Search Results

Search found 10033 results on 402 pages for 'fuzz testing'.

Page 320/402 | < Previous Page | 316 317 318 319 320 321 322 323 324 325 326 327  | Next Page >

  • JavaScript and JQuery - Encoding HTML

    - by user70192
    Hello, I have a web page that has a textarea defined on it like so: <textarea id="myTextArea" rows="6" cols="75"></textarea> There is a chance that a user may enter single and double quotes in this field. For instance, I have been testing with the following string: Just testin' using single and double "quotes". I'm hoping the end of this task is comin'. Additionally, the user may enter HTML code, which I would prefer to prevent. Regardless, I am passing the contents of this textarea onto web service. I must encode the contents of the textarea in JavaScript before I can send it on. Currently, I'm trying the following: var contents $('<div/>').text($("#myTextArea).val()).html(); alert(contents); I was expecting contents to display Just testin&#39; using single and double &#34;quotes&#34;. I&#39;m hoping the end of this task is comin&#39;. Instead, the original string is printed out. Beyond just double-and-single quotes, there are a variety of entities to consider. Because of this, I was assuming there would be a way to encode HTML before passing it on. Can someone please tell me how to do this? Thank you,

    Read the article

  • Why is Microsoft under-supporting or under-developping VBNET?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I ran into a situation where the lack of some features has become somewhat frustrating while developping in VB.NET 2.0. Since my first day of programming, I've always been a C programmer, and still am. Naturally, I chose C# as my favorite .NET language. Recently, a customer of mine has obliged that all of his development projects which disregard SharePoint development have to be written in VB.NET 2.0, that is to avoid conflictual systems to come into some problems. That is a legitimate choice of his which I approve somehow, since he's running some old central systems and is slowly migrating toward latest technologies. As for me, I would have prefered to go with C#, but then, never having done much VB in my life, I see it as an opportunity to learn somethings new, how to handle this and that in VBNET, etc. Except that the syntax is really too verbose for me, which is a pain! I got used to it and that is fine. However, I recently wanted to use the InternalsVisibleToAttribute which I discovered lastly here on SO. But then, in addition to not being able to have lambda expression that returns no value, which I discovered months ago, today I learn that I can't use the attribute in VBNET! Here is what I have read in an article: [...] Sorry VB.Net developers, Microsoft is again shunning you guys and this attribute is NOT available to you.... :( And here is the link: InternalsVisibleTo: Testing internal methods in .Net 2.0 I have heard from Anders Hejlsberg mouth while watching a Webcast from his presentation of .NET 4.0 Framework that the VBNET team was working or has worked in collaboration with the C# team (Eric Lippert and others) in order to bring VBNET to offer the same features as C# offers. But then, I say to myself that the VBNET team has a huge step forward to make, if already in .NET 2.0, some of the most important features lacked! So my question is this: Why is Microsoft under-supporting or under-developping VBNET? Will VBNET ever be lacking the C# features?

    Read the article

  • python-xmpp and looping through list of recipients to receive and IM message

    - by David
    I can't figure out the problem and want some input as to whether my Python code is incorrect, or if this is an issue or design limitation of Python XMPP library. I'm new to Python by the way. Here's snippets of code in question below. What I'd like to do is read in a text file of IM recipients, one recipient per line, in XMPP/Jabber ID format. This is read into a Python list variable. I then instantiate an XMPP client session and loop through the list of recipients and send a message to each recipient. Then sleep some time and repeat test. This is for load testing the IM client of recipients as well as IM server. There is code to alternately handle case of taking only one recipient from command line input instead of from file. What ends up happening is that Python does iterate/loop through the list but only last recipient in list receives message. Switch order of recipients to verify. Kind of looks like Python XMPP library is not sending it out right, or I'm missing a step with the library calls, because the debug print statements during runtime indicate the looping works correctly. recipient = "" delay = 60 useFile = False recList = [] ... elif (sys.argv[i] == '-t'): recipient = sys.argv[i+1] useFile = False elif (sys.argv[i] == '-tf'): fil = open(sys.argv[i+1], 'r') recList = fil.readlines() fil.close() useFile = True ... # disable debug msgs cnx = xmpp.Client(svr,debug=[]) cnx.connect(server=(svr,5223)) cnx.auth(user,pwd,'imbot') cnx.sendInitPresence() while (True): if useFile: for listUser in recList: cnx.send(xmpp.Message(listUser,msg+str(msgCounter))) print "sending to "+listUser+" msg = "+msg+str(msgCounter) else: cnx.send(xmpp.Message(recipient,msg+str(msgCounter))) msgCounter += 1 time.sleep(delay)

    Read the article

  • How to deploy RSWebParts.cab manually?

    - by denni
    I'm using the SSRS 2005 Web parts to display my reports in a MOSS 2007 SP1 Portal. I have successfully installed the Web parts in my development, testing, and UAT servers using the following command: stsadm -o addwppack -filename path/to/RSWebParts.cab. But when I tried running the same command in the production server, it will give me the following error: This solution contains no resources scoped for a Web application and cannot be deployed to a particular Web application. I know I usually will get this kind of error message when I tried to deploy my custom solutions having no Web application resources (such as web.config entries) to a specific Web application. But this is not my custom solution, it is an out-of-the-box SSRS Web part and it does have resources scoped to a Web application. I tried to even use different combination of the command by providing the -url, -globalinstall, and -force switches but it still give the same error. The configuration of the 4 servers are exactly the same, both from software and hardware perspectives. All other features are working properly on the production server. I even tried to extract the cab file manually to the bin folder of my Web application, then modify the Web.config manually to include the SafeControl element (copied from the manifest.xml inside the cab file). But it gave me an error saying it couldn't find the resources file. Even though, I extracted the whole file, including the resource files in the bin folder. Is there anyone who can help me resolve the problem? Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • Apache Not Accepting a Path in My Home Folder

    - by Promather
    I have trying to set up an Apache site to use a folder in my home folder without any success. I exactly followed the steps in this page: https://help.ubuntu.com/community/ApacheMySQLPHP yet I did not succeed; I keep getting error 403, which says that the server doesn't have permission to access the requested page. I searched forums and many suggested changing the permission of the folder. I went straight away and set the permission to 777, but that didn't solve the problem. I made another search and somebody gave me a clue, which is that it could be because my home folder is encrypted. I believe this could be the problem, but: What is the relation between encryption and Apache? I suppose Apache server is requesting the file from the system, rather than trying to access the file bytes! Is there anyway to solve this problem? I don't want to move the folder to /var/www because I am using this Apache for testing, so I want whatever change I make to be immediately reflected, rather than having to copy files which is error prone.

    Read the article

  • Using both chunked transfer encoding and gzip

    - by RadiantHeart
    I recently started using gzip on my site and it worked like charm on all browsers except Opera which gives an error saying it could not decompress the content due to damaged data. From what I can gather from testing and googling it might be a problem with using both gzip and chunked transfer encoding. The fact that there is no error when requesting small files like css-files also points in that direction. Is this a known issue or is there something else that I havent thought about? Someone also mentioned that it could have something to do with sending a Content-Length header. Here is a simplified version of the most relevant part of my code: $contents = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); header('Content-Encoding: '.$encoding); print("\x1f\x8b\x08\x00\x00\x00\x00\x00"); $size = strlen($contents); $contents = gzcompress($contents, 9); $contents = substr($contents, 0, $size); print($contents); exit();

    Read the article

  • UIWebViewDelegate returns different error message on iPod Touch 2G and 3G

    - by lostInTransit
    Hi I have an app developed using SDK 3.0. My view has a UIWebView whose delegate is the viewcontroller. I want to show an error message when the webview does not load (in case the touch goes out of wifi range or wifi is turned off) I override this method to show an alert - (void)webView:(UIWebView *)wbView didFailLoadWithError:(NSError *)error But this caused an issue when some links were clicked on the webview. The page loaded but if some images from the previous page were not loaded, the method call was triggered. Testing on an iPod Touch 3G, the NSError's userInfo has the localized description as no Internet connection if load fails due to no internet connection. But this only seems to be true for an iPod Touch 3G. 2G shows a different message (I got to know from some beta testers. They aren't very technical so can't tell them to get me the logs or anything.) Can anyone with an iPod Touch 2G tell me the values for the NSError userInfo? Or better still, did anyone else face this issue? How did you resolve it? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Set-Cookie error appearing in logs when deployed to google appengine

    - by Jesse
    I have been working towards converting one of our applications to be threadsafe. When testing on the local dev app server everything is working as expected. However, upon deployment of the application it seems that Cookies are not being written correctly? Within the logs there is an error with no stack trace: 2012-11-27 16:14:16.879 Set-Cookie: idd_SRP=Uyd7InRpbnlJZCI6ICJXNFdYQ1ZITSJ9JwpwMAou.Q6vNs9vGR-rmg0FkAa_P1PGBD94; expires=Wed, 28-Nov-2012 23:59:59 GMT; Path=/ Here is the block of code in question: # area of the code the emits the cookie cookie = Cookie.SimpleCookie() if not domain: domain = self.__domain self.__updateCookie(cookie, expires=expires, domain=domain) self.__updateSessionCookie(cookie, domain=domain) print cookie.output() Cookie helper methods: def __updateCookie(self, cookie, expires=None, domain=None): """ Takes a Cookie.SessionCookie instance an updates it with all of the private persistent cookie data, expiry and domain. @param cookie: a Cookie.SimpleCookie instance @param expires: a datetime.datetime instance to use for expiry @param domain: a string to use for the cookie domain """ cookieValue = AccountCookieManager.CookieHelper.toString(self.cookie) cookieName = str(AccountCookieManager.COOKIE_KEY % self.partner.pid) cookie[cookieName] = cookieValue cookie[cookieName]['path'] = '/' cookie[cookieName]['domain'] = domain if not expires: # set the expiry date to 1 day from now expires = datetime.date.today() + datetime.timedelta(days = 1) expiryDate = expires.strftime("%a, %d-%b-%Y 23:59:59 GMT") cookie[cookieName]['expires'] = expiryDate def __updateSessionCookie(self, cookie, domain=None): """ Takes a Cookie.SessionCookie instance an updates it with all of the private session cookie data and domain. @param cookie: a Cookie.SimpleCookie instance @param expires: a datetime.datetime instance to use for expiry @param domain: a string to use for the cookie domain """ cookieValue = AccountCookieManager.CookieHelper.toString(self.sessionCookie) cookieName = str(AccountCookieManager.SESSION_COOKIE_KEY % self.partner.pid) cookie[cookieName] = cookieValue cookie[cookieName]['path'] = '/' cookie[cookieName]['domain'] = domain Again, the libraries in use are: Python 2.7 Django 1.2 Any suggestion on what I can try?

    Read the article

  • ASP.net AppendHeader not working in ASP MVC

    - by Chao
    I'm having problems getting AppendHeader to work properly if I am also using an authorize filter. I'm using an actionfilter for my AJAX actions that applies Expires, Last-Modified, Cache-Control and Pragma (though while testing I have tried including it in the action method itself with no change in results). If I don't have an authorize filter the headers work fine. Once I add the filter the headers I tried to add get stripped. The headers I want to add Response.AppendHeader("Expires", "Sun, 19 Nov 1978 05:00:00 GMT"); Response.AppendHeader("Last-Modified", String.Format("{0:r}", DateTime.Now)); Response.AppendHeader("Cache-Control", "no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate"); Response.AppendHeader("Cache-Control", "post-check=0, pre-check=0"); Response.AppendHeader("Pragma", "no-cache"); An example of the headers from a correct page: Server ASP.NET Development Server/9.0.0.0 Date Mon, 14 Jun 2010 17:22:24 GMT X-AspNet-Version 2.0.50727 X-AspNetMvc-Version 2.0 Pragma no-cache Expires Sun, 19 Nov 1978 05:00:00 GMT Last-Modified Mon, 14 Jun 2010 18:22:24 GMT Cache-Control no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0 Content-Type text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Length 352 Connection Close And from an incorrect page: Server ASP.NET Development Server/9.0.0.0 Date Mon, 14 Jun 2010 17:27:34 GMT X-AspNet-Version 2.0.50727 X-AspNetMvc-Version 2.0 Pragma no-cache, no-cache Cache-Control private, s-maxage=0 Content-Type text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Length 4937 Connection Close

    Read the article

  • ajax-based login fails: IE6 and IE7 ajax calls delete session data (session_id however is kept)

    - by mateipavel
    This question comes after two days of testing and debugging, right after the shock I had seeing that none of the websites i build using ajax-based login work in IE<8 The most simplified scenario si this: 1. mypage.php : session_start(); $_SESSION['mytest'] = 'x'; <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js"> </script> <script type="text/javascript"> function loadit() { $.post('http://www.mysite.com/myajax.php', {action: 'test'}, function(result){alert(result);}, 'html'); } </script> <a href="javascript:void(0);" onclick="loadit(); return false;">test link</a> 2. myajax.php session_start(); print_r($_SESSION); print session_id(); When I click the "test link", the ajax call is made and the result is alert()-ed: IE6: weird bullet-character (&bull;) IE7: Array( ) <session_id> IE8/FF (Expected behaviour): Array( [mytest] => 'x' ) <session_id> I would really appreciate some pointers regarding: 1. why this happens 2. how to fix it Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Debugging strategy to find the cause of bad_alloc

    - by SalamiArmi
    I have a fairly serious bug in my program - occasional calls to new() throw a bad_alloc. From the documentation I can find on bad_alloc, it seems to be thrown for these reasons: When the computer runs out of memory (which definitely isn't happening, I have 4GB of RAM, program throws bad_alloc when using less than 5MB (checked in taskmanager) with nothing serious running in the background). If the memory becomes too fragmented to allocate new blocks (which, again, is unlikely - the largest sized block I ever allocate would be about 1KB, and that doesn't get done more than 100 times before the crash occurs). Based on these descriptions, I don't really have anywhere in which a bad_alloc could be thrown. However, the application I am running runs more than one thread, which could possibly be contributing to the problem. By testing all of the objects on a single thread, everything seems to be working smoothly. The only other thing that I can think of that is going on here could be some kind of race-condition caused by calling new() in more than one place at the same time, but I've tried adding mutexes to prevent that behaviour to no effect. Because the program is several hundred lines and I have no idea where the problem actually lies, I'm not sure of what, if any, code snippets to post. Instead, I was wondering if there were any tools that will help me test for this kind of thing, or if there are any general strategies that can help me with this problem. I'm using Microsoft Visual Studio 2008, with Poco for threading.

    Read the article

  • Uncatchable AccesViolationException

    - by Roy
    Hi all, I'm getting close to desperate.. I am developing a field service application for Windows Mobile 6.1 using C# and quite some p/Invoking. (I think I'm referencing about 50 native functions) On normal circumstances this goes without any problem, but when i start stressing the GC i'm getting a nasty 0xC0000005 error witch seems uncatchable. In my test i'm rapidly closing and opening a dialog form (the form did make use of native functions, but for testing i commented these out) and after a while the Windows Mobile error reporter comes around to tell me that there was an fatal error in my application. My code uses a try-catch around the Application.Run(masterForm); and hooks into the CurrentDomain.UnhandledException event, but the application still crashes. Even when i attach the debugger, visual studio just tells me "The remote connection to the device has been lost" when the exception occurs.. Since I didn't succeed to catch the exception in the managed environment, I tried to make sense out of the Error Reporter log file. But this doesn't make any sense, the only consistent this about the error is the application where it occurs in. The thread where the application occurs in is unknown to me, the module where the error occurs differs from time to time (I've seen my application.exe, WS2.dll, netcfagl3_5.dll and mscoree3_5.dll), even the error code is not always the same. (most of the time it's 0xC0000005, but i've also seen an 0X80000002 error, which is a warning accounting the first byte?) I tried debugging through bugtrap, but strangely enough this crashes with the same error code (0xC0000005). I tried to open the kdmp file with visual studio, but i can't seem to make any sense out of this because it only shows me disassembler code when i step into the error (unless i have the right .pbb files, which i don't). Same goes for WinDbg. To make a long story short: I frankly don't have a single clue where to look for this error, and I'm hoping some bright soul on stackoverflow does. I'm happy to provide some code but at this moment I don't know which piece to provide.. Any help is greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • How to play .3gp videos in mobile using RTMP (FMS) and HTTP?

    - by Sunil Kumar
    Hi I am not able to play video on mobile device which is .3gp container and H.263 / AMR_NB encoded. I just want to play my website videos in mobile device also just like youtube.com. I want to use RTMP and HTTP both. My requirement is as follows- Which codec and container will be best? Should I use FLV to play video on mobile device? RTSP required or can be use RTMP? Is NetStream and NetConnection methods different from Flash Player in Flash Lite Player? How to play 3gp video using RTMP stream ie. ns.play(“mp4:mobilevideo.3gp”, 0, -1, true) is it ok or any thing else required? For mobile browser and computer browser, can I use single player or I have to make different player for computer browser and mobile browser? It would be better if I can do it with single player for both mobile and computer browser. Sample code required for testing. If you can. I got below article in which they mention that we can play video 3gp container in mobile also. Please find the article. Articles URL- http://www.hsharma.com/tech/articles/flash-lite-30-video-formats-and-video-volume/ http://www.adobe.com/devnet/logged_in/dmotamedi_fms3.html Thanks Sunil Kumar

    Read the article

  • change custom mapping - sharp architecture/ fluent nhibernate

    - by csetzkorn
    I am using the sharp architecture which also deploys FNH. The db schema sql code is generated during the testing like this: [TestFixture] [Category("DB Tests")] public class MappingIntegrationTests { [SetUp] public virtual void SetUp() { string[] mappingAssemblies = RepositoryTestsHelper.GetMappingAssemblies(); configuration = NHibernateSession.Init( new SimpleSessionStorage(), mappingAssemblies, new AutoPersistenceModelGenerator().Generate(), "../../../../app/XXX.Web/NHibernate.config"); } [TearDown] public virtual void TearDown() { NHibernateSession.CloseAllSessions(); NHibernateSession.Reset(); } [Test] public void CanConfirmDatabaseMatchesMappings() { var allClassMetadata = NHibernateSession.GetDefaultSessionFactory().GetAllClassMetadata(); foreach (var entry in allClassMetadata) { NHibernateSession.Current.CreateCriteria(entry.Value.GetMappedClass(EntityMode.Poco)) .SetMaxResults(0).List(); } } /// <summary> /// Generates and outputs the database schema SQL to the console /// </summary> [Test] public void CanGenerateDatabaseSchema() { System.IO.TextWriter writeFile = new StreamWriter(@"d:/XXXSqlCreate.sql"); var session = NHibernateSession.GetDefaultSessionFactory().OpenSession(); new SchemaExport(configuration).Execute(true, false, false, session.Connection, writeFile); } private Configuration configuration; } I am trying to use: using FluentNHibernate.Automapping; using xxx.Core; using SharpArch.Data.NHibernate.FluentNHibernate; using FluentNHibernate.Automapping.Alterations; namespace xxx.Data.NHibernateMaps { public class x : IAutoMappingOverride<x> { public void Override(AutoMapping<Tx> mapping) { mapping.Map(x => x.text, "text").CustomSqlType("varchar(max)"); mapping.Map(x => x.url, "url").CustomSqlType("varchar(max)"); } } } To change the standard mapping of strings from NVARCHAR(255) to varchar(max). This is not picked up during the sql schema generation. I also tried: mapping.Map(x = x.text, "text").Length(100000); Any ideas? Thanks. Christian

    Read the article

  • General N-Tier Architecture Question

    - by whatispunk
    In an N-Tier app you're supposed to have a business logic layer and a data access layer. Is it bad to simply have two assemblies: BusinessLogicLayer.dll and DataAccessLayer.dll to handle all this logic? How do you actually represent these layers. It seems silly, the way I've seen it, to have a BusinessLogic class library containing classes like: CustomerBusinessLogic.cs, OrderBusinessLogic.cs, etc. each calling their appropriately named cousin in the DataAccessLayer class library, i.e. CustomerDataAccess.cs, OrderDataAccess.cs. I want to create a web app using MVP and it doesn't seem so cut and dry as this. There are lots of opinions about where the business logic is supposed to be put in MVP and I'm not sure I've found a really great answer yet. I want this project to be easily testable, and I am trying to adhere to TDD methodologies as best I can. I intend to use MSTest and Rhino Mocks for testing. I was thinking of something like the following for my architecture: I'd use LINQ-To-SQL to talk to the database. WCF services to define data contract interfaces for the business logic layer. Then use MVP with ASP.NET Forms for the UI/BLL. Now, this isn't the start of this project, most of the LINQ stuff is already done, so its stuck. The WCF service would replace the existing DataAccessLayer assembly and the UI/BLL would replace the BusinessLogicLayer assembly etc. This sort of makes sense in my head, but its getting really late. Anyone that's traveled down this path have any guidance? Good links? Warnings? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Using singleton instead of a global static instance

    - by Farstucker
    I ran into a problem today and a friend recommended I use a global static instance or more elegantly a singleton pattern. I spent a few hours reading about singletons but a few things still escape me. Background: What Im trying to accomplish is creating an instance of an API and use this one instance in all my classes (as opposed to making a new connection, etc). There seems to be about 100 ways of creating a singleton but with some help from yoda I found some thread safe examples. ..so given the following code: public sealed class Singleton { public static Singleton Instance { get; private set; } private Singleton() { APIClass api = new APIClass(); //Can this be done? } static Singleton() { Instance = new Singleton(); } } How/Where would you instantiate the this new class and how should it be called from a separate class? EDIT: I realize the Singleton class can be called with something like Singleton obj1 = Singleton.Instance(); but would I be able to access the methods within the APIs Class (ie. obj1.Start)? (not that I need to, just asking) EDIT #2: I might have been a bit premature in checking the answer but I do have one small thing that is still causing me problems. The API is launching just fine, unfortunately Im able to launch two instances? New Code public sealed class SingletonAPI { public static SingletonAPI Instance { get; private set; } private SingletonAPI() {} static SingletonAPI() { Instance = new SingletonAPI(); } // API method: public void Start() { API myAPI = new API();} } but if I try to do something like this... SingletonAPI api = SingletonAPI.Instance; api.Start(); SingletonAPI api2 = SingletonAPI.Instance; // This was just for testing. api2.Start(); I get an error saying that I cannot start more than one instance.

    Read the article

  • In Seam what's the difference between injected EntityManager and getEntityManager from EntityHome

    - by Navi
    I am testing a Seam application using the needle test API. In my code I am using the getEntityManager() method from EntityHome. When I run the unit tests against an in memory database I get the following exception: java.lang.IllegalStateException: No application context active at org.jboss.seam.Component.forName(Component.java:1945) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:2005) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1983) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1977) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1972) at org.jboss.seam.framework.Controller.getComponentInstance(Controller.java:272) at org.jboss.seam.framework.PersistenceController.getPersistenceContext(PersistenceController.java:20) at org.jboss.seam.framework.EntityHome.getEntityManager(EntityHome.java:177) etc .. I can resolve some of these errors by injecting the EntityManager with @In EntityManager entityManager; Unfortunately the persist method of EntityHome also calls the getEntityManager. This means a lot of mocks or rewriting the code somehow. Is there any workaround and why is this exception thrown anyway? I am using Seam 2.2.0 GA by the way. There is nothing special about the components. They are generated by seam-gen. The test is performed with in memory database - I followed the examples in http://jbosscc-needle.sourceforge.net/jbosscc-needle/1.0/db-util.html.

    Read the article

  • VMWare steals IP addresses [closed]

    - by Ishan Amin
    I'm having a peculiar problem, that I think I have narrowed down to VMware. For the past one year, every once in a while we lose internet connection and not all users (about 10 users) go down at the same time, its usually one-by-one. First someone will call me and say "Internet is down" and then we would go reset the router and modem and switch and it would be working again for a while, then go down again without any pattern or replicatable sequence. We'd go repeat the steps again to get everyone in the office running again. We called our Internet Service Provider and they constantly say, We see your modem and we see your router and from thier end everything is OK. we replaced our router and switch and modem, twice! Last friday, it dawned upon me, that everytime we turn on a VMware machine, this sequence of taking everyone down starts, which also explains the message that my users get for "IP Conflict Found" So we do alot of VMware testing and lo and behold, it takes my Internet down. My Yahoo and Gtalk would continue working but www is down when the VMware machines are started. I do use bridged networking to all the VMware machines, but I dont know what else to set it at. now, sorry for this long rambling but anyone have any clue on how to stop this? thanks IA

    Read the article

  • Using xsi:nil in XML

    - by Matt
    I am generating an XML file from a VB.NET app. The document was generating fine before I tried to add nillable elements. I am now testing putting in just one nil element as: <blah xsi:nil="true"></blah> Once this element is in place and I try to view the XML file in IE it is unable to display. I am receiving: > The XML page cannot be displayed > Cannot view XML input using XSL style > sheet. Please correct the error and > then click the Refresh button, or try > again later. > > -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- > > The operation completed successfully. > Error processing resource If I remove this one element it displays fine again. What am I missing here?

    Read the article

  • Regex For Finding Ctypes with Int32

    - by Stefan H
    (Hey all, I am looking for a little regex help... I am trying to find all CType(expression,Int32) s and replace them with CInt(expression) This, however, is proving quite difficult, considering there could be a nested Ctype(expression, Int32) within the regex match. Does anyone have any ideas for how to best go about doing this? Here is what I have now: Dim str As String = "CType((original.Width * CType((targetSize / CType(original.Height, Single)), Single)), Int32)" Dim exp As New Regex("CType\((.+), Int32\)") str = exp.Replace(str, "CInt($1)") But this will match the entire string and replace it. I was thinking of doing a recursive function to find the outer most match, and then work inwards, but that still presents a problem with things like CType(replaceChars(I), Int32)), Chr(CType(replacementChars(I), Int32) Any tips would be appreciated. Input returnString.Replace(Chr(CType(replaceChars(I), Int32)), Chr(CType(replacementChars(I), Int32))) Output: returnString.Replace(Chr(CInt(replaceChars(I))),Chr(CInt(replacementChars(I)))) Edit: Been working on it a little more and have a recursive function that I'm still working out the kinks in. Recursion + regex. it kinda hurts. Private Function FindReplaceCInts(ByVal strAs As String) As String System.Console.WriteLine(String.Format("Testing : {0}", strAs)) Dim exp As New Regex("CType\((.+), Int32\)") If exp.Match(strAs).Success Then For Each match As Match In exp.Matches(strAs) If exp.Match(match.Value.Substring(2)).Success Then Dim replaceT As String = match.Value.Substring(2) Dim Witht As String = FindReplaceCInts(match.Value.Substring(2)) System.Console.WriteLine(strAs.IndexOf(replaceT)) strAs.Replace(replaceT, Witht) End If Next strAs = exp.Replace(strAs, "CInt($1)") End If Return strAs End Function Cheers,

    Read the article

  • QueryString malformed after URLDecode

    - by pdavis
    I'm trying to pass in a Base64 string into a C#.Net web application via the QueryString. When the string arrives the "+" (plus) sign is being replaced by a space. It appears that the automatic URLDecode process is doing this. I have no control over what is being passed via the QueryString. Is there any way to handle this server side? Example: http://localhost:3399/Base64.aspx?VLTrap=VkxUcmFwIHNldCB0byAiRkRTQT8+PE0iIHBsdXMgb3IgbWludXMgNSBwZXJjZW50Lg== Produces: VkxUcmFwIHNldCB0byAiRkRTQT8 PE0iIHBsdXMgb3IgbWludXMgNSBwZXJjZW50Lg== People have suggested URLEncoding the querystring: System.Web.HttpUtility.UrlEncode(yourString) I can't do that as I have no control over the calling routine (which is working fine with other languages). There was also the suggestion of replacing spaces with a plus sign: Request.QueryString["VLTrap"].Replace(" ", "+"); I had though of this but my concern with it, and I should have mentioned this to start, is that I don't know what other characters might be malformed in addition to the plus sign. My main goal is to intercept the QueryString before it is run through the decoder. To this end I tried looking at Request.QueryString.toString() but this contained the same malformed information. Is there any way to look at the raw QueryString before it is URLDecoded? After further testing it appears that .Net expects everything coming in from the QuerString to be URL encoded but the browser does not automatically URL encode GET requests.

    Read the article

  • How does MSN filter spam?

    - by Marius
    I am trying to create a newsletter for our business. The last few days have been spent testing, and one of things I have noticed is that MSN seemingly randomly filters out some of my test messages. This is super-frustrating. I like the PEAR Mail MIME-package, and have been using that. I may send one email from one of our servers, resulting in the message getting through, and in the next minute, the same message sent from our other server ends up in the junk folder. Then if I add an attachment to the email, and the same message passes though the filter from the server that was previously blocked. I think. What the ####? Is this like throwing a dice, without me having any control over what is trash, and what isn't? I have sent email from several servers, all of which are shared. But I am unsure this is the problem. The problem is that it is seemingly random how MSN filters email. Some emails get through, and some other don't for seemingly irrational reasons. I am running out of ideas, but I am not giving up. Therefore I am writing to you for HARDCORE technical info on how MSN filters spam.

    Read the article

  • decimal.TryParse() drops leading "1"

    - by Martin Harris
    Short and sweet version: On one machine out of around a hundred test machines decimal.TryParse() is converting "1.01" to 0.01 Okay, this is going to sound crazy but bare with me... We have a client applications that communicates with a webservice through JSON, and that service returns a decimal value as a string so we store it as a string in our model object: [DataMember(Name = "value")] public string Value { get; set; } When we display that value on screen it is formatted to a specific number of decimal places. So the process we use is string - decimal then decimal - string. The application is currently undergoing final testing and is running on more than 100 machines, where this all works fine. However on one machine if the decimal value has a leading '1' then it is replaced by a zero. I added simple logging to the code so it looks like this: Log("Original string value: {0}", value); decimal val; if (decimal.TryParse(value, out val)) { Log("Parsed decimal value: {0}", val); string output = val.ToString(format, CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.NumberFormat); Log("Formatted string value: {0}", output); return output; } On my machine - any every other client machine - the logfile output is: Original string value: 1.010000 Parsed decimal value: 1.010000 Formatted string value: 1.01 On the defective machine the output is: Original string value: 1.010000 Parsed decimal value: 0.010000 Formatted string value: 0.01 So it would appear that the decimal.TryParse method is at fault. Things we've tried: Uninstalling and reinstalling the client application Uninstalling and reinstalling .net 3.5 sp1 Comparing the defective machine's regional settings for numbers (using English (United Kingdom)) to those of a working machine - no differences. Has anyone seen anything like this or has any suggestions? I'm quickly running out of ideas... While I was typing this some more info came in: Passing a string value of "10000" to Convert.ToInt32() returns 0, so that also seems to drop the leading 1.

    Read the article

  • Compare _TCHAR* argv[] entries from command line to _T("paramString")

    - by David
    I know how to get the parameters from the command line. I also know how to print them out. The problem I'm having is how to compare the parameters from the argv[] array to a string. The progam runs but never returns a result where the parameter string is equal to the one I'm looking for. Thanks in advance. // Testing.cpp : Defines the entry point for the console application. // #include "stdafx.h" #include <iostream> using namespace std; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { for (int i = 0; i < argc; i = i + 1) { if (argv[i] == _T("find")) { wcout << "found at position " << i << endl; } else { wcout << "not found at " << i << endl; } } return 0; }

    Read the article

  • Restricting dynamically loaded classes and jars based on a security policy

    - by Max
    Hi, I would like to dynamically load a set of jars or classes (i.e. plugins loaded at runtime). At the same time, I would like to restrict what these plugins are able to do in the JVM. For a test case, I would like to restrict them to pretty much everything (right now I'm just allowing one System.getProperty value to be read). I am currently using a security policy file, but I'm having difficulty specifying a policy for one folder or package in my codeBase, but not another. Here is how my policy looks now: grant codeBase "file:/home/max/programming/java/plugin/plugins/" { permission java.util.PropertyPermission "java.version", "read"; }; grant codeBase "file:/home/max/programming/java/plugin/api/" { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; Where (for testing purposes), all files in the plugins package and folder are restricted, but the classes in the api folder are not. Is this possible? Do I have to create a custom class loader? Is there a better way to go about doing this? Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 316 317 318 319 320 321 322 323 324 325 326 327  | Next Page >