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• iphone crash log with dSym not loading debug information

  - by AngeDeLaMort

  Hello, I was trying to see why my application crashed on the device (iPhone) using the dSym generated along the executable (in ad hoc), but I don't know why, there isn't any useful information. It seems that "Organizer" is able to find the appropriate dSym and translate some data into more readable one, but when it comes to my application, I just have an address. Since I know how to reproduce it, I've tried to setup my build so it can help me in the future. So, I've tried to find if I had all the proper flags set int the project build properties and everything seems fine. So after doing some research, it seems that all information are stripped during link time and the dSym seems completely useless. I've played with some flags, but nothing changed. So, is there something special to do in order to get the crash file human readable? Or is it impossible in the ad hoc setting? The closest thing near to work that I've done was to build a debug version and look up the address in it. At least it seems to give the right file. So, I made a sample app and here what I have: (the line I want is #4): Thread 0 Crashed: 0 libobjc.A.dylib 0x00003ebc objc_msgSend + 20 1 UIKit 0x0005c970 -[UIView dealloc] + 60 2 UIKit 0x0005c840 -[UIImageView dealloc] + 76 3 CoreFoundation 0x0003963a -[NSObject release] + 28 4 MyApplication 0x000046a6 0x1000 + 13990 5 UIKit 0x00069750 -[UIViewController view] + 44 6 MyApplication 0x000053fa 0x1000 + 17402 The crash is made using 2 successive releases on an object. Thanks in advance.

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• Switching from form_for to remote_form_for problems with submit changes in Rails

  - by Matthias Günther

  Hi there, another day with Rails and today I want to use Ajax. linkt_remote_link for changing a text was pretty easy so I thought it would also be easy to switch my form_for loop just to an ajax request form with remote_form_for, but the problem with the remote_form_for is that it doesn't save my changes? Here the code that worked: <% form_for bill, :url => {:action => 'update', :id => bill.id} do |f| %> # make the processing e.g. displaying texfields and so on <%= submit_tag 'speichern'%> It produces the following html code: <form action="/adminbill/update/58" class="edit_bill" id="edit_bill_58" method="post"><div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"><input name="_method" type="hidden" value="put" /></div> <!-- here the html things for the forms --> <input class="button" name="commit" type="submit" value="speichern" /> Here the code which don't save me the changes and submit them: <% remote_form_for bill, :url => {:action => 'update', :id => bill.id} do |f| %> # make the processing e.g. displaying texfields and so on <%= submit_tag 'speichern'%> It produces the following html code: <form action="/adminbill/update/58" class="edit_bill" id="edit_bill_58" method="post" onsubmit="$.ajax({data:$.param($(this).serializeArray()), dataType:'script', type:'post', url:'/adminbill/update/58'}); return false;"><div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"><input name="_method" type="hidden" value="put" /></div> <!-- here the html things for the forms --> <input class="button" name="commit" type="submit" value="speichern" /> I don't know if I have to consider something special when using remote_form_for (see remote_form_for)

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• AnyCPU/x86/x64 for C# application and it's C++/CLI dependency

  - by Soonts

  I'm Windows developer, I'm using Microsoft visual studio 2008 SP1. My developer machine is 64 bit. The software I'm currently working on is managed .exe written in C#. Unfortunately, I was unable to solve the whole problem solely in C#. That's why I also developed a small managed DLL in C++/CLI. Both projects are in the same solution. My C# .exe build target is "Any CPU". When my C++ DLL build target is "x86", the DLL is not loaded. As far as I understood when I googled, the reason is C++/CLI language, unlike other .NET languages, compiles to the native code, not managed code. I switched the C++ DLL build target to x64, and everything works now. However, AFAIK everything will stop working as soon as my client will install my product on a 32-bit OS. I have to support Windows Vista and 7, both 32 and 64 bit versions of each of them. I don't want to fall back to 32 bits. That 250 lines of C++ code in my DLL is only 2% of my codebase. And that DLL is only used in several places, so in the typical usage scenario it's not even loaded. My DLL implements two COM objects with ATL, so I can't use "/clr:safe" project setting. Is there way to configure the solution and the projects so that C# project builds "Any CPU" version, the C++ project builds both 32 bit and 64 bit versions, then in the runtime when the managed .EXE is starting up, it uses either 32-bit DLL or 64-bit DLL depending on the OS? Or maybe there's some better solution I'm not aware of? Thanks in advance!

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• Replace .sln with MSBuild and wrap contained projects into targets

  - by Filburt

  I'd like to create a MSBuild project that reflects the project dependencies in a solution and wraps the VS projects inside reusable targets. The problem I like solve doing this is to svn-export, build and deploy a specific assembly (and its dependencies) in an BizTalk application. My question is: How can I make the targets for svn-exporting, building and deploying reusable and also reuse the wrapped projects when they are built for different dependencies? I know it would be simpler to just build the solution and deploy only the assemblies needed but I'd like to reuse the targets as much as possible. The parts The project I like to deploy <Project DefaultTargets="Deploy" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <PropertyGroup> <ExportRoot Condition="'$(Export)'==''">Export</ExportRoot> </PropertyGroup> <Target Name="Clean_Export"> <RemoveDir Directories="$(ExportRoot)\My.Project.Dir" /> </Target> <Target Name="Export_MyProject"> <Exec Command="svn export svn://xxx/trunk/Biztalk2009/MyProject.btproj --force" WorkingDirectory="$(ExportRoot)" /> </Target> <Target Name="Build_MyProject" DependsOnTargets="Export_MyProject"> <MSBuild Projects="$(ExportRoot)\My.Project.Dir\MyProject.btproj" Targets="Build" Properties="Configuration=Release"></MSBuild> </Target> <Target Name="Deploy_MyProject" DependsOnTargets="Build_MyProject"> <Exec Command="BTSTask AddResource -ApplicationName:CORE -Source:MyProject.dll" /> </Target> </Project> The projects it depends upon look almost exactly like this (other .btproj and .csproj).

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• NOT A DUPLICATE! VS2010 - How to automatically stop compile on first compile error

  - by Ben Robbins

  {rant}First I'd like to say that this IS NOT A DUPLICATE. I've asked this question previously but it got closed as a duplicate when it isn't. This question is SPECIFIC to VS 2010 and the answers to the so-called duplicate work in VS 2008 but not in VS 2010 (at least not for me or anyone I know). So before you go closing something as a duplicate how about you read the question carefully and try the answer for yourself and see if it actually works. Apologies for the rant but there is no obvious way to contact the SO police that closed the issue or get it reopened. {/rant} At work we have a C# solution with over 80 projects. In VS 2008 we use a macro to stop the compile as soon as a project in the solution fails to build (see this question for several options for VS 2005 & VS 2008: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/134796/how-to-automatically-stop-visual-c-build-at-first-compile-error). Is it possible to do the same in VS 2010? What we have found is that in VS 2010 the macros don't work (at least I couldn't get them to work) as it appears that the environment events don't fire in VS 2010. The default behaviour is to continue as far as possible and display a list of errors in the error window. I'm happy for it to stop either as soon as an error is encountered (file-level) or as soon as a project fails to build (project-level). Answers for VS 2010 only please. If the macros do work then a detailed explanation of how to configure them for VS 2010 would be appreciated. Thanks.

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• Django formset doesn't validate

  - by tsoporan

  Hello, I am trying to save a formset but it seems to be bypassing is_valid() even though there are required fields. To test this I have a simple form: class AlbumForm(forms.Form): name = forms.CharField(required=True) The view: @login_required def add_album(request, artist): artist = Artist.objects.get(slug__iexact=artist) AlbumFormSet = formset_factory(AlbumForm) if request.method == 'POST': formset = AlbumFormSet(request.POST, request.FILES) if formset.is_valid(): return HttpResponse('worked') else: formset = AlbumFormSet() return render_to_response('submissions/addalbum.html', { 'artist': artist, 'formset': formset, }, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) And the template: <form action="" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data">{% csrf_token %} {{ formset.management_form }} {% for form in formset.forms %} <ul class="addalbumlist"> {% for field in form %} <li> {{ field.label_tag }} {{ field }} {{ field.errors }} </li> {% endfor %} </ul> {% endfor %} <div class="inpwrap"> <input type="button" value="add another"> <input type="submit" value="add"> </div> </form> What ends up happening is I hit "add" without entering a name then HttpResponse('worked') get's called seemingly assuming it's a valid form. I might be missing something here, but I can't see what's wrong. What I want to happen is, just like any other form if the field is required to spit out an error if its not filled in. Any ideas?

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• UpdateModel not working consistently for me if a ddl gets hidden by jQuery

  - by awrigley

  Hi My jQuery code hides a ddl under certain circumstances. When this is the case, after submitting the form, using the UpdateModel doesn't seem to work consistently. My code in the controller: // POST: /IllnessDetail/Edit [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(IllnessDetail ill) { IllnessDetailFormViewModel mfv = new IllnessDetailFormViewModel(ill); if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { IllnessDetail sick = idr.GetLatestIllnessDetailByUsername(User.Identity.Name); UpdateModel(sick); idr.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Current", "IllnessDetail"); } catch { ModelState.AddRuleViolations(mfv.IllnessDetail.GetRuleViolations()); } } return View(new IllnessDetailFormViewModel(ill)); } I have only just started with MVC, and working under a deadline, so am still hazy as to how UpdateModel works. Debugging seems to reveal that the correct value is passed in to the action method: public ActionResult Edit(IllnessDetail ill) And the correct value is put into sick in the following line: IllnessDetailFormViewModel mfv = new IllnessDetailFormViewModel(ill); However, when all is said, done and returned to the client, what displays is the value of: sick.IdInfectiousAgent instead of the value of: ill.IdInfectiousAgent The only reason I can think of is that the ddlInfectiousAgent has been hidden by jQuery. Or am I barking up the wrong lamp post? Andrew

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• Installing Ruby via rbenv fails

  - by Maximus S

  Problem: I installed ruby, but it is not recognized correctly. I'm following the deploying to VPS: https://github.com/railscasts/335-deploying-to-a-vps I am setting my server on ubuntu 12.04 LTS to deploy my rails app. I'm following the railscast on deploying to a VPS, and trying to install ruby through rbenv. It seemed everything was installed correctly, but when I tried to check the ruby version, it gave me errors. The following are the commands that I ran. deployer@max:~$ rbenv install 1.9.3-p125 Downloading yaml-0.1.4.tar.gz... -> http://cloud.github.com/downloads/sstephenson/ruby-build-download-mirror/36c852831d02cf90508c29852361d01b Installing yaml-0.1.4... Installed yaml-0.1.4 to /home/deployer/.rbenv/versions/1.9.3-p125 Downloading ruby-1.9.3-p125.tar.gz... -> http://cloud.github.com/downloads/sstephenson/ruby-build-download-mirror/e3ea86b9d3fc2d3ec867f66969ae3b92 Installing ruby-1.9.3-p125... Installed ruby-1.9.3-p125 to /home/deployer/.rbenv/versions/1.9.3-p125 Downloading rubygems-1.8.23.tar.gz... -> http://cloud.github.com/downloads/sstephenson/ruby-build-download-mirror/178b0ebae78dbb46963c51ad29bb6bd9 Installing rubygems-1.8.23... Installed rubygems-1.8.23 to /home/deployer/.rbenv/versions/1.9.3-p125 deployer@max:~$ rbenv global 1.9.3-p125 deployer@max:~$ ruby -v 'ruby' program can be found in the following packages: * ruby1.8 * ruby1.9.1 How do I solve this?

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• How much does Website Development cost nowadays?

  - by Andreas Grech

  I am thinking of setting up my own freelance business but coming from a workplace that offers a particular service to huge clients, I do not know what are the current charges for websites are nowadays. I know that as technology just keeps changing and changing (most of the time, for the better...), the amount you charge for a single website is constantly differing. Like for example, I don't think static websites (with just static html pages) are that expensive today, no? (as i said, I might be mistaken since I haven't really touched on this freelance industry yet) So, freelance web-developers out there, can you give me estimates on how much you charge for your clients? Some examples of websites that I want to know an approx charge: ~10 static html pages ~10 dhtml pages (with maybe a flasy menu on the top/side) Database driven websites with a standard CMS (be it the one you developed, or an existing one) Database driven but with a custom-built cms for the particular client Using an existing template for a design Starting the design from scratch etc... I know that the normally clients don't really care about the technologies used to construct their websites, but do you charge differently according to which technology you use to build the website with?; as in, is the technology a factor when setting the price? ...being ASP.Net, PHP, Ruby On Rails etc... Also, how do you go on about charging your clients for your services? What are the major factors that you consider when setting a price tag for a website to a client ? And better yet, how do you even find prospective clients? <= [or should I leave this question for a different post?] Btw, in your post, also mention some numbers (in cash values, be it in USD, GBP, EUR or anything) because I want to be able to take calculate some averages from this post when some answers stack up

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• JQuery and IE8 - Form posting on tab change

  - by Tommy

  This issue is only happening in IE8 - Firefox 3.5 seems to handle it fine. I have JQuery UI tabs setup on a page. Within each tab is a form that users can do stuff from. I have defined in the select option of the using: $("#tabs").tabs({select: function(event, ui) {...}}); a submitForm function that submits the form of the tab the user was on previous to changing tabs. This all works in all browsers. The issue comes in that IE does both the POST of the form on the previous tab and the GET for content of the newly requested tab and or really close to the same time (from what I can tell walking through the debugger). As a result, if a tab is dependent on the form input from another tab, the data is stale - does not match the user input from the previous tab. How can I either a) force the POST to complete before rendering the next tab or b) force IE to not make the POST and GET for the next tab at the same time?...or c) some other option?

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• Java UnknownHostException When and Why?

  - by interstar

  I'm trying to post to a website from a Processing Sketch. (Processing is basically Java running in a fancy environment). I'm using this library : http://libraries.seltar.org/postToWeb/ but I don't know if that makes a difference. You can see from the stack trace below that this is just a wrapper for the Java standard library. Anyway, the important point is that the host "mysite.com" is up and running. I am seeing it from the browser. But when I try to post to it from Java I just get the UnknownHostException appearing. Given that the site is up. What else might this mean? The program is currently running inside the Processing environment. Presumably as an Applet. java.net.UnknownHostException: mysite.com at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(PlainSocketImpl.java:195) at java.net.SocksSocketImpl.connect(SocksSocketImpl.java:366) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:529) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:478) at sun.net.NetworkClient.doConnect(NetworkClient.java:163) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:394) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:529) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.<init>(HttpClient.java:233) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.New(HttpClient.java:306) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.New(HttpClient.java:323) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getNewHttpClient(HttpURLConnection.java:970) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.plainConnect(HttpURLConnection.java:911) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.connect(HttpURLConnection.java:836) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getOutputStream(HttpURLConnection.java:1014) at org.seltar.Bytes2Web.PostToWeb._post(PostToWeb.java:90) at org.seltar.Bytes2Web.ByteToWeb.post(ByteToWeb.java:66) at experimentPostToWeb.keyPressed(experimentPostToWeb.java:35) at processing.core.PApplet.handleKeyEvent(Unknown Source) at processing.core.PApplet.dequeueKeyEvents(Unknown Source) at processing.core.PApplet.handleDraw(Unknown Source) at processing.core.PApplet.run(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:662)

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• Emulating Visual Studio's Web Application "publish" at the command line

  - by cbp

  Hi, I am trying to automate my deployment process and am now thoroughly confused. I know that there are many questions on stackoverflow about this, but they all have different solutions and none of them work. I have a Web Application project which I usually publish by right-clicking and selecting "Publish". I get a dialog box where I use the following options: Build configuration: Release Publish method: File system Target location: C:\Deployments\MyWebsite Replace matching files with local copies I should mention that in the properties of the project I have "Items to deploy" set to "Only files needed to run this application". After running this, my entire solution is built, dependencies are resolved, build events are run, web.config transformations are applied and the website is copied to C:\Deployments\MyWebsite, although non-required files such as code-behind files are not copied. I have not been able to replicate this... in fact at this stage I'm not even sure which command line tool am I supposed to be using - msbuild, msdeploy or aspnet_compiler? This guy asks almost the same question but his solution doesn't work at all. For example, build events do not run correctly because the macros are not resolved. Whats more, the files do not get copied into the correct directory at all... I can't even begin to explain what happens!

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• How to perform a binary search on IList<T>?

  - by Daniel Brückner

  Simple question - given an IList<T> how do you perform a binary search without writing the method yourself and without copying the data to a type with build-in binary search support. My current status is the following. List<T>.BinarySearch() is not a member of IList<T> There is no equivalent of the ArrayList.Adapter() method for List<T> IList<T> does not inherit from IList, hence using ArrayList.Adapter() is not possible I tend to believe that is not possible with build-in methods, but I cannot believe that such a basic method is missing from the BCL/FCL. If it is not possible, who can give the shortest, fastest, smartest, or most beatiful binary search implementation for IList<T>? UPDATE We all know that a list must be sorted before using binary search, hence you can assume that it is. But I assume (but did not verify) it is the same problem with sort - how do you sort IList<T>? CONCLUSION There seems to be no build-in binary search for IList<T>. One can use First() and OrderBy() LINQ methods to search and sort, but it will likly have a performance hit. Implementing it yourself (as an extension method) seems the best you can do.

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• SQL UNION ALL with a INNER JOIN

  - by kOhm

  I'm looking for the best way to display all rows from two tables while joining first by one field (dwg) then where applicable a 2nd join on part. Table1 data consists of schematics(dwg) along with a list of parts required to build the item depicted in the drawing. Table2 consists of data about the actual parts ordered to build the schematic. Some parts in table2 are a combination of parts in table1 (ex: foo and bar in table1 were ordered as foobar in table2). I can display all rows in both tables with UNION ALL, but this doesn't join on both the dwg and part fields. I looked at FULL OUTER JOIN also, but I haven't figured out how to join first by dwg, then by part. Here is an example of the data. table1 table2 dwg part qty order dwg part qty ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- 123 foo 1 ord1 123 foobar 1 123 bar 1 ord1 123 bracket 2 123 widget 2 ord2 123 screw 4 123 bracket 4 ord2 123 nut 4 456 foo 1 ord2 123 widget 2 ord2 123 bracket 2 ord3 456 foo 1 Desired output: The goal is to create a view that provides visibility to all parts in table1 and the associated orders in table2 (including those parts that appear in one but not the other table) so that I can see all the drawing parts in table1 and the associated records in table2 along with records in table2 where the part wasn't in table1. part_request_order_report dwg part qty order part qty ----- ----- ----- ------ ----- ----- 123 foo 1 123 bar 1 123 widget 2 ord2 widget 2 123 bracket 4 ord1 bracket 2 123 bracket 4 ord2 bracket 2 123 ord1 foobar 1 123 ord1 screw 4 123 ord1 nut 4 456 foo 1 ord3 foo 1 Is this possible? Or am I better off iterating through the data to build the report table? Thanks in advance.

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• Exporting Maven properties from Ant code

  - by Gili

  I've embedded the following code within my POM: <plugin name="test"> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-antrun-plugin</artifactId> <executions> <execution> <phase>validate</phase> <configuration> <tasks> <pathconvert targetos="unix" property="project.build.directory.portable"> <path location="${project.build.directory}"/> </pathconvert> </tasks> </configuration> <goals> <goal>run</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> </plugin> I then reference ${project.build.directory.portable} from the run project action but it comes back as null. Executing <echo> within the Ant block shows the correct value. What am I doing wrong?

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• Form (or Formset?) to handle multiple table rows in Django

  - by Ben

  Hi, I'm working on my first Django application. In short, what it needs to do is to display a list of film titles, and allow users to give a rating (out of 10) to each film. I've been able to use the {{ form }} and {{ formset }} syntax in a template to produce a form which lets you rate one film at a time, which corresponds to one row in a MySQL table, but how do I produce a form that iterates over all the movie titles in the database and produces a form that lets you rate lots of them at once? At first, I thought this was what formsets were for, but I can't see any way to automatically iterate over the contents of a database table to produce items to go in the form, if you see what I mean. Currently, my views.py has this code: def survey(request): ScoreFormSet = formset_factory(ScoreForm) if request.method == 'POST': formset = ScoreFormSet(request.POST, request.FILES) if formset.is_valid(): return HttpResponseRedirect('/') else: formset = ScoreFormSet() return render_to_response('cf/survey.html', { 'formset':formset, }) And my survey.html has this: <form action="/survey/" method="POST"> <table> {{ formset }} </table> <input type = "submit" value = "Submit"> </form> Oh, and the definition of ScoreForm and Score from models.py are: class Score(models.Model): movie = models.ForeignKey(Movie) score = models.IntegerField() user = models.ForeignKey(User) class ScoreForm(ModelForm): class Meta: model = Score So, in case the above is not clear, what I'm aiming to produce is a form which has one row per movie, and each row shows a title, and has a box to allow the user to enter their score. If anyone can point me at the right sort of approach to this, I'd be most grateful. Thanks, Ben

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• PHP in Wordpress Posts - Is this okay?

  - by Thomas

  I've been working with some long lists of information and I've come up with a good way to post it in various formats on my wordpress blog posts. I installed the exec-PHP plugin, which allows you to run php in posts. I then created a new table (NEWTABLE) in my wordpress database and filled that table with names, scores, and other stuff. I was then able to use some pretty simple code to display the information in a wordpress post. Below is an example, but you could really do whatever you wanted. My question is - is there a problem with doing this? with security? or memory? I could just type out all the information in each post, but this is really much nicer. Any thoughts are appreciated. <?php $theResult = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM NEWTABLE WHERE Score < 100 ORDER BY LastName"); while($row = mysql_fetch_array($theResult)) { echo $row['FirstName']; echo " " . $row['LastName']; echo " " . $row['Score']; echo "<br />"; } ?>

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• how to update div tag in javascript with data from model for onsubmit form asp.net mvc

  - by michael

  In my page i have a form tag which submits to server ,gets data and redirects to same page. problem is the the div tag which has the data from server is not getting updated. how to do that in javascript <% using (Html.BeginForm("Addfile", "uploadfile", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "uploadform", enctype = "multipart/form-data" })) { %> <input type="file" id="addedFile" name="addedFile" /><br /> <input type="submit" id="addfile" value="Addfile" /> <div id="MyGrid"> //data from the model(server side) filelist is not updating</div> what will be the form onsubmit javascript function to update the div tag with the data from the model. and my uploadfile controller get post methods are as [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public ActionResult Upload() { return View(); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult AddFile(HttpPostedFileBase addedFile) { static List<string> fileList = new List<string>(); string filename = Path.GetFileName(addedFile.FileName); file.SaveAs(@"D:\Upload\" + filename); fileList.Add(filename); return("Upload",fileList); } thanks, michaela

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• Project management: Implementing custom errors in VS compilation process

  - by David Lively

  Like many architects, I've developed coding standards through years of experience to which I expect my developers to adhere. This is especially a problem with the crowd that believes that three or four years of experience makes you a senior-level developer.Approaching this as a training and code review issue has generated limited success. So, I was thinking that it would be great to be able to add custom compile-time errors to the build process to more strictly enforce this and other guidelines. For instance, we use stored procedures for ALL database access, which provides procedure-level security, db encapsulation (table structure is hidden from the app), and other benefits. (Note: I am not interested in starting a debate about this.) Some developers prefer inline SQL or parametrized queries, and that's fine - on their own time and own projects. I'd like a way to add a compilation check that finds, say, anything that looks like string sql = "insert into some_table (col1,col2) values (@col1, @col2);" and generates an error or, in certain circumstances, a warning, with a message like Inline SQL and parametrized queries are not permitted. Or, if they use the var keyword var x = new MyClass(); Variable definitions must be explicitly typed. Do Visual Studio and MSBuild provide a way to add this functionality? I'm thinking that I could use a regular expression to find unacceptable code and generate the correct error, but I'm not sure what, from a performance standpoint, is the best way to to integrate this into the build process. We could add a pre- or post-build step to run a custom EXE, but how can I return line- and file-specifc errors? Also, I'd like this to run after compilation of each file, rather than post-link. Is a regex the best way to perform this type of pattern matching, or should I go crazy and run the code through a C# parser, which would allow node-level validation via the parse tree? I'd appreciate suggestions and tales of prior experience.

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• django-social-auth for Facebook is redirecting home and not logging in

  - by Scott Rogowski

  I have had django-social-auth working for Google for quite some time now but am having problems with Facebook. I am at the point where clicking on the /login/facebook/ link will take me to the Facebook authorization page. I then click "go to app" and it redirects me to my home page but does not log in or create a user but does put some strange "#=" onto the back of my URL. Reading up on that, here https://developers.facebook.com/blog/post/552/, and here https://github.com/omab/django-social-auth/issues/199, it seems that would be happening if the redirect uri was not defined. However, on my facebook app settings, I have the following (replacing my site with example.com): + App Namespace: "example" + Site URL: "http://example.com/complete/facebook/" + Site Domain: "example.com" + Sandbox Mode: "On" + Post-Authorize Redirect URL: "http://apps.facebook.com/example/" + Deauthorize URL: "http://www.example.com/" + Post-Authorize URL: "http://example.com/complete/facebook/" The request that django-social-auth is sending to facebook is (replacing my info again): "https://www.facebook.com/dialog/oauth?scope=email&state=*&redirect_uri=http%3A%2F%2Fexample.com%2Fcomplete%2Ffacebook%2F%3Fredirect_state%3D***&client_id=*" The /complete/facebook/ is what is in the documentation and google works as /complete/google/ What am I missing here?

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• jquery clone only once

  - by tsiger

  I have a series of divs like this: <div id="available-posts"> <div class="post" id="unique_id"> <a href="#" class="addme">Add</a> Some text </div> <div class="post" id="unique_id"> <a href="#" class="addme">Add</a> Some text </div> </div> The unique_id is a different number for each of the divs. Now i have a new empty div like this <div class="related-posts"></div> And i clone items in there. The thing is that i want to check if an item is already cloned. If it is i want to stop it from being cloned again. This is how i clone items: // clone it $('.addme').live('click', function() { $(this).parents('div.thepost').clone().fadeIn('normal').appendTo('#related-posts').find('a.addme').html('Remove').removeClass('addme').addClass('removeme'); return false; }); // remove it $('.removeme').live('click', function() { $(this).parents('div.thepost').fadeOut('normal', function() {$(this).remove(); }); return false; }); In other words i want the cloned list to contain only unique items. Not for example 2 clones of the same post. *edit: i am using live coz the first list (available posts) is populated through an AJAX call.

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• Location of Embedly (JQuery-Preview) Results

  - by user749798

  Embedly/Jquery-Preview has been fantastic. However, I'm trying to change the location of the preview result, and having trouble. Right now, the result appears right below the input field...but I'd rather have it in a separate part of the page. Is there a way to do this? I've tried changing the location of the selector and loading divs, but that hasn't helped. It seems to ignore those divs and put it right below the submit button. Below is my code: <form accept-charset="UTF-8" action="private" class="new_comment" data-remote="true" id="new_comment" method="post"> <input class="photo_comm" id="comment_comment" name="comment[comment]" placeholder="add a comment or link..." size="30" type="text" /><span type="text" id="counter">1000</span> <input class="btn btn-primary btn-mini" data-disable-with="Submitting..." name="commit" type="submit" value="Post" /> </form> <!-- Placeholder that tells Preview where to put the loading icon--> <div class="loading"> <img src='http://embedly.github.com/jquery-preview/images/loading-rectangle.gif'> </div> <!-- Placeholder that tells Preview where to put the selector--> <div class="selector"></div> $('#comment_comment').preview({ key:'60f1dcdf3258476794784148a6eb65e7', // Sign up for a key: http://embed.ly/pricing selector : {type:'rich'}, preview : { submit : function(e, data){ e.preventDefault(); $.ajax({ dataType: 'script', url: this.form.attr('action'), type: 'POST', data: data }); }, }, autoplay : 0, maxwidth : 400, display : {display : 'rich'} });

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• ASP.NET inline code in a server control

  - by John

  Ok, we had a problem come up today at work. It is a strange one that I never would have even thought to try. <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" > Ok, it is very ugly and I wouldn't have ever tried it myself. It came up in some code that was written years ago but had been working up until this weekend after a bunch of updates were installed on a client's web server where the code is hosted. The actual result of this is the following html: <form name="form1" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=&lt;%= ID %>" id="form1"> The url ends up like this: http://localhost:6735/Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %> Which as you can see, demonstrates that the "<" symbol is being encoded before ASP.NET actually processes the page. It seems strange to me as I thought that even though it is not pretty by any means, it should work. I'm confused. To make matters worse, the client insists that it is a bug in IE since it appears to work in Firefox. In fact, it is broken in Firefox as well, except for some reason Firefox treats it as a 0. Any ideas on why this happens and how to fix it easily? Everything I try to render within the server control ends up getting escaped. Edit Ok, I found a "fix" <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action='<%# String.Format("Default.aspx?id={0}", 5) %>' > But that requires me to call DataBind which is adding more of a hack to the original hack. Guess if nobody thinks of anything else I'll have to go with that.

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• Automatically hyper-link URL's and Email's using C#, whilst leaving bespoke tags in place

  - by marcusstarnes

  I have a site that enables users to post messages to a forum. At present, if a user types a web address or email address and posts it, it's treated the same as any other piece of text. There are tools that enable the user to supply hyper-linked web and email addresses (via some bespoke tags/markup) - these are sometimes used, but not always. In addition, a bespoke 'Image' tag can also be used to reference images that are hosted on the web. My objective is to both cater for those that use these existing tools to generate hyper-linked addresses, but to also cater for those that simply type a web or email address in, and to then automatically convert this to a hyper-linked address for them (as soon as they submit their post). I've found one or two regular expressions that convert a plain string web or email address, however, I obviously don't want to perform any manipulation on addresses that are already being handled via the sites bespoke tagging, and that's where I'm stuck - how to EXCLUDE any web or email addresses that are already catered for via the bespoke tagging - I wan't to leave them as is. Here are some examples of bespoke tagging for the variations that I need to be left alone: [URL=www.msn.com]www.msn.com[/URL] [URL=http://www.msn.com]http://www.msn.com[/URL] [[email protected]][email protected][/EMAIL] [IMG]www.msn.com/images/test.jpg[/IMG] [IMG]http://www.msn.com/images/test.jpg[/IMG] The following examples would however ideally need to be automatically converted into web & email links respectively: www.msn.com http://www.msn.com [email protected] Ideally, the 'converted' links would just have the appropriate bespoke tags applied to them as per the initial examples earlier in this post, so rather than: <a href="..." etc. they'd become: [URL=http://www.. etc.) Unfortunately, we have a LOT of historic data stored with this bespoke tagging throughout, so for now, we'd like to retain that rather than implementing an entirely new way of storing our users posts. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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• ASP.NET MVC3 - Bug using Javascript

  - by ebb

  Hey there, I'm trying to use Ajax.BeginForm() to POST A Json result from my controller (I'm using MVC3). When the Json result is called it should be sent to a javascript function and extract the object using "var myObject = content.get_response().get_object();", However it just throws a "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object doesn't support this property or method" when trying to invoke the Ajax POST. My code: Controller: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string message) { return Json(new { Success = true, Message = message }); } View: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.unobtrusive-ajax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function JsonAdd_OnComplete(mycontext) { var myObject = mycontext.get_response().get_object(); alert(mycontext.Message); } </script> </head> <body> <div> @using(Ajax.BeginForm("Index", "Home", new AjaxOptions() { HttpMethod = "POST", OnComplete = "JsonAdd_OnComplete" })) { @Html.TextBox("message") <input type="submit" value="SUBMIT" /> } </div> </body> </html> The strange thing is that the exactly same code works in MVC2 - Is this a bug, or have I forgot something? Thanks in advance.

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