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  • Serialization of an object and its Contained Objects

    - by Amit
    There is a main class having 2 subClasses(each represent separate entity) and all classes needs to be serialized.. how should I proceed ? My requirement is when I serelize MainClass, I should get the xml for each sub class and main class as well. Thanks in advance... and if my approach is incorrect... correct that as well.. Ex given below... class MainClass { SubClass1 objSubclass1 = null; SubClass2 objSubclass2 = null; public MainClass() { objSubclass1 = new SubClass1(); objSubclass2 = new SubClass2(); } [XmlElement("SubClass1")] public SubClass1 SubClass1 {get {return objSubclass1;} } [XmlElement("SubClass2")] public SubClass2 SubClass2 {get {return objSubclass2;} } } Class SubClass1 { Some properties here... } Class SubClass2 { Some properties here... }

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  • Proper error handling in a custom Zend_Autoloader?

    - by Pekka
    I'm building a custom autoloader based on Zend Framework's autoloading (related question here). The basic approach, taken from that question, is class My_Autoloader implements Zend_Loader_Autoloader_Interface { public function autoload($class) { // add your logic to find the required classes in here } } and then binding the new autoloader class to a class prefix. Now what I'm unsure about is how to handle errors inside the autoload method (for example, "class file not found") in a proper, ZF compliant way. I'm new to the framework, its conventions and style. Do I quietly return false and let the class creation process crash? Do I output an error or log message somehow (which would be nice to pinpoint the problem) and return false? If so, what is the Zend way of doing that? Do I trigger an error? Do I throw an exception? If so, what kind?

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  • Generics vs Object performance

    - by Risho
    I'm doing practice problems from MCTS Exam 70-536 Microsft .Net Framework Application Dev Foundation, and one of the problems is to create two classes, one generic, one object type that both perform the same thing; in which a loop uses the class and iterated over thousand times. And using the timer, time the performance of both. There was another post at C# generics question that seeks the same questoion but nonone replied. Basically if in my code I run the generic class first it takes loger to process. If I run the object class first than the object class takes longer to process. The whole idea was to prove that generics perform faster. I used the original users code to save me some time. I didn't particularly see anything wrong with the code and was puzzled by the outcome. Can some one explain why the unusual results? Thanks, Risho Here is the code: class Program { class Object_Sample { public Object_Sample() { Console.WriteLine("Object_Sample Class"); } public long getTicks() { return DateTime.Now.Ticks; } public void display(Object a) { Console.WriteLine("{0}", a); } } class Generics_Samle<T> { public Generics_Samle() { Console.WriteLine("Generics_Sample Class"); } public long getTicks() { return DateTime.Now.Ticks; } public void display(T a) { Console.WriteLine("{0}", a); } } static void Main(string[] args) { long ticks_initial, ticks_final, diff_generics, diff_object; Object_Sample OS = new Object_Sample(); Generics_Samle<int> GS = new Generics_Samle<int>(); //Generic Sample ticks_initial = 0; ticks_final = 0; ticks_initial = GS.getTicks(); for (int i = 0; i < 50000; i++) { GS.display(i); } ticks_final = GS.getTicks(); diff_generics = ticks_final - ticks_initial; //Object Sample ticks_initial = 0; ticks_final = 0; ticks_initial = OS.getTicks(); for (int j = 0; j < 50000; j++) { OS.display(j); } ticks_final = OS.getTicks(); diff_object = ticks_final - ticks_initial; Console.WriteLine("\nPerformance of Generics {0}", diff_generics); Console.WriteLine("Performance of Object {0}", diff_object); Console.ReadKey(); } }

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  • Retrieve a static variable using its name dynamically using reflection

    - by user2538438
    How to retrieve a static variable using its name dynamically using Java reflection? If I have class containing some variables: public class myClass { string [][] cfg1= {{"01"},{"02"},{"81"},{"82"}}; string [][]cfg2= {{"c01"},{"c02"},{"c81"},{"c82"}}; string [][] cfg3= {{"d01"},{"d02"},{"d81"}{"d82"}}; int cfg11 = 5; int cfg22 = 10; int cfg33 = 15; } And in another class I want variable name is input from user: class test { Scanner in = new Scanner(System.in); String userInput = in.nextLine(); // get variable from class myClass that has the same name as userInput System.out.println("variable name " + // correct variable from class) } Using reflection. Any help please?

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  • MySQL customized join query using multiple tables

    - by itgeek
    I am searching one student from each class from one group. There are different class groups and every group has different classes and every class has multiple students. See below: Group1 --> Class1, Class2 etc Class1 --> GreenStudent1, GreenStudent2 etc Class2 --> RedStudent1, RedStudent2 etc ------------------------------------------------------ SELECT table1.id, table1.myname, table1.marks table2.studentid, table2.studentname FROM table1 INNER JOIN table3 ON table1.oldid = table3.id INNER JOIN table2 ON table2.studentid = table3.newid WHERE table1.classgroup = 'SCI79' GROUP BY table1.oldid ORDER BY table1.marks DESC There are different joins applied in the query. Above mentioned query giving me correct results but I need little modification in it. Current query returning me one student from each class. What I need? I need one student from each class but only that student who has MAXIMUM table1.marks So I should have one student from each class who has maximum number in their relevant classes. Can anyone suggest some solution or rewrite this query? Thanks :)

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  • Why this java application print "true"?

    - by user292084
    This is my first Class Hello.java public class Hello { String name = ""; } This is my second Class Test1.java public class Test1 { public static void main(String[] args) { Hello h = new Hello(); Test1 t = new Test1(); t.build(h); System.out.println((h.name)); } void build(Hello h){ h.name = "me"; } } When I run Test1.java, it prints "me". I think I understand, because of "reference transfer". This is my third Class Test2.java public class Test2 { public static void main(String[] args) { Hello h = null; Test2 t = new Test2(); t.build(h); System.out.println(((h == null))); } void build(Hello h){ h = new Hello(); } } When I run Test2.java, it prints "true", why ? Is it "reference transfer" no longer? I am confused.

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  • How do I map a one-to-one value type association in an joined-subclass?

    - by David Rubin
    I've got a class hierarchy mapped using table-per-subclass, and it's been working out great: class BasicReport { ... } class SpecificReport : BasicReport { ... } With mappings: <class name="BasicReport" table="reports"> <id name="Id" column="id">...</id> <!-- some common properties --> </class> <joined-subclass name="SpecificReport" table="specificReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <!-- some special properties --> </joined-subclass> So far, so good. The problem I'm struggling with is how to add a property to one of my subclasses that's both a value type for which I have an IUserType implemented and also mapped via an association: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get; set; } } class SpecialValueUserType : IUserType { ... } What I'd like to do is: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <join table="rptValues" fetch="join"> <key column="rptId"/> <property name="V" column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </join> </joined-subclass> This accurately reflects the intent, and the pre-existing database schema I'm tied to: the SpecialValue instance is a property of the OtherReport, but is stored in a separate table ("rptValues"). Unfortunately, it seems as though I can't do this, because <join> elements can't be used in <joined-subclass> mappings. <one-to-one> would require creating a class mapping for SpecialValue, which doesn't make any sense given that SpecialValue is just a meaningful scalar. So what can I do? Do I have any options? Right now I'm playing a game with sets: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get { return _values.Count() > 0 ? _values.First() : null; } set { _values.Clear(); _values.Add(value); } } private ICollection<SpecialValue> _values; } With mapping: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <set name="_values" access="field" table="rptValues" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="rptId" /> <element column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </set> </joined-subclass> Thanks in advance for the help! I've been banging my head into my desk for several days now.

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  • jquery validation plugin doesn't seem to work ....

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    asp.net mvc's Html.BeginForm() seems to work with jquery validation plugin but the validation plugin doesn't seem to work with a form which i ve added to a page.... This works, <% using (Html.BeginForm("Login", "Registration", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "Loginform" })) {%> <fieldset> <legend>Login</legend> <p> <label for="EmailId">EmailId:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("EmailId", null, new { @class = "text_box_height_14_width_150" })%> </p> <div class="status"></div> <p> <label for="Password">Password:</label> <%= Html.Password("Password",null, new { @class = "text_box_height_14_width_150" }) %> </p> <div class="status"></div> <p> <input type="submit" value="Login" id="login" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> But this doesn't work, <form id="Loginform" method="post" action="Registration/Login"> <table cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" width="100%" style="border:none;"> <tr> <td width="12%">Email Id&nbsp;:&nbsp;</td><td width="15%"> <input id="EmailId" type="text" class="text_box_height_14_width_150 name="EmailId" /></td><td width="20%" class="status"></td> <td width="12%">Password&nbsp;:&nbsp;<td width="15%"><input id="Password" type="password" class="text_box_height_14_width_150 name="Password" /></td> <td width="20%" class="status"></td> <td width="5%"><input type="submit" value="Login" id="BtnLogin" /></td> </tr> </table> </form> and my jquery function has this, $(document).ready(function() { var validator = $("#Loginform").validate({ rules: { EmailId: "required", Password: { required: true, minlength: 6 } }, messages: { EmailId: "Enter your EMail ID", Password: { required: "Please Provide a password", rangelength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters") } }, // the errorPlacement has to take the table layout into account errorPlacement: function(error, element) { error.appendTo(element.parent().next()); }, // set this class to error-labels to indicate valid fields success: function(label) { // set &nbsp; as text for IE label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); }); Any suggestion... Am i missing something?

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  • Hibernate - EhCache - Which region to Cache associations/sets/collections ??

    - by lifeisnotfair
    Hi all, I am a newcomer to hibernate. It would be great if someone could comment over the following query that i have: Say i have a parent class and each parent has multiple children. So the mapping file of parent class would be something like: parent.hbm.xml <hibernate-mapping > <class name="org.demo.parent" table="parent" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-write" region="org.demo.parent"/> <id name="id" column="id" type="integer" length="10"> <generator class="native"> </generator> </id> <property name="name" column="name" type="string" length="50"/> <set name="children" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-write" region="org.demo.parent.children" /> <key column="parent_id"/> <one-to-many class="org.demo.children"/> </set> </class> </hibernate-mapping> children.hbm.xml <hibernate-mapping > <class name="org.demo.children" table="children" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-write" region="org.demo.children"/> <id name="id" column="id" type="integer" length="10"> <generator class="native"> </generator> </id> <property name="name" column="name" type="string" length="50"/> <many-to-one name="parent_id" column="parent_id" type="integer" length="10" not-null="true"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> So for the set children, should we specify the region org.demo.parent.children where it should cache the association or should we use the cache region of org.demo.children where the children would be getting cached. I am using EHCache as the 2nd level cache provider. I tried to search for the answer to this question but couldnt find any answer in this direction. It makes more sense to use org.demo.children but I dont know in which scenarios one should use a separate cache region for associations/sets/collections as in the above case. Kindly provide your inputs also let me know if I am not clear in my question. Thanks all.

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  • Text replace with regex in SQL Server

    - by Thiyaneshwaran S
    Currently I have a SQL server column of type nvarchar(max) which has text that starts with <span class="escape_<<digits>>"></span> The only thing that varies in the pattern is the <<digits>> in the class name. The common part is <span class="myclass_ and the closing </span> Some sample values are <span class="myclass_12"></span> <span class="myclass_234"></span> <span class="myclass_4546"></span> These span text are present only at the beginning of the column. Any such matching span in the middle should not be removed or matched. Whats the SQL Server query with regex to remove all these occurances of span?

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  • Whats wrong with the following code, its not compiling

    - by Ganesh Kundapur
    #include <iostream> #include <vector> using namespace std; class Base { public: void Display( void ) { cout<<"Base display"<<endl; } int Display( int a ) { cout<<"Base int display"<<endl; return 0; } }; class Derived : public Base { public: void Display( void ) { cout<<"Derived display"<<endl; } }; void main() { Derived obj; obj.Display(); obj.Display( 10 ); } $test1.cpp: In function ‘int main()’: test1.cpp:35: error: no matching function for call to ‘Derived::Display(int)’ test1.cpp:24: note: candidates are: void Derived::Display() On commenting obj.Display(10), it works.

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  • Filtering content (jQuery)

    - by Nimbuz
    HTML: <div class="filter"> <a href="#category-1">category 1</a> <a href="#category-2">category 2</a> </div> <ul class="items"> <li class="category-1">item 1</li> <li class="category-1">item 2</li> <li class="category-2">item 3</li> <li class="category-2">item 4</li> </ul> What I want is for example clicking on 'category 1' link should hide all other category items from the list. I understand jQuery's .filter() selector can be used but I'm not sure how to implement it for my purpose here. Thanks for your help!

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  • Covariant return types in Java enums

    - by Kelvin Chung
    As mentioned in another question on this site, something like this is not legal: public enum MyEnum { FOO { public Integer doSomething() { return (Integer) super.doSomething(); } }, BAR { public String doSomething() { return (String) super.doSomething(); } }; public Object doSomething(); } This is due to covariant return types apparently not working on enum constants (again breaking the illusion that enum constants are singleton subclasses of the enum type...) So, how about we add a bit of generics: is this legal? public enum MyEnum2 { FOO { public Class<Integer> doSomething() { return Integer.class; } }, BAR { public Class<String> doSomething() { return String.class; } }; public Class<?> doSomething(); } Here, all three return Class objects, yet the individual constants are "more specific" than the enum type as a whole...

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  • Generic TypeIdenitifier convertion.How?

    - by John
    How do I convert the TypeIdenitifier to a class type? I need to use implicit convertion. type TMyChildArray<T>=class(TMyArray<T>) private FData:Array of T; procedure AddEnd(); end; TTypeIdenitifierParentClass=class(TAnotherParentClass) protected TestField:Cardinal; end; procedure TMyChildArray<T>.AddEnd(); var elem:T; begin for elem in Fdata do TTypeIdenitifierParentClass(elem).TestField:=0; end; I get "Invalid typecast" on the implicit convertion "TTypeIdenitifierParentClass(elem).TestField:=0;". The principle I want to use is that the TypeIdenitifier will represent a class that descends from TTypeIdenitifierParentClass.There are many class types,but all of them descend that class. How do I do this?

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  • Auto injecting logger with guice

    - by koss
    With reference to Guice's custom injections article, its TypeListener performs a check for InjectLogger.class annotation - which can be optional. Removing that check will inject to all Logger.class types. class Log4JTypeListener implements TypeListener { public <T> void hear(TypeLiteral<T> typeLiteral, TypeEncounter<T> typeEncounter) { for (Field field : typeLiteral.getRawType().getDeclaredFields()) { if (field.getType() == Logger.class && field.isAnnotationPresent(InjectLogger.class)) { typeEncounter.register(new Log4JMembersInjector<T>(field)); } } } } I'm tempted to remove "&& field.isAnnotationPresent(InjectLogger.class)" from the listener. If we're using Guice to inject all instances of our Logger, is there any reason not to do it automatically (without need to annotate)?

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  • (this == null) in C#!

    - by SLaks
    Due to a bug that was fixed in C# 4, the following program prints true. (Try it in LINQPad) void Main() { new Derived(); } class Base { public Base(Func<string> valueMaker) { Console.WriteLine(valueMaker()); } } class Derived : Base { string CheckNull() { return "Am I null? " + (this == null); } public Derived() : base(() => CheckNull()) { } } In VS2008 in Release mode, in throws an InvalidProgramException. (In Debug mode, it works fine) In VS2010 Beta 2, it doesn't compile (I didn't try Beta 1); I learned that the hard way Is there any other way to make this == null in pure C#?

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  • jQuery script to move an attribute of matched element to their children

    - by UserControl
    I have a set of anchors like <a class="lb" href="#">text</a> <a class="lb" href="#" style="width:200px">text</a> <a class="lb" href="#" style="color: reen; width:200px">text</a> that needs to be transformed to the following: <a class="lb" href="#"><span>text</span></a> <a class="lb" href="#"><span style="width:200px">text</span></a> <a class="lb" href="#" style="color:green"><span style="width:200px">text</span></a> I have no problem creating child span but don't know how to move parent's width styling.

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  • how to add a dynamic param

    - by user569846
    the jquery plugin that im using is this http://code.google.com/p/jquery-in-place-editor/ if i have a table like this <table> <thead> <tr> <th>id</th> <th>first name </th> <th>last name </th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <tr> <td class="id">1</td> <td class="fname">sarmen</td> <td class="lname">mikey</td> </tr> <tr> <td class="id">2</td> <td class="fname">john</td> <td class="lname">angelo</td> </tr> <tr> <td class="id">3</td> <td class="fname">sarmen</td> <td class="lname">grande</td> </tr> </tbody> </table> and my js looked something like this $("td.fname").editInPlace({ url: 'ajax.php', params: '', show_buttons: true }); then lets say i click on the first record to edit it which is fname of sarmen. how can i pass a param that only accociates id 1 ? because if i do a query of lets say "update tbl_users set fname = '$_POST['update_value']' where fname = '$_POST['original_html']'" (note: im just showing an example so no need to clean posts if that was bothering you :) ) if i run this query the fname of sarmen will update in two records rather than one. How can i only update to id of 1 being to update only one record.

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  • jQuery script to move an attribute of matched elements to their children

    - by UserControl
    I have a set of anchors like <a class="lb" href="#">text</a> <a class="lb" href="#" style="width:200px">text</a> <a class="lb" href="#" style="color: reen; width:200px">text</a> that needs to be transformed to the following: <a class="lb" href="#"><span>text</span></a> <a class="lb" href="#"><span style="width:200px">text</span></a> <a class="lb" href="#" style="color:green"><span style="width:200px">text</span></a> I have no problem creating child span but don't know how to move parent's width styling.

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  • The type{0} does not support direct content - WPF / XAML

    - by Levo
    Hi there: I defined in my code two classes: a "Person" class with public "Age" and "Name" property, and a "People" class that inherits from Generic.List(of T). The code for People class is as followed: Public Class People Inherits Collections.Generic.List(Of Person) ... End Class What I want to achieve is to directly initialize the People class, and add individual Person to it in XAML, i.e.: <local:People x:Key="Familty"> <local:Person Age="11" Name="John" /> <local:Person Age="12" Name="John2" /> ... </local:People> But I keep getting an error in XAML saying: The type 'People' does not support direct content. Any idea as for how to solve this problem? Thank you very much!

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  • Change ID to text in paragraph with jQuery

    - by Reuben
    I would like to take what text is in my p tag and make that the p tags parent (div) that ID. I would also like to add a _ for any spaces in the p tag. Example: <div class="circle"><p>Apple</p></div> <div class="circle"><p>Banana</p></div> <div class="circle"><p>Carrot Juice</p></div> to <div id="Apple" class="circle"><p>Apple</p></div> <div id="Banana" class="circle"><p>Banana</p></div> <div id="Carrot_Juice" class="circle"><p>Carrot Juice</p></div>

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  • Objective C instance variables - Newbie

    - by Dwayne King
    OK - so I'm sure my confusion here is just a result of being stuck in a "Java mindset" and not understanding how Obj C differs in this case. In Java, I can declare a variable in a class, like this, and each instance of that class will have it's own: MyClass { String myVar; MyClass() { // constructor } } In Obj C I tried to do the same thing by declaring a variable only in the .m file like this: #import "MyClass.h" @implementation MyClass NSString *testVar; @end My expectation here was that this variable has a scope limited to this class. So I created a second class (identical): #import "MySecondClass.h" @implementation MySecondClass NSString *testVar; @end What I'm seeing (and has me baffled) is that changing the variable in one class, affects the value seen in the other class. In fact, if I set a breakpoint, and then "Jump to Definition" of the variable, it takes me to th I've created an extremely small XCode project that demonstrates the problem here Nothing more humbling than moving to a new language :) Thanks in advance.

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  • Java applet wont run

    - by Courtney
    I am trying to get a Java applet to run properly when linked to an HTML page in Dreamweaver CC. I'm new to all this so please bear with me here. First I saved this code to a .java file //Triangle.java import java.awt.*; import java.applet.Applet; public class Triangle extends Applet { public void paint (Graphics g){ int bottomX=80; int bottomY=200; int base=100; int height=100; g.drawLine(bottomX,bottomY,bottomX+base,bottomY); g.drawLine(bottomX+base,bottomY,bottomX+base/2,bottomY-height); g.drawLine(bottomX+base/2,bottomY-height, bottomX,bottomY); } } I then compiled it entering javac Triangle.java After that, I inserted it into a Dreamwever page using: <html> <applet code=Triangle.class width=400 height=400 > </applet> </html> Now when I try and open the page in Chrome I get an error reading: UnsupportedClassVersionError Triangle: Unsupported major.minor version 52.0 This, as I have read, is an issue with using two incompatible Java versions? In my Java Control Panel it says I am using version 1.8.0_20 and my JDK is jdk1.8.0_20. Does anyone see anything super obvious that I am doing wrong here?

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  • How do I execute queries upon DB connection in Rails?

    - by sycobuny
    I have certain initializing functions that I use to set up audit logging on the DB server side (ie, not rails) in PostgreSQL. At least one has to be issued (setting the current user) before inserting data into or updating any of the audited tables, or else the whole query will fail spectacularly. I can easily call these every time before running any save operation in the code, but DRY makes me think I should have the code repeated in as few places as possible, particularly since this diverges greatly from the ideal of database agnosticism. Currently I'm attempting to override ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection in an initializer to set it up so that the queries are run as soon as I connect automatically, but it doesn't behave as I expect it to. Here is the code in the initializer: class ActiveRecord::Base # extend the class methods, not the instance methods class << self alias :old_establish_connection :establish_connection # hide the default def establish_connection(*args) ret = old_establish_connection(*args) # call the default # set up necessary session variables for audit logging # call these after calling default, to make sure conn is established 1st db = self.class.connection db.execute("SELECT SV.set('current_user', 'test@localhost')") db.execute("SELECT SV.set('audit_notes', NULL)") # end "empty variable" err ret # return the default's original value end end end puts "Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base" sycobuny:~/rails$ ruby script/server = Booting WEBrick = Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base This doesn't give me any errors, and unfortunately I can't check what the method looks like internally (I was using ActiveRecord::Base.method(:establish_connection), but apparently that creates a new Method object each time it's called, which is seemingly worthless cause I can't check object_id for any worthwhile information and I also can't reverse the compilation). However, the code never seems to get called, because any attempt to run a save or an update on a database object fails as I predicted earlier. If this isn't a proper way to execute code immediately on connection to the database, then what is?

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  • CSS: How the backgrounds can extend the border and overlap?

    - by AlexStack
    I'm designing a navigation bar as shown in image below (a) with the following code: <ul> <li class="unselected">Step 1</li> <li class="selected">Step 2</li> <li class="unselected">Step 3</li> <li class="unselected">Step 4</li> <li class="unselected">Step 5</li> </ul> I want to have one background image for unselected steps (d) and one for the selected step (c). For simplicity let's assume Step 1 and Step 5 use the same background as well. I want to adjust the button background in HTML only with a class name. The question is how can I achieve the result with CSS? I just want to know how background of two neighbor elements can overlap each other?

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