.e. "weekstarting" in a db would be given a display name of "Week Starting"). So I set the display name for my model like this: [DisplayName("Week Starting")] public DateTime WeekStarting { get; set; } and then in the table headers for my table I use the following line of code to display the field name using its given display name: @Html.LabelFor(x => x.First().WeekStarting) The above all works fine. But I am using the W3C validator and it is giving me the following error for the example I have given: The for attribute of the label element must refer to a form control. Forgive me if it is obvious but what am I doing wrong here? I am not using a form I am simply displaying an index of items in a table. I have tried to look for an answer and saw someone suggest that the form controls being referred to need ids (even though I'm not using a form) but this would not be applicable in this instance because if I tried to set an id in the index it would be duplicated with each item in the index: foreach (var item in Model.Tbms) { <tr><td>@item.value</td><tr>.... would be repeated for each item, and also unsure where I would put the id in any case, the td? } Or is there a better way to label the field header, with my preferred display name in the first place? I guess I could just swap @Html.LabelFor... for Hard code field name but do I have to?

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  • HTML prevent line break (between two table tags)

    - by arik-so
    Hello, I have following code: <table> <tr> <td>Table 1</td> </tr> </table> <table> <tr> <td>Table 2</td> </tr> </table> Very unfortunately, a line break is inserted between these two tables. I have tried putting them both in a single span and setting the whitespace to nowrap, but at no avail. Please, could you tell me how I can simply put these elements in a single row, without setting the float attribute in CSS and without surrounding each table with a <td> {table} </td> and then putting this in a table row. Thanks a lot in advance. I have asked Google, but it just wouldn't say anything ^^ StackOverflow remained silent so far, too

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  • Read all sub directories within a certain folder to display a random image.

    - by Andy
    I have this code i have been using....but i need a conditional where it will read all the sub directories of /bg to select an image as opposed to a specific folder if they were on a subpage. Heres my code so far which works perfectly for all subpages to display specific images: //This would tell us its on the homepage if it helps: $this->level() == 0 //This is the code so far $path = '/home/sites/mydomain.co.uk/public_html/public/images/bg/'.$this->slug; $homepagefile = URL_PUBLIC.'public/images/bg/'.$this->slug.'/main.jpg'; $bgimagearray = array(); $iterator = new DirectoryIterator($path); foreach ($iterator as $fileinfo) { if ($fileinfo->isFile() && !preg_match('\.jpg$/', $fileinfo->getFilename())) { $bgimagearray[] = "'" . $fileinfo->getFilename() . "'"; } } $bgimage = array_rand($bgimagearray); ?> <div id="bg"> <div> <table cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <tr> <td><img src="<?php echo $file.trim($bgimagearray[$bgimage], "'"); ?>" alt=""/></td> </tr> </table> </div> </div> Any help would be appreciated, im sure its not rocket science but ive tried a few ways and cant get my head around it. Thanks in advance.

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  • Why does a checkbox remain checked in FF3 but not in IE, Chrome or ...

    - by sirrocco
    So - I have a checkbox <asp:CheckBox ID="chkOrder" runat="server" Visible='<%#IsCheckBoxVisible() %>' Checked="false" OnCheckedChanged="chkOrder_CheckedChanged" AutoPostBack="true" EnableViewState="false"></asp:CheckBox> the one above. Now, the checkbox is in a gridview and on databound - for all the rows in the gridview the checkbox is set to false. The problem is that the first checkbox is still true checked. In IE the problem doesn't exist, same for Chrome. I'm running out of options. Also if i use $("checkboxName").attr("checked"); // verified on jquery ready function. In FF it is true; IE false; Chrome false. Any tips? EDIT Now get ready for this : in the generated html - there is NO checked attribute. The diff between FF and IE is exactly the same. Another thing - the grid that contains the checkboxes has an ajax panel on it and when I page the grid, try to go to page 2 - the checkedChanged in codebehind is triggered.

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  • How to gracefully handle YouTube thumbnail broken images when videos are taken down?

    - by mrjf
    Our site contains some lists of YouTube videos with their thumbnails linked to the movies themselves. We fetch the thumbnail URLs from the YouTube API, and hotlink to them in situ on YouTube's servers. So our image tags look like: <img src="http://i.ytimg.com/vi/o6CHqSN7O-o/2.jpg" alt="" width="133" height="78" /> The problem is that sometimes a video gets removed -- and so does the thumbnail. We don't know when that might happen, and our thumbnails just turn into broken images. How can we handle this? There are a number of solutions: Download thumbnails and store them locally -- movie won't work, but that's ok, it will explain it was removed, and we avoid the broken image Check periodically with the API to see if the image thumbnail has changed -- if it no longer exists, substitute our own "movie removed" thumbnail. This is pretty heavy on the API calling! Use JavaScript to replace broken images (don't like this one much) Our ideal solution would be to point the img src to a location on YouTube that would display a friendly "move removed" image when a movie goes down. However, that doesn't seem to exist. Anyone else dealt with this? Thanks!

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  • ASP.NET Custom Control - Template Allowing Literal Content

    - by Bob Fincheimer
    I want my User Control to be able to have Literal Content inside of it. For Example: <fc:Text runat="server">Please enter your login information:</fc:Text> Currently the code for my user control is: <ParseChildren(True, "Content")> _ Partial Public Class ctrFormText Inherits FormControl Private _content As ArrayList <PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerDefaultProperty), _ DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content), _ TemplateInstance(TemplateInstance.Single)> _ Public Property Content() As ArrayList Get If _content Is Nothing Then Return New ArrayList End If Return _content End Get Set(ByVal value As ArrayList) _content = value End Set End Property Protected Overrides Sub CreateChildControls() If _content IsNot Nothing Then ctrChildren.Controls.Clear() For Each i As Control In _content ctrChildren.Controls.Add(i) Next End If MyBase.CreateChildControls() End Sub End Class And when I put text inside this control (like above) i get this error: Parser Error Message: Literal content ('Please enter your login information to access CKMS:') is not allowed within a 'System.Collections.ArrayList'. This control could have other content than just the text, so making the Content property an attribute will not solve my problem. I found in some places that I need to implement a ControlBuilder Class, along with another class that implements IParserAccessor. Anyway I just want my default "Content" property to have all types of controls allowed in it, both literal and actual controls.

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  • C# XML Documentation Compiler Warning

    - by ImperialLion
    I am curious as to why I get a compiler warning in the following situation. /// <summary>This is class A /// </summary> public class A { /// <summary>This is the documentation for Method A /// </summary> public void MethodA() { //Do something } } /// <summary>This is class B /// </summary> public class B : A { /// <summary>This does something that I want to /// reference <see cref="MethodA"/> /// </summary> public void MethodB() { //Do something } } The warning states that "XML comment on 'B.MethodB()' has cref attribute 'MethodA' that could not be resolved." If B inherits from A shouldn't the compiler be able to see that method when generating the documentation without me specifying the parent class in the cref? If I change the cref to be cref="A.MethodA()" it works fine, but it seems like that's unnecessary and is a pain to do, especially if I have to go up more than one level. As a note to anyone testing this you have to be sure to "XML documentation file" checked in the Properties - Build in order to see the warning.

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  • Localization of DisplayNameAttribute

    - by PowerKiKi
    Hi, I am looking for a way to localize properties names displayed in a PropertyGrid. The property's name may be "overriden" using the DisplayNameAttribute attribute. Unfortunately attributes can not have non constant expressions. So I can not use strongly typed resources such as: class Foo { [DisplayAttribute(Resources.MyPropertyNameLocalized)] // do not compile string MyProperty {get; set;} } I had a look around and found some suggestion to inherit from DisplayNameAttribute to be able to use resource. I would end up up with code like: class Foo { [MyLocalizedDisplayAttribute("MyPropertyNameLocalized")] // not strongly typed string MyProperty {get; set;} } However I lose strongly typed resource benefits which is definitely not a good thing. Then I came across DisplayNameResourceAttribute which may be what I'm looking for. But it's supposed to be in Microsoft.VisualStudio.Modeling.Design namespace and I can't find what reference I am supposed to add for this namespace. Anybody know if there's a easier way to achieve DisplayName localization in a good way ? or if there is as way to use what Microsoft seems to be using for Visual Studio ?

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  • What is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

    - by beemaster
    Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

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  • Automatic adition of `using` in CodeRush.

    - by drasto
    I just installed CodeRush Pro (evaluation trial) for Visual Studio and I can say I like it much so far. Comparing to Resharper there is only one type of feature I'm really missing. It is the way CodeRush deals with using. When I type some class name that is not declared in some package listed in using, CodeRush underlines it red as an error(what it is) but if I hover over it with cursor it does not offer me to add using, it merely says it is "Undeclared element". I have to use VS default using addition (move caret to the identifier, hover cursor over that really small box that appears under first letter, click the button that appears and choose for example using System form a drop down menu). Is there a way how to configure CodeRush to offer mi add using when I hover a cursor over highlighted "issue"(that says Undeclared element)? The second part of this is that Resharper has somethink called Type name completion. It some improved intellisense. Lets say you have no using declaration in your file. Then you type something like ICompar and press CTRL+SPACE. Of cause there will be no suggestions. But with Resharper you can press CTRL+ALT+SPACE and you get suggestions of all classes starting with ICompar even if they are not in using. When you choose one of them the correct using is automatically added for you. Is there a way to make CodeRush behave this way ?

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  • Is inheritance bad nowadays?

    - by mafutrct
    Personally, I think inheritance is a great tool, that, when applied reasonably, can greatly simplify code. However, I seems to me that many modern tools dislike inheritance. Let's take a simple example: Serialize a class to XML. As soon as inheritance is involved, this can easily turn into a mess. Especially if you're trying to serialize a derived class using the base class serializer. Sure, we can work around that. Something like a KnownType attribute and stuff. Besides being an itch in your code that you have to remember to update every time you add a derived class, that fails, too, if you receive a class from outside your scope that was not known at compile time. (Okay, in some cases you can still work around that, for instance using the NetDataContract serializer in .NET. Surely a certain advancement.) In any case, the basic principle still exists: Serialization and inheritance don't mix well. Considering the huge list of programming strategies that became possible and even common in the past decade, I feel tempted to say that inheritance should be avoided in areas that relate to serialization (in particular remoting and databases). Does that make sense? Or am messing things up? How do you handle inheritance and serialization?

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  • Shadowbox + jQuery not working - No errors.

    - by Shelton
    First, apologies. I'm a js newb. I'm attempting to trigger a shadowbox with the load of a specific page - a "pop-up" if you will. Nothing happens and according to firebug, there are no errors to report. I should note that this is wordpress, so I'm using the default jQuery call and also shadowbox rolled into a WP plug-in. Shadowbox does work properly in other areas of the site, as do jQuery functions. noConflict() is used because WP also loads prototype by default, which conflicts with the jQuery dollar sign. var $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(function(){ //Set cookie $j.cookie('padpop_viewed',true); // open a welcome message as soon as the window loads $j(function() { Shadowbox.open({ content: '<div width="600" height="460" style="margin:auto;"><a href="<?php bloginfo('url');?>"/products/"><img src="<?php bloginfo('template_url');?>/images/ipad-pop.jpg" width="600" height="460" alt="Redacted"/></a></div>', player: "html", height: "470", width: "610" }); }); }); Any help here would be greatly appreciated as I have spent hours consulting the documentation of each aspect of this. Thanks, S.

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  • Checking Selected Radio Button after POST

    - by coffeeaddict
    I've been using ASP.NET controls which perform a lot of the manual for you. But I'm going back to the basics, what everyone else does. I'm using standard input tags. So for example if I have a radio button group and I select a button. When the form submits and does a POST back to whatever action="MyPage.aspx" then to grab and check the radio button's value that was selected is it always done like this below? <label><input type="radio" name="rbGroup" value='<%# ((Action)Container.DataItem).ID %>'/><%# ((Action)Container.DataItem).Name %></label> So here I'm appending the ID to the value. And then when it hits the page that my action specifies, I'm checking to see which was selected by trimming off and getting that ID from the value: string selection = Request.Form["rbGroup"]; string dbRecordIdSelected = int.Parse(selection.Substring(1)); so now I can check the id they selected...that is the ID of the db record that gave that selected radio it's name. Is that how you basically always check what radio was selected by checking the name/value pair that comes across for that selected radioButton group name? And then you can append stuff like IDs or whatever you want to grab and parse out to then do additional logic on the server-side once that header reaches the server and your specified page in the action attribute? The above code is not production code, just something to explain what I'm talking about.

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  • jQuery : how to apply effect on a child element

    - by Tristan
    Hello, instead of re-writting the same function, i want to optimise my code : <div class="header"> <h3>How to use the widget</h3> <span id="idwidget" ></span> </div> <div class="content" id="widget"> the JS : <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var showText="Show"; var hideText="Hide"; $("#idwidget").before("<a href='#' class='button' id='toggle_link'>"+showText+"</a>"); $('#widget').hide(); $('a#toggle_link').click(function() { if ($('a#toggle_link').text()==showText) { $('a#toggle_link').text(hideText); } else { $('a#toggle_link').text(showText); } $('#widget').toggle('slow'); return false; }); }); This is working just with the div which is called widget and the button called idwidget. But on this page i have also : <div class="header"> <h3>How to eat APPLES</h3> <span id="IDsomethingelse" ></span> </div> <div class="content" id="somethingelse"> And i want it to be compatible with the code. I heard about children attribute, do you have an idea how to do that please ? Thank you

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  • How to handle exceptions from an image-generating Servlet?

    - by ssahmed555
    I have a simple (Servlet, JSP, and JSTL) web app whose main functionality is displaying images retrieved from a back-end server. The controller servlet forwards the user to a JSP that in turn uses another Servlet to display the resulting image on that same JSP. Further down, the JSP has a line similar to: <a href="<c:out value='${imageURL}'/>"><img src="<c:out value='${imageURL}'/>" alt="image view" border="1"></a> which invokes a GET request on the image-generating servlet causing it to generate the image. My question is: how do I handle Exceptions thrown by this image-generating servlet? I already have an error page defined (in web.xml) to handle ServletException within my web app but this doesn't work for this image-generating Servlet, and results in the following errors showing up in my Tomcat server logs: SEVERE: Exception Processing ErrorPage[exceptionType=javax.servlet.ServletException, location=/WEB-INF/ExceptionPage.jsp] java.lang.IllegalStateException: Cannot reset buffer after response has been committed What's my recourse in this situation? I'd like to be able to handle Exceptions thrown from this image-generating Servlet, and display some error on the main UI or forward the user to another error page.

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  • Retrieving the first picture with a HTML parser

    - by justin01
    Hey guys, (Not a native english speaker) I'm doing a personal project in PHP in which I use the Simple HTML Parser to parse the HTML of a given URL and retrieve the first image in a DIV that have a specific ID or class (maincontent, content, main, wrapper, etc. - it's all in an array) and ignore ads. The goal is to take this image and make a thumbnail with it, pretty much like on Digg and others. I thought everything was working fine until I tried my script with the website Snopes ("http://www.snopes.com/photos/animals/luckycoyote.asp" <- this page more exactly). The source of the first image it gets is: " graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg ". So far, to correct this problem I created a little function that gets the domain name of the given URL and insert it before the IMG's source attribute. So for sites like Snopes.com, it gives me: "http://www.snopes.com/graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg" ... while the real URL for this image is "http://www.snopes.com*/photos/animals/graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg*" (or, more precisely: " http://graphics1.snopes.com/photos/animals/graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg " - note the subdomain here). So my main question is: how can I externally/dynamically retrieve the full URL address of an image ("absolute path") when I am only given the "relative path"? I'm pretty sure this is possible, since when I paste the link in Facebook's "What are you doing?" field for example, it gives me the correct path to the image while on the website, the source of the image is only (example) "image/photo/example.jpg". Thank you for your time.

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  • How to use custom attributes over a web service?

    - by gfeli
    Hi. I am currently trying to add a custom "column name" to a property in a web service. Here is my class. public class OrderCost { public int OrderNum { get; set; } public int OrderLine { get; set; } public int OrderRel { get; set; } public DateTime OrderDate { get; set; } public string PartNum { get; set; } public string Description { get; set; } public decimal Qty { get; set; } public string SalesUM { get; set; } public decimal Cost { get; set; } public decimal Price { get; set; } public decimal Net { get; set; } public decimal Margin { get; set; } public string EntryPerson { get; set; } public string CustID { get; set; } public string Customer { get; set; } } Basically I have another class (on the Silverlight side) that loops through all the properties and creates a column for each property. Thing is, I want to use a different name other than the name of the property. For example, I would like to show "Order Number" instead of OrderNum. I have attempted to use custom attributes but that does not seem to work. Is there way I can provide a different name to these properties over a web service with a use of an attribute? Is there another way I can achieve what I am trying to do?

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  • Jquery form Ajax Submit

    - by user1766080
    I want to submit a form using ajax in the background. I tried: <div class="form-horizontal" id="form"> <label for="name" class="control-label">Username</label> <div class="controls"> <span id="name_input"><input type="text" name="name" id="medium" class='input-medium input-square'></span> <span class="help-inline" id = "ajax_load"></span> </div> <div class="form-actions"> <button class="btn btn-red5" onclick="resolve()">Login</button> <input type="reset" class='btn btn-danger' value="Reset"> </div> </div> And the Javascript: <script type="text/javascript"> var resolve = function () { jAlert('test', 'test'); $('#ajax_load').html('<a href="#" class="btn btn-mini btn-square tip" title="Reloading"><img src="templates/img/ajax-loader.gif" alt=""></a>'); $.ajax( { url : 'plugin.php?plugin=test', type : 'post', data: $("#form").serialize(), success : function( resp ) { if(resp.ajax_success == false) { } else { jAlert('test', 'test'); } } }); }; </script> I get an alert, but there is no form submit. I checked that with Live http headers. Why does it not submit the form?

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  • CSS div and image opacity effect

    - by user1704514
    The following code shows the image in the div tag. <div class='item'> <img class='img' src="image1.png" alt="" /> </div> I am using the following css to add effects to the html image code: img{ width:50px; height:50px; opacity:0.4; filter:alpha(opacity=40); } img:hover{ opacity:1.0; filter:alpha(opacity=100); } I am using this to have opacity effects in css. With this code, the opacity effect works well when I hover over the image itself. But how do I make it so that the opacity effect on the image occurs when I hover over the div tag instead. I want to be able to hover over any part of the item div which encapsulated the image, to get the change opacity effect on the image. NB effect on just the image not the entire div. Can this be done in css? If so how?

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